"Mizzyandrea" <mizzyandrea@aol.com> wrote in message
news:20031224102155.15398.00001720@mb-m04.aol.com...

WHAT THE BIBLE SAYS ABOUT ABORTION

Neither the Hebrew Scriptures (Old Testament) nor the Christian

address abortion directly. However, writings in the early Christian

movement by

the end of the 1st century or the beginning of the 2nd century CE do

condemn

abortion.
Hebrew Scriptures: Exodus 21:22 is a key passage. As translated in the

International Version, this verse implies that the fetus is a human

person.

However, the most common interpretation of this same verse, as seen in

other

translations, implies that the fetus is not a human being. Other

in

the Hebrew Scriptures tend to devalue the fetus.

As explained by Adam Clarke

Exo 21:22 -

And hurt a woman with child - As a posterity among the Jews was among the
peculiar promises of their covenant, and as every man had some reason to
think that the Messiah should spring from his family, therefore any injury
done to a woman with child, by which the fruit of her womb might be
destroyed, was considered a very heavy offense; and as the crime was
committed principally against the husband, the degree of punishment was

to his discretion. But if mischief followed, that is, if the child had

fully formed, and was killed by this means, or the woman lost her life in
consequence, then the punishment was as in other cases of murder - the
person was put to death;



Albert Barnes explains

Christian Scriptures: Luke 1:41 might be interpreted to condemn

after fetal viability.

Also explained by Clarke

Luk 1:41 -

Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost - This seems to have been the
accomplishment of the promise made by the angel, Luk_1:15, He shall be
filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother's womb. The mother is
filled with the Holy Spirit, and the child in her womb becomes sensible of
the Divine influence.



Albert Barnes goes on to say,

Luk 1:41 -

Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost - The meaning of this seems to be
that she was filled with joy; with a disposition to praise God; with a
prophetic spirit, or a knowledge of the character of the child that should
be born of her. All these were produced by the Holy Spirit.

The Hebrew and Christian Scriptures (Old and New Testament) use the same

word

to refer to an unborn fetus, newborn or older child. This is a

of

the Hebrew and Greek languages. It might be interpreted as implying

Both ancient Israelites and Pagan Greeks considered that the fetus is

fully

human, equivalent to a newborn child...or
They simply called both children and potential children by the same

much

as modern-day parents-to-be refer to a fetus as a baby.
A case can be made that the 99% of all abortions (those which are

performed

prior to viability of the fetus) do not appear to be prohibited by Bible
passages, as translated by most versions of the Bible.

Why would something written by a feeble minded pro-abortionist of
today have anything to do with what the Bible means? Anyone can tell
what the Bible means: Luke 2:5 To be taxed with Mary his espoused
wife, being great with child.
Robert B. Winn

prochoice@killspam.bigfoot.com.
wrote:

Lawrence E. McKnight
<lawrence.delete.mcknight@sbcglobal.delete.net>
wrote:

prochoice@killspam.bigfoot.com.
wrote:

rbwinn47@mybluelight.com
(Robert B. Winn) wrote:

spartakus@my-deja.com
(Spartakus) wrote:

golddodgearies@yahoo.com
(golddodgearies) wrote...

jsavard@ecn.aSBLOKb.caNADA.invalid
(John Savard) wrote...

Great with child is simply an
English phrase for pregnancy []
and thus does not constitute
evidence that the unborn are
truly children.

Well, it testifies to the fact that
they were considered children, which
does constitute 'evidence' in some
sense of that term,

Excuse me, truck-boy, but did you
ever consider that Luke's Gospel
was written in Greek and has been
translated into other languages
besides English? For example,
German translations do not describe
Mary or Elizabeth as being "gross
mit Kind".

And are you aware that other English
translations do not use the phrase
"great with child" to describe Mary's
and Elizabeth's conditions?

So when a pregnant woman is referred
to as "having a bun in the oven", does
that mean that the father is a fried
danish?

Sorry, but we are descendants of the
English and speak English and understand
it the same way the English understood it
in 1611. If you prefer the German Bible,
why don't you just go ahead and use that
one.

I see you have not changed a bit. You
ignore anything you don't like or can't
answer and jump on any single word or
phrase to make a totally unrelated comment.
It is impossible to have any kind of dialog
with you.

Are you leaving again soon I hope?

BTW, the English of 1611 almost requires
a translator to be understood today.

Hardly a translator... just a glossary for
a few obsolete words. Sharkespeare is not
that hard to read.

Shakespear is hardly a fair comparison
since it is so widely read and known.
Plus, of course, it was written by
someone who is the acknowledged master
of word usage. Try some of the lesser
known writings by others, many of which
contained contemporary references that
makes them almost indecipherable.

Examples?

BTW, the English of 1611 almost requires a translator to be understood
today.

Hardly a translator... just a glossary for a few obsolete words.
Sharkespeare is not that hard to read.

Shakespear is hardly a fair comparison since it is so widely read and
known. Plus, of course, it was written by someone who is the acknowledged
master of word usage. Try some of the lesser known writings by others,
many of which contained contemporary references that makes them almost
indecipherable.

Examples?