| Topic: |
Religions > Atheism |
| User: |
"Discourser" |
| Date: |
12 Aug 2004 02:53:09 AM |
| Object: |
10-COMMANDMENT BELIEVERS IN SLAVERY |
10-COMMANDMENTS' BELIEVERS IN SLAVERY
"nor his manservant, nor his maidservant . . ."
READ THIS:
"Thou shalt not covet thy neighbor's house, thou shalt not covet thy
neighbor's wife, nor his manservant, nor his maidservant, nor his ox, nor
his *****, nor anything that is thy neighbor's."
-- 10th Commandment of the 10 Commandments of Moses in the Bible
___________________________
Atheists and Humanist oppose mental and physical slavery in all of its
forms.
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| User: "Bobs Boyfriend" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
05 Sep 2004 03:17:40 PM |
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In article <fYD_c.7024$Wv5.6806@newsread3.news.atl.earthlink.net>,
"Marvin Edwards" <mbe2uu@earthlink.net> wrote:
"Ray Fischer" <rfischer@bolt.sonic.net> wrote in message
news:che38c$8ma$1@bolt.sonic.net...
Is killing one person to save two a "great harm"?<
Two question need to be answered: 1) Can this harm be avoided by choosing a
less harmful alternative way to save the two? and 2) What are the long range
consequences of the policy we are establishing with this decision? (Kant's
problem with universalizing this into an ethical principle. Or, my mother's
problem when she said, "suppose everyone did this?") Presuming there is no
other way to save the two than to take the life of the one, would the two
wish to be in the shoes of the one?
Unless you are like me and see value in a "redemption" philosophy. We
can argue slavery as a bad or evil thing, however, what came of slavery
can also be viewed as good and possibly necessary thing if we think
equality in the US (or as close as it is) is important.
And what if it is justified by species preservation? For that matter, is
species extinction a great harm? <
Same two questions as above. And, yes, species extinction is one of those a
priori harms.
You still are resorting to your personal opinion, which is precisely what
many people say that all morality is - personal opinion. <
Ah! But that is not what morality "is"! The fact that different people have
different opinions as to which policies produce the best results, does not
change the fact that all moral people seek the best result! What morality
"is" is the pursuit of the best result (greatest good and least harm). This
is clearly distinguished from "immorality" which pursues selfish desires at
the expense of others.
But you don't even have a way of determining what is "best".<
In practice, moral judgement is like any other judgement: gathering
information, considering alternatives, making the call, seeing how things
work out, and repeat as needed.
They have never been easy.<
Amen.
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| User: "Marvin Edwards" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
05 Sep 2004 07:30:59 PM |
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"Bob's Boyfriend" <together@wyoming.com> wrote in message
news:together-35E36D.16175605092004@nntp.bloor-old.is.net.cable.rogers.com...
Unless you are like me and see value in a "redemption" philosophy. <
I was raised by Christians and most certainly believe in redemption. Come to
think of it, anyone who has been a parent of a child must also believe in
redemption -- otherwise we might have strangled them. :-)
We can argue slavery as a bad or evil thing ... <
It is bad to seek our selfish ends at the expense of others. It is evil to
prefer achieving our selfish ends at the expense of others. And yes, we all
have a bit of evil in us.
..., however, what came of slavery can also be viewed as good and possibly
necessary thing if we think equality in the US (or as close as it is) is
important. <
I see your point. But we have no "God's eye view" of the ultimate ends of
our actions. Therefore we must act in a way that can reasonably be expected
to produce good results. No one importing black slaves was thinking it would
lead to better racial relations 300 years later. They were only thinking of
how to grow cheap cotton.
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| User: "Ray Fischer" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
05 Sep 2004 11:33:02 AM |
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Marvin Edwards <mbe2uu@earthlink.net> wrote:
"Ray Fischer" <rfischer@bolt.sonic.net> wrote in message
news:che38c$8ma$1@bolt.sonic.net...
Is killing one person to save two a "great harm"?<
Two question need to be answered: 1) Can this harm be avoided by choosing a
less harmful alternative way to save the two? and 2) What are the long range
consequences of the policy we are establishing with this decision?
1) No.
2) Who knows? Can't read the future.
(Kant's
problem with universalizing this into an ethical principle. Or, my mother's
problem when she said, "suppose everyone did this?") Presuming there is no
other way to save the two than to take the life of the one, would the two
wish to be in the shoes of the one?
So harm to an individual is a of greater import than harm to society?
And what if it is justified by species preservation? For that matter, is
species extinction a great harm? <
Same two questions as above. And, yes, species extinction is one of those a
priori harms.
Why?
You still are resorting to your personal opinion, which is precisely what
many people say that all morality is - personal opinion. <
Ah! But that is not what morality "is"! The fact that different people have
different opinions as to which policies produce the best results, does not
change the fact that all moral people seek the best result!
Where "best result" is a personal opinion.
What morality
"is" is the pursuit of the best result (greatest good and least harm). This
is clearly distinguished from "immorality" which pursues selfish desires at
the expense of others.
You're still resorting to person opinion.
But you don't even have a way of determining what is "best".<
In practice, moral judgement is like any other judgement: gathering
information, considering alternatives, making the call, seeing how things
work out, and repeat as needed.
And so morality is determined by the individual opinions of people.
Not that that's bad. I happen to think it's the only option. People
who have tried to come up with an objective basis for morals have
never succeeded.
--
Ray Fischer
rfischer@sonic.net
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| User: "Marvin Edwards" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
05 Sep 2004 12:39:12 PM |
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"Ray Fischer" <rfischer@bolt.sonic.net> wrote in message
news:chff3t$uvf$1@bolt.sonic.net...
1) No. 2) Who knows? Can't read the future. <
We can't know the future with certainty, but we can (and do) make reasonable
guesses based upon experience, reason, and science. The more we know, the
better our guess will be. In your example, we know only that there are three
people, and that either one will die or two will die. But you've given
nothing of the circumstances.
Consider these two similar circumstances:
A) Two thieves each have a .45 pointed at the man behind the counter of the
convenience store they are about to rob. The man behind the counter has a
shotgun, and it will kill both thieves. Is it better for one person to die
or for two persons to die?
B) Same scenario, except there is one thief, with the shotgun, and two store
clerks have the two revolvers. Is it better for one person to die or for two
persons to die?
What remains constant, and what makes this a "moral" issue rather than some
other kind of issue, is that it is all about achieving the best good with
the least harm.
species extinction is one of those a priori harms.<<
Why? <
Because there must be life in order to have good.
Where "best result" is a personal opinion. ... You're still resorting to
person opinion. ... And so morality is determined by the individual opinions
of people. ... Not that that's bad. I happen to think it's the only option.
People who have tried to come up with an objective basis for morals have
never succeeded. <
But 1) the objective basis for morals is already known and 2) we actually
employ that objective criteria in a practical way on a daily basis. The
objective basis of morals is to create the best good with the least harm.
And we know that if we allow thieves to rob stores, we will eventually lose
the stores. The good/harm can be assessed in the same way one assesses
cost/benefit. We may not know to the penny what the measure of good and harm
are, but we can know objectively at a grosser level that one principle
(anyone may steal anytime) is morally inferior to another (no one may steal)
at producing good.
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| User: "Bobs Boyfriend" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
05 Sep 2004 03:26:27 PM |
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In article <4bI_c.7219$Wv5.621@newsread3.news.atl.earthlink.net>,
"Marvin Edwards" <mbe2uu@earthlink.net> wrote:
"Ray Fischer" <rfischer@bolt.sonic.net> wrote in message
news:chff3t$uvf$1@bolt.sonic.net...
1) No. 2) Who knows? Can't read the future. <
We can't know the future with certainty, but we can (and do) make reasonable
guesses based upon experience, reason, and science. The more we know, the
better our guess will be. In your example, we know only that there are three
people, and that either one will die or two will die. But you've given
nothing of the circumstances.
Consider these two similar circumstances:
A) Two thieves each have a .45 pointed at the man behind the counter of the
convenience store they are about to rob. The man behind the counter has a
shotgun, and it will kill both thieves. Is it better for one person to die
or for two persons to die?
B) Same scenario, except there is one thief, with the shotgun, and two store
clerks have the two revolvers. Is it better for one person to die or for two
persons to die?
What remains constant, and what makes this a "moral" issue rather than some
other kind of issue, is that it is all about achieving the best good with
the least harm.
species extinction is one of those a priori harms.<<
Why? <
Because there must be life in order to have good.
Where "best result" is a personal opinion. ... You're still resorting to
person opinion. ... And so morality is determined by the individual opinions
of people. ... Not that that's bad. I happen to think it's the only option.
People who have tried to come up with an objective basis for morals have
never succeeded. <
Which suggests that concept of morals is flawed. I don't need a moral
code.
But 1) the objective basis for morals is already known and 2) we actually
employ that objective criteria in a practical way on a daily basis. The
objective basis of morals is to create the best good with the least harm.
And we know that if we allow thieves to rob stores, we will eventually lose
the stores. The good/harm can be assessed in the same way one assesses
cost/benefit. We may not know to the penny what the measure of good and harm
are, but we can know objectively at a grosser level that one principle
(anyone may steal anytime) is morally inferior to another (no one may steal)
at producing good.
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| User: "Marvin Edwards" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
05 Sep 2004 07:31:00 PM |
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"Bob's Boyfriend" <together@wyoming.com> wrote in message
news:together-9D34F9.16264305092004@nntp.bloor-old.is.net.cable.rogers.com...
... Which suggests that concept of morals is flawed. I don't need a moral
code. ... <
Obviously you need one, since you have one.
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| User: "Ray Fischer" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
05 Sep 2004 03:29:09 PM |
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Marvin Edwards <mbe2uu@earthlink.net> wrote:
"Ray Fischer" <rfischer@bolt.sonic.net> wrote in message
1) No. 2) Who knows? Can't read the future. <
We can't know the future with certainty, but we can (and do) make reasonable
guesses based upon experience, reason, and science. The more we know, the
better our guess will be. In your example, we know only that there are three
people, and that either one will die or two will die. But you've given
nothing of the circumstances.
Why do the circumstances matter? You insist that life is good.
If two lives are better than one then killing one to save two is
a necessary good.
Consider these two similar circumstances:
A) Two thieves each have a .45 pointed at the man behind the counter of the
convenience store they are about to rob. The man behind the counter has a
shotgun, and it will kill both thieves. Is it better for one person to die
or for two persons to die?
Define "better".
What remains constant, and what makes this a "moral" issue rather than some
other kind of issue, is that it is all about achieving the best good with
the least harm.
Circular argument. You're trying to define good in term of good.
species extinction is one of those a priori harms.<<
Why? <
Because there must be life in order to have good.
Why?
And just because one species goes extinct doens't mean the end of life.
Where "best result" is a personal opinion. ... You're still resorting to
person opinion. ... And so morality is determined by the individual opinions
of people. ... Not that that's bad. I happen to think it's the only option.
People who have tried to come up with an objective basis for morals have
never succeeded. <
But 1) the objective basis for morals is already known
Dont' start lying to me. There is no objective basis for morals.
and 2) we actually
employ that objective criteria in a practical way on a daily basis.
*****.
--
Ray Fischer
rfischer@sonic.net
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| User: "ralph" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
05 Sep 2004 01:09:50 PM |
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In message <chff3t$uvf$1@bolt.sonic.net>, Ray Fischer
<rfischer@bolt.sonic.net> writes
And so morality is determined by the individual opinions of people.
Not that that's bad. I happen to think it's the only option. People
who have tried to come up with an objective basis for morals have never
succeeded.
Morality is a code of conduct. If you wish to belong to a society, it's
advisable to follow it. So it is a collective of the opinions of
individuals, but no one determines anything but their own morality.
This collective is not the same as "objective". Morality is not
something for which objective standards can exist. As I have said
elsewhere, they will vary by time and place.
For example, public executions were morally acceptable almost everywhere
two hundred years ago. Today they are acceptable in very few places. But
frying prisoners is still acceptable in many of the United States, not
in any European state.
--
ralph
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| User: "Liberator Veritatis" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
03 Sep 2004 06:51:21 PM |
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On Fri, 03 Sep 2004 12:04:17 GMT, "Marvin Edwards"
<mbe2uu@earthlink.net> wrote:
"Liberator Veritatis" <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> wrote in message
news:bqlfj0d2r33f2bl2oqt5scjr9f33ju8ne0@4ax.com...
... but Kant never says in the Groundwork of the Metaphysic of Morals,
that a "good will" is "real and true intent to do what is right and good." <
Yet a "real and true intent to do what is right and good" is the functional
definition of a "good will". At least in human terms. I believe he goes on
also about the theoretical implicit "good will" of "God" which proceeds from
"His" very nature, while in our case (mere mortals) our intent is less
purely good.
Well, it is circular unless you already know what good is. So, when
we apply this definition of a "good will" we are already making
assumptions about what it means to be "good".
For one thing, that would just be Begging the Question. You cannot
understand the good by identifying it as "real and true intent to do what is
right and good," since you are still left wondering what "good" is. (Using
a word to define itself is circular.) <
But that's not how we define "good". Something is "good" if it meets a real
need we have as individuals, society, or species.
No -- that is *A* definition of "good". Morality is simply not
defined that way. And, that is why it is perilous to try to use
"good" to define morality -- it doesn't really distinguish purely
personal prudential matters from moral issues.
Morality, as a discipline,
is about how we achieve the best good and least harm for everyone.
Well, it should be obvious by now that I think this characterization
of morality is simply false. I'm open to the possibility of it, but I
certainly cannot just accept that as the *definition* of "morality".
A moral
intent is Kant's "good will", and it drives us to seek the goal of the best
good and least harm for all.
No -- in fact, Kant was quite clear about his views on utilitarianism.
He very explicitly rejects it. The "good will" is not about seeking
the best good and least harm for all.
It is not circular, but linear. Life itself implies need.
Why do we need to live? Kant counts suicide as certainly lacking in
virtue, but there is no particular reason why living or surviving
should be a *moral* imperative. Clearly the vast majority of us seek
as a personal end, but how does it make someone immoral for not doing
so?
Living things need
water and see water when thirsty as "good" and water when drowning as "bad"
(because they also need air).
Again, when living things see water and air as "good", they are not
making a moral assertion about it. I'm not just saying that maybe
they aren't or that it is usually accepted that they aren't. They
clearly are not. If this sort of a thing is included in your moral
philosophy, then it isn't a *moral* philosophy -- you aren't talking
about morality here.
But for another, it is well known that by a "good will" Kant means one
that values duty. If you read past the titles in his book, you will
immediately see that he labors hard to distinguish what he is talking about
from merely wishing to attain generally "good" ends. <
Well I'm only interested in the things he gets right. Same with
utilitarianism, etc. :-)
Well said. Focusing on the first section of the Groundwork is not a
good way to try to understand Kant. The best way is to read the
Metaphysics of Morals which is a two section book laying out his moral
philosophy and not just some preliminary groundwork for it.
So, more to what I think is the basis for morality, then is what Kant
really discusses, namely the Categorical Imperative in "strong" and
"weak" forms. Particularly, in the Metaphysics of Morals, he
discusses the weak form of the CI which is more or less what I have
already presented. He goes on to say that this form of the CI is
equivalent to a "universal law of freedom" which he says is the only
innate right we truly have (in contrast to John Locke's rights of
life, health, liberty and property). This right to freedom must be
consistent with everyone else's right to the same as a universal law.
Or basically, Kant argues that Justice (morality as it applies to
distinct individuals interacting with one another) is based on the
idea that one has the right to do anything they wish so long as they
do not interfere with someone else's right to the same. David Boaz of
the CATO Institute refers to this in modern lingo as "co-possible
liberty" which is probably a good way to refer to it and how I will
talk about it from now on. So, you want to maximize "the good", but I
am claiming that the end of moral philosophy is really more about
maximizing co-possible liberty.
What one chooses to do with that is another matter. If we all ruin
ourselves, then that would not be "good" (in my opinion) but it would
be morally permissible for the same reason that choosing to improve
oneself is "good" but not morally required.
First of all, one cannot consistently make "everyone should commit
suicide," into a universal law because while you can universalize almost
anything, you must also be able to universalize, at the same time, the
second order act of universalizing. You must be able to both universalize
the particular law you are interested in as well as universalize the act of
universalizing that law. So, while you can make suicide a universal law
that applies to everyone, even yourself, you cannot simultaneously permit
others to universalize their law about suicide unless everyone just happens
to want to universalize the same law as you. <
Well, we know that your conclusion cannot be correct because it "reduces to
absurdity". For example, if we presume that no law may be universalized
unless everyone is in agreement, then it becomes impossible to universalize
any law at all, ever. And that would be absurd, making all of Kant's writing
pointless. Therefore it must be false. (Let me know if I'm not doing this
right).
Well, that is why your suicide law is not universalizable and in
general, one cannot just make up arbitrary laws and try to
universalize them. However, the law of universalizability is
universalizable by construction. And, anything we deduce from it has
to be as well.
Now, let me just stop here and remind us of what you originally said
about the principle of morality being easy to state but very hard to
apply properly. The same or something similar is just as true about
co-possible liberty (aka the weak categorical imperative, the
principle of autonomy, the principle of universal freedom).
I believe that Kant's categorical imperative implies that the correct
principle will be embraced by everyone who gives it thought, because it is
self-proving, and therefore anyone who gives it thought will feel compelled
to act upon it. I believe that's what the "imperative" is about. "God", for
example, has perfect "good will", and always acts upon it without
questioning. We mortals on the other hand have a less perfectly good will.
Well, the god issue is another matter altogether. After he discusses
morality, Kant goes on to discuss free-will, god, the immortality of
the soul and so on. I am a strong atheist, so obviously I have no
fully embraced Kant on those matters. But, the point is that they are
conclusions he draws from moral philosophy as a consequence of it --
it is not part of his moral philosophy.
In any case, the CI is not saying that. Kant has suggest a principle
that he thinks is part and parcel with any discussion of morality.
You simply cannot be talking about morality if you aren't talking
about something that is consistent with the CI. It is more complex
that mere universality. That is, you cannot just take any rule you
wish and apply it universally and expect it to actually have been
universalizable or consistent with the Categorical Imperative.
Secondly, the result being "bad" to you doesn't make it immoral. All
sorts of things are "bad" -- like a bad hangover -- but for the most part
they are supposed to have nothing to do with morality (just like a bad
hangover isn't supposed to mean that the hangover is "wrong"). <
The harm from the hangover implies something was wrong about the drinking.
When do we say that drinking is "wrong"? Whenever it is likely to produce
more harm than good! Moral judgements reduce to weighing ultimate good
versus ultimate harm. And it is the same simple concept of "good" as "goods
and services" and "good sport" and "good life" which morality is all about.
No, those "good"s are mostly personal or aesthetic good. But, let us
suppose for the moment that you are right. Wouldn't that mean that
every move you make is subject to moral evaluation? Is that really
what you are trying to say? Whether I decide to major in math or
philosophy is a moral issue, whether I use starch or no starch in my
dry cleaning is a moral issue, everything is a *moral* issue?
--
Liberator Veritatis
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| User: "Marvin Edwards" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
03 Sep 2004 10:10:10 PM |
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"Liberator Veritatis" <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> wrote in message
news:cplhj0tnpfkcpm96njljtm3p1g08th2ebu@4ax.com...
... when we apply this definition of a "good will" we are already making
assumptions about what it means to be "good". ... <
We are presuming a reliable definition of "good" prior to defining "good
will" (just like we are presuming a reliable definition of "will"). But this
does not mean that we know whether any specific thing or action is always
good or not. We do not have to know whether the ultimate result of outlawing
abortion is more good than harm. We may never know that with any certainty.
But we do know that the yardstick is our best guess or estimate of the
ultimate result. Different people may reach different estimates by including
different factors and weighting them differently. But each person is seeking
the "better" principle or rule to follow, based upon which they expect will
produce the more good and less harm.
Something is "good" if it meets a real need we have as individuals,
society, or species. <<
... that is *A* definition of "good". Morality is simply not defined that
way. And, that is why it is perilous to try to use "good" to define
morality -- it doesn't really distinguish purely personal prudential matters
from moral issues.<
The only difference between "prudential matters" and "moral issues" is the
size of the issue. But they are made of the same semantic stuff, varying
only in degree, but not in substance. A matter of prudence may escalate into
a moral issue. A moral issue may de-escalate to a matter of prudence.
Abortion, for example, is viewed by some as a matter of prudence, by others
as a moral issue.
Morality, as a discipline, is about how we achieve the best good and least
harm for everyone. <<
Well, it should be obvious by now that I think this characterization of
morality is simply false. I'm open to the possibility of it, but I
certainly cannot just accept that as the *definition* of "morality". <
However, the definition appears to hold up in all cases...so far. Do you
have a moral issue which falls outside this definition?
No -- in fact, Kant was quite clear about his views on utilitarianism. He
very explicitly rejects it. The "good will" is not about seeking the best
good and least harm for all. <
Yet I would assert that all of Kant's principles will be defended in terms
which reduce to a search for the better good and/or the lesser harm. I say
that with no special knowledge of Kant, because I believe it will be true
for all moral theories.
Why do we need to live? <
Well, the a priori answer is that we need to live because when life ceases
WE cease. In fact, a living organism may be expressed as "a bundle of
organized needs in a cycle of satisfaction, rest, agitation, seeking,
acquiring, satisfaction, rest, etc."
Kant counts suicide as certainly lacking in virtue, but there is no
particular reason why living or surviving should be a *moral* imperative.
Clearly the vast majority of us seek as a personal end, but how does it make
someone immoral for not doing so? <
Except in the most extreme circumstances, it is irrational for a living
being to seek death. The living being has no experience of anything except
life. Whatever it imagines itself to be when dead is therefore incorrect.
There is nothing there to seek! There is no "good" in an unnecessary death.
So we would expect all moral theories to reach the same conclusion (in their
own roundabout way).
Again, when living things see water and air as "good", they are not making
a moral assertion about it. I'm not just saying that maybe they aren't or
that it is usually accepted that they aren't. They clearly are not. If
this sort of a thing is included in your moral philosophy, then it isn't a
*moral* philosophy -- you aren't talking about morality here. <
You keep saying that. But there is no basis for distinguishing "moral good"
from any other kind of "good". For example, we agree that depriving a child
of food and water is morally wrong. Why? It is because there is harm when
real urgent needs of life are denied a living being. It is morally wrong to
do unnecessary harm, because we may deduce that not doing this harm improves
the overall good for that person (or society, or species).
... Focusing on the first section of the Groundwork is not a good way to
try to understand Kant. The best way is to read the Metaphysics of Morals
which is a two section book laying out his moral philosophy and not just
some preliminary groundwork for it. <
But, like I say, I'm less interested in understanding Kant than I am in
discerning the correct answer.
So, more to what I think is the basis for morality, then is what Kant
really discusses, namely the Categorical Imperative in "strong" and "weak"
forms. Particularly, in the Metaphysics of Morals, he discusses the weak
form of the CI which is more or less what I have already presented. He goes
on to say that this form of the CI is equivalent to a "universal law of
freedom" which he says is the only innate right we truly have (in contrast
to John Locke's rights of life, health, liberty and property). This right
to freedom must be consistent with everyone else's right to the same as a
universal law. <
Am I correct that Kant defines "freedom" as the ability to follow the
"categorical imperative"? In other words, we are only free to do what is
good and right.
Or basically, Kant argues that Justice (morality as it applies to distinct
individuals interacting with one another) is based on the idea that one has
the right to do anything they wish so long as they do not interfere with
someone else's right to the same. <
Sounds like a libertarian spin on Kant. This skeptic doubts it is accurate.
David Boaz of the CATO Institute refers to this in modern lingo as
"co-possible liberty" which is probably a good way to refer to it and how I
will talk about it from now on. <
Good! We can stop trying to get Kant to speak for CATO at this point and
discuss the issues more directly.
So, you want to maximize "the good", but I am claiming that the end of
moral philosophy is really more about maximizing co-possible liberty. <
One simple question: Why do you wish to maximize co-possible liberty? Is
there some other reason than "maximizing co-possible liberty" will likely
improve the life of individuals, the society, and the species?
What one chooses to do with that is another matter. If we all ruin
ourselves, then that would not be "good" (in my opinion) but it would be
morally permissible for the same reason that choosing to improve oneself is
"good" but not morally required. <
For the benefits of personal liberty, and the satisfaction of personal
responsibility, society should generally avoid unnecessarily regulating the
daily lives of individuals. We believe we are all better off in a "free
society", thus there is greater good in this principle than one that says,
"the state shall design a toothbrush and every citizen will brush from 40 to
80 strokes twice a day". The harm done to those who develop cavities is less
than the harm done to the choice of a personal toothbrush.
Now, let me just stop here and remind us of what you originally said about
the principle of morality being easy to state but very hard to apply
properly. The same or something similar is just as true about co-possible
liberty (aka the weak categorical imperative, the principle of autonomy, the
principle of universal freedom). <
Of course. However, "maximize co-possible liberty" is an ethical or moral
principle, but not a definition of morality. Morality may be defined as the
intent, philosophy, science, craft, and art of achieving good, for others as
well as for ourselves.
... You simply cannot be talking about morality if you aren't talking
about something that is consistent with the CI. ... <
The Categorical Imperative is about one mechanism for deriving principles
which are more likely to produce good results. Requiring that a principle be
applied equitably, such that the person advocating the principle must also
be willing to be governed by it, helps to eliminate principles that produce
good results for a few people but bad results for everyone else.
... those "good"s are mostly personal or aesthetic good. But, let us
suppose for the moment that you are right. Wouldn't that mean that every
move you make is subject to moral evaluation? Is that really what you are
trying to say? Whether I decide to major in math or philosophy is a moral
issue, whether I use starch or no starch in my dry cleaning is a moral
issue, everything is a *moral* issue? <
And the Buddhist monk, inserting his foot into his sandle, practices his
religion. Or to be less mystical, hell yeah! Everything we experience as
good or bad has moral implications. To the degree that "aesthetic good"
meets a real need we have as living persons, it is a moral good.
.
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| User: "Liberator Veritatis" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
05 Sep 2004 03:56:42 PM |
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On Sat, 04 Sep 2004 03:10:10 GMT, "Marvin Edwards"
<mbe2uu@earthlink.net> wrote:
"Liberator Veritatis" <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> wrote in message
news:cplhj0tnpfkcpm96njljtm3p1g08th2ebu@4ax.com...
... when we apply this definition of a "good will" we are already making
assumptions about what it means to be "good". ... <
We are presuming a reliable definition of "good" prior to defining "good
will" (just like we are presuming a reliable definition of "will"). But this
does not mean that we know whether any specific thing or action is always
good or not. We do not have to know whether the ultimate result of outlawing
abortion is more good than harm. We may never know that with any certainty.
But we do know that the yardstick is our best guess or estimate of the
ultimate result. Different people may reach different estimates by including
different factors and weighting them differently. But each person is seeking
the "better" principle or rule to follow, based upon which they expect will
produce the more good and less harm.
Kant presumes neither because he goes on to examine what a "will" is
and what "good" must mean in the context of a "good will".
So, you can say something like that what Kant says "really" means
whatever you are talking about, but that isn't what *Kant* is talking
about.
Something is "good" if it meets a real need we have as individuals,
society, or species. <<
... that is *A* definition of "good". Morality is simply not defined that
way. And, that is why it is perilous to try to use "good" to define
morality -- it doesn't really distinguish purely personal prudential matters
from moral issues.<
The only difference between "prudential matters" and "moral issues" is the
size of the issue. But they are made of the same semantic stuff, varying
only in degree, but not in substance. A matter of prudence may escalate into
a moral issue. A moral issue may de-escalate to a matter of prudence.
Abortion, for example, is viewed by some as a matter of prudence, by others
as a moral issue.
But clearly some of the most important prudential matters are not
moral. Who should I marry? Should I even get married at all? What
career should I choose? These questions are not moral questions.
Morality, as a discipline, is about how we achieve the best good and least
harm for everyone. <<
Well, it should be obvious by now that I think this characterization of
morality is simply false. I'm open to the possibility of it, but I
certainly cannot just accept that as the *definition* of "morality". <
However, the definition appears to hold up in all cases...so far. Do you
have a moral issue which falls outside this definition?
I have been giving you example after example of how your definition
doesn't define morality but just personal value. You can measure
anything with your own subjective personal values. So, I cannot give
you an example of something that you cannot measure by your own views
of "good" or "harm". However, such an evaluation is not a *moral*
evaluation.
No -- in fact, Kant was quite clear about his views on utilitarianism. He
very explicitly rejects it. The "good will" is not about seeking the best
good and least harm for all. <
Yet I would assert that all of Kant's principles will be defended in terms
which reduce to a search for the better good and/or the lesser harm. I say
that with no special knowledge of Kant, because I believe it will be true
for all moral theories.
No -- I gave you an example earlier of an application of the CI. It
did not have anything to do with "good/harm". Of course, you will
always be able to discuss such a question *independently* of the CI,
but that doesn't mean that the CI is really just a teleological
assignment of "good/harm".
Why do we need to live? <
Well, the a priori answer is that we need to live because when life ceases
WE cease. In fact, a living organism may be expressed as "a bundle of
organized needs in a cycle of satisfaction, rest, agitation, seeking,
acquiring, satisfaction, rest, etc."
So? I still don't see how the possible extinction of a life implies a
need as opposed to a desire. You desire many things -- sometimes you
get them sometimes you do not. How is that different from being
alive? Everyone dies -- sometimes of natural causes sometimes not. I
do not see how the desire to live is any less a desire nor do I see
how you will draw the line between needs and desires based on this
criterion.
Kant counts suicide as certainly lacking in virtue, but there is no
particular reason why living or surviving should be a *moral* imperative.
Clearly the vast majority of us seek as a personal end, but how does it make
someone immoral for not doing so? <
Except in the most extreme circumstances, it is irrational for a living
being to seek death. The living being has no experience of anything except
life. Whatever it imagines itself to be when dead is therefore incorrect.
There is nothing there to seek! There is no "good" in an unnecessary death.
So we would expect all moral theories to reach the same conclusion (in their
own roundabout way).
It is just as irrational to seek life. It is a desire whether one
desires life or death. Desires are irrational. Also, most living
things DO have experience with death -- the death of other living
things. Of course, there is a psychological problem of trying to
imagine what nonexistence will be like, but that is another matter.
Again, when living things see water and air as "good", they are not making
a moral assertion about it. I'm not just saying that maybe they aren't or
that it is usually accepted that they aren't. They clearly are not. If
this sort of a thing is included in your moral philosophy, then it isn't a
*moral* philosophy -- you aren't talking about morality here. <
You keep saying that. But there is no basis for distinguishing "moral good"
from any other kind of "good".
I have given you such a basis -- the CI. My position is and has been
that it is very problematic to try to think about morality in terms of
"the good". One should try to think of it in terms of "right and
wrong". Clearly there is this issue of "right and wrong" that people
have been talking about for thousands of years as a distinct subject
from the general notion of "good". Let's suppose, for the moment that
I am right about this much -- that there is this other subject
independent of "the good". Then, how am I to refer to that subject?
Most people use the term "morality" to refer to that and "prudence" to
refer to what you are talking about.
For example, we agree that depriving a child
of food and water is morally wrong. Why? It is because there is harm when
real urgent needs of life are denied a living being. It is morally wrong to
do unnecessary harm, because we may deduce that not doing this harm improves
the overall good for that person (or society, or species).
... Focusing on the first section of the Groundwork is not a good way to
try to understand Kant. The best way is to read the Metaphysics of Morals
which is a two section book laying out his moral philosophy and not just
some preliminary groundwork for it. <
But, like I say, I'm less interested in understanding Kant than I am in
discerning the correct answer.
Sometimes the best thing to understanding a view is to understand the
alternatives.
So, more to what I think is the basis for morality, then is what Kant
really discusses, namely the Categorical Imperative in "strong" and "weak"
forms. Particularly, in the Metaphysics of Morals, he discusses the weak
form of the CI which is more or less what I have already presented. He goes
on to say that this form of the CI is equivalent to a "universal law of
freedom" which he says is the only innate right we truly have (in contrast
to John Locke's rights of life, health, liberty and property). This right
to freedom must be consistent with everyone else's right to the same as a
universal law. <
Am I correct that Kant defines "freedom" as the ability to follow the
"categorical imperative"? In other words, we are only free to do what is
good and right.
It depends on what kind of freedom you are talking about. We are free
to do anything we are able. We have "free will" which means that we
have choice. A perfectly rational being would always choose the CI,
according to Kant.
Or basically, Kant argues that Justice (morality as it applies to distinct
individuals interacting with one another) is based on the idea that one has
the right to do anything they wish so long as they do not interfere with
someone else's right to the same. <
Sounds like a libertarian spin on Kant. This skeptic doubts it is accurate.
It's not a libertarian spin -- as if this is all there is to what
Kant has to say. But, it is absolutely the correct "spin on Kant" in
terms of the basis of the Doctrine of Right (or Justice) as thoroughly
expounded upon in his Metaphysics of Morals.
David Boaz of the CATO Institute refers to this in modern lingo as
"co-possible liberty" which is probably a good way to refer to it and how I
will talk about it from now on. <
Good! We can stop trying to get Kant to speak for CATO at this point and
discuss the issues more directly.
Well, Boaz' statement works very much the same as the CI and is better
handled technically by Kant. Just to make sure you understand that
I'm not making all this up:
"Any action is _right_ if it can coexist with everyone's freedom in
accordance with a universal law, or if on its maxim the freedom of
choice of each can coexist with everyone's freedom in accordance of a
universal law."
and a few pages later...
"_Freedom_ (independence from being constrained by another's choice),
insofar as it can coexist with the freedom of every other in
accordance with a universal law, is the only original right..."
And he goes on to elaborate on these notions, further stipulating what
would generally be perceived as what David Boaz calls "co-possible
liberty".
So, you want to maximize "the good", but I am claiming that the end of
moral philosophy is really more about maximizing co-possible liberty. <
One simple question: Why do you wish to maximize co-possible liberty? Is
there some other reason than "maximizing co-possible liberty" will likely
improve the life of individuals, the society, and the species?
Yes there is another reason, and it should be clear from the sentence
below that it definitely is not to improve the lives of anyone.
What one chooses to do with that is another matter. If we all ruin
ourselves, then that would not be "good" (in my opinion) but it would be
morally permissible for the same reason that choosing to improve oneself is
"good" but not morally required. <
For the benefits of personal liberty, and the satisfaction of personal
responsibility, society should generally avoid unnecessarily regulating the
daily lives of individuals. We believe we are all better off in a "free
society", thus there is greater good in this principle than one that says,
"the state shall design a toothbrush and every citizen will brush from 40 to
80 strokes twice a day". The harm done to those who develop cavities is less
than the harm done to the choice of a personal toothbrush.
That may be, but this sort of reasoning is not actually WHY we are
"better off" free. In fact, it has nothing to do with being better
off. It is the basis of all of political philosophy and the only
legitimate (moral) end of government -- to establish co-possible
liberty. It is more than that -- it is the basis of moral philosophy
in general, or so I would claim.
I'll agree that I personally value moral philosophy, a morally good
government, etc. And so, all of my motivations stem from this value I
place on things. And so, to me *personally* we are all "better off"
in a moral condition than outside of one, even if our basic needs are
better met outside of a moral condition. This attitude is similar to
"death before dishonor" only much less extreme.
Now, let me just stop here and remind us of what you originally said about
the principle of morality being easy to state but very hard to apply
properly. The same or something similar is just as true about co-possible
liberty (aka the weak categorical imperative, the principle of autonomy, the
principle of universal freedom). <
Of course. However, "maximize co-possible liberty" is an ethical or moral
principle, but not a definition of morality. Morality may be defined as the
intent, philosophy, science, craft, and art of achieving good, for others as
well as for ourselves.
Well, "maximizing co-possible liberty" a good characterization of
morality (I'm actually limiting myself to what is better referred to
as "justice") so much as "whether or not co-possible liberty has been
preserved". If it has been preserved, then we call that "just"
otherwise we say it was an "injustice". Morality includes this
concept of justice.
Why can justice not be defined this way? It is much more constructive
than your definition of morality which, again, begs the question.
When you use the term "good" you are making a self-referential
definition of morality because "good" must be construed as "morally
good". If you really do not know what "moral", "morality", "morally",
etc mean, then your definition above cannot be used at all.
... You simply cannot be talking about morality if you aren't talking
about something that is consistent with the CI. ... <
The Categorical Imperative is about one mechanism for deriving principles
which are more likely to produce good results.
I'm sorry, but that is absolutely false. Instead it is a definition
of what it means to be "good" in the particular context of moral
philosophy.
Requiring that a principle be
applied equitably, such that the person advocating the principle must also
be willing to be governed by it, helps to eliminate principles that produce
good results for a few people but bad results for everyone else.
Well, that is true, but it has more to do with what morality must be
about than it does with just some application of utilitarianism.
... those "good"s are mostly personal or aesthetic good. But, let us
suppose for the moment that you are right. Wouldn't that mean that every
move you make is subject to moral evaluation? Is that really what you are
trying to say? Whether I decide to major in math or philosophy is a moral
issue, whether I use starch or no starch in my dry cleaning is a moral
issue, everything is a *moral* issue? <
And the Buddhist monk, inserting his foot into his sandle, practices his
religion. Or to be less mystical, hell yeah! Everything we experience as
good or bad has moral implications. To the degree that "aesthetic good"
meets a real need we have as living persons, it is a moral good.
Okay, so right there! You have identified some other "good": the
"aesthetic good". And,implicit in the way you make the statement
above, you acknowledge that it at least some of the time does not have
anything to do with morality. So, back to how you are characterizing
morality. My position is simple: you are equivocating. When you say
that morality is about promoting "the good", you take "good" to many
anything that could be called "good". In fact, that statement of
yours is only true as a tautology where "the good" just means that
which is morally "good".
--
Liberator Veritatis
.
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| User: "Marvin Edwards" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
05 Sep 2004 07:31:02 PM |
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"Liberator Veritatis" <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> wrote in message
news:g2smj0lrvaoc2vqjibpt3g79114biok8k2@4ax.com...
... It is just as irrational to seek life. <
We do not seek life. We are life. We seek to improve the quality of living.
... Desires are irrational. ... <
Which is why the definition of "good" is to meet a "real need" rather than a
desire.
I have given you such a basis -- the CI. ... <
Either the CI is good for us or it is not. If it is not good for us, then
why would anyone be foolish enough to embrace it? If we must establish that
it is good for us, then how is that done without implying underlying good
and harm?
My position is and has been that it is very problematic to try to think
about morality in terms of "the good". One should try to think of it in
terms of "right and wrong". Clearly there is this issue of "right and
wrong" that people have been talking about for thousands of years as a
distinct subject from the general notion of "good". <
No, they haven't. It is impossible to judge whether something is right or
wrong without assessing whether it is good or harmful. The point of "right
and wrong" is to accomplish something. Why do we care whether something is
right or wrong?
Sometimes the best thing to understanding a view is to understand the
alternatives. <
Sure. But there are none. It's one of those a priori things. Right and Wrong
are cogent only because they may benefit or harm us.
... In fact, it has nothing to do with being better off. It is the basis
of all of political philosophy and the only legitimate (moral) end of
government -- to establish co-possible liberty. It is more than that -- it
is the basis of moral philosophy in general, or so I would claim. <
"Co-possible liberty" is one principle. Either the principle is good for us
or it is bad for us. If it is not good for us, then why would we be foolish
enough to embrace it?
Listen: No principle can escape moral evaluation. Like one of Asimov's
characters once said, "Never let your principles prevent you from doing
what's right". :-)
... to me *personally* we are all "better off" in a moral condition than
outside of one, even if our basic needs are better met outside of a moral
condition. <
I don't have that issue. Our basic needs are always better met within
morality, by definition.
This attitude is similar to "death before dishonor" only much less
extreme. <
Death is unavoidable. Therefore a good death, one which serves a greater
good, is better than a bad one. But having been chairman of an honor court
in college, I don't think anyone should die over honor. After all, "honor"
is nothing more than the opinion of others. (And if we're going to kick kids
out of school, it should not be merely to protect our own honor).
.
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| User: "Liberator Veritatis" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
08 Sep 2004 08:37:58 PM |
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On Mon, 06 Sep 2004 00:31:02 GMT, "Marvin Edwards"
<mbe2uu@earthlink.net> wrote:
"Liberator Veritatis" <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> wrote in message
news:g2smj0lrvaoc2vqjibpt3g79114biok8k2@4ax.com...
... It is just as irrational to seek life. <
We do not seek life. We are life. We seek to improve the quality of living.
Why is life "good"? Why is improving the quality of living "good"? I
agree on a personal subjective level, but I don't see any connection
between these things and morality.
... Desires are irrational. ... <
Which is why the definition of "good" is to meet a "real need" rather than a
desire.
All "real needs" are are desires.
I have given you such a basis -- the CI. ... <
Either the CI is good for us or it is not. If it is not good for us, then
why would anyone be foolish enough to embrace it? If we must establish that
it is good for us, then how is that done without implying underlying good
and harm?
Let's say it isn't. Then, morality is not good for us. That is the
point. Morality need not always be in our self-interests or in the
self-interests of society, in general. If you believe otherwise, then
that would normally determine a specific moral world view. If you are
generally open to questioning that world view, then you have to be
able to distinguish between morality and things like what is good for
society or the individual.
Even if not, there is at least a superficial distinction. So you
should be able to make the connection between moral discourse and the
greater good or one's self-interests outside of the simple fact that
some have construed it this way.
My position is and has been that it is very problematic to try to think
about morality in terms of "the good". One should try to think of it in
terms of "right and wrong". Clearly there is this issue of "right and
wrong" that people have been talking about for thousands of years as a
distinct subject from the general notion of "good". <
No, they haven't. It is impossible to judge whether something is right or
wrong without assessing whether it is good or harmful. The point of "right
and wrong" is to accomplish something. Why do we care whether something is
right or wrong?
You are confusing our personal desire to be moral with morality,
itself. An argument like, "Doing the 'right' thing must always be in
our enlightened self-interests...," simply won't work unless you
accept a very specific moral world view. So, it cannot form a basis
of morality -- a basis of that worldview -- but can only assert the
view.
Sometimes the best thing to understanding a view is to understand the
alternatives. <
Sure. But there are none. It's one of those a priori things. Right and Wrong
are cogent only because they may benefit or harm us.
What does it being a priori have to do with it? There certainly ARE
alternatives! If the only reason you hold the view that morality is
about the good/harm dichotomy is because you cannot imagine any
alternatives, then you really ought to branch out and explore the
possibilities! Even if you stick with the same view, at least it will
be a well-informed one.
... In fact, it has nothing to do with being better off. It is the basis
of all of political philosophy and the only legitimate (moral) end of
government -- to establish co-possible liberty. It is more than that -- it
is the basis of moral philosophy in general, or so I would claim. <
"Co-possible liberty" is one principle. Either the principle is good for us
or it is bad for us. If it is not good for us, then why would we be foolish
enough to embrace it?
Well, sometimes it is and sometimes it isn't. On a personal level,
most people benefit from living in a just society rather than an
unjust one so they have a tendency to try to establish justice.
Certainly order is usually better than violent chaos, and injustice
entails a certain kind of inconsistency that will ultimately make
orderly injustice unpredictable and chaotic.
However at any given point in time, what is just may well not be in
the self-interests of a particular person or even of the majority of
the people. For that matter, it may not be in anyone's interests
except for possibly one, and in that case, it probably will not
prevail.
Listen: No principle can escape moral evaluation. Like one of Asimov's
characters once said, "Never let your principles prevent you from doing
what's right". :-)
Yeah... I do not agree that morality is quite THAT overriding. It is
generally overriding. But, it need not be personally motivating.
When it is, that is called "virtue" or "character".
... to me *personally* we are all "better off" in a moral condition than
outside of one, even if our basic needs are better met outside of a moral
condition. <
I don't have that issue. Our basic needs are always better met within
morality, by definition.
Your problem is that there is no principled distinction between public
moral issues and private personal matters.
This attitude is similar to "death before dishonor" only much less
extreme. <
Death is unavoidable. Therefore a good death, one which serves a greater
good, is better than a bad one. But having been chairman of an honor court
in college, I don't think anyone should die over honor. After all, "honor"
is nothing more than the opinion of others. (And if we're going to kick kids
out of school, it should not be merely to protect our own honor).
On the contrary, your honor could be besmirched and only you know
about it -- for instance, if you shoot someone in the back and take
their horse. ;o)
--
Liberator Veritatis
.
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| User: "Marvin Edwards" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
08 Sep 2004 10:41:35 PM |
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"Liberator Veritatis" <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> wrote in message
news:evbvj0dmc9j21b4d52b3shfvinnics2hkh@4ax.com...
Which is why the definition of "good" is to meet a "real need" rather than
a desire. <<
All "real needs" are are desires. <
But clearly not all "desires" are real needs.
I have given you such a basis -- the CI. ... <<<
Either the CI is good for us or it is not. If it is not good for us, then
why would anyone be foolish enough to embrace it? If we must establish that
it is good for us, then how is that done without implying underlying good
and harm?<<
Let's say it isn't. Then, morality is not good for us. That is the point.
Morality need not always be in our self-interests or in the self-interests
of society, in general. ... <
I'm sorry but that makes no sense. You are speaking of some abstract,
academic "morality" that appears to be only loosely associated with the real
thing. In the real world, people embrace morality for a reason. You have
offered no reason for embracing morality and no reason for embracing Kant's
categorical imperative. So make your case, if you can.
... The point of "right and wrong" is to accomplish something. Why do we
care whether something is right or wrong? <<
You are confusing ... <
Then straighten me out. Stop telling me that I haven't given the correct
answer as to why the categorical imperative is valuable. Give the correct
answer yourself.
"Co-possible liberty" is one principle. Either the principle is good for
us or it is bad for us. If it is not good for us, then why would we be
foolish enough to embrace it? <<
Well, sometimes it is and sometimes it isn't. On a personal level, most
people benefit from living in a just society rather than an unjust one so
they have a tendency to try to establish justice. <
We can put that checkmark in the "morality is about improving good and
reducing harm" column.
Certainly order is usually better than violent chaos ... <
And that would be because....?
However at any given point in time, what is just may well not be in the
self-interests of a particular person or even of the majority of the people.
For that matter, it may not be in anyone's interests except for possibly
one, and in that case, it probably will not prevail. <
That is correct. But we trust justice as a principle, because we have faith
(based on reason) that overall it will produce greater good for everyone and
help reduce harm.
We are born into a world of good that we did not create. Much of this good
comes from the sacrifices that others have made in the past, to secure
principles which sustain good.
.
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| User: "Liberator Veritatis" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
10 Sep 2004 01:03:24 AM |
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On Thu, 09 Sep 2004 03:41:35 GMT, "Marvin Edwards"
<mbe2uu@earthlink.net> wrote:
"Liberator Veritatis" <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> wrote in message
news:evbvj0dmc9j21b4d52b3shfvinnics2hkh@4ax.com...
Which is why the definition of "good" is to meet a "real need" rather than
a desire. <<
All "real needs" are are desires. <
But clearly not all "desires" are real needs.
I have given you such a basis -- the CI. ... <<<
Either the CI is good for us or it is not. If it is not good for us, then
why would anyone be foolish enough to embrace it? If we must establish that
it is good for us, then how is that done without implying underlying good
and harm?<<
Let's say it isn't. Then, morality is not good for us. That is the point.
Morality need not always be in our self-interests or in the self-interests
of society, in general. ... <
I'm sorry but that makes no sense. You are speaking of some abstract,
academic "morality" that appears to be only loosely associated with the real
thing. In the real world, people embrace morality for a reason. You have
offered no reason for embracing morality and no reason for embracing Kant's
categorical imperative. So make your case, if you can.
That reason -- the reason to be moral -- is not part of morality.
That is why people often choose not to be moral.
... The point of "right and wrong" is to accomplish something. Why do we
care whether something is right or wrong? <<
You are confusing ... <
Then straighten me out. Stop telling me that I haven't given the correct
answer as to why the categorical imperative is valuable. Give the correct
answer yourself.
Morality is not based on value.
"Co-possible liberty" is one principle. Either the principle is good for
us or it is bad for us. If it is not good for us, then why would we be
foolish enough to embrace it? <<
Well, sometimes it is and sometimes it isn't. On a personal level, most
people benefit from living in a just society rather than an unjust one so
they have a tendency to try to establish justice. <
We can put that checkmark in the "morality is about improving good and
reducing harm" column.
I don't think so. It is personal motivation to be moral -- not,
itself, a moral argument.
Certainly order is usually better than violent chaos ... <
And that would be because....?
I'm stating that on a personal level. Most people subjectively prefer
order over chaos. Is there a rational reason for this? No or at
least there need not be.
However at any given point in time, what is just may well not be in the
self-interests of a particular person or even of the majority of the people.
For that matter, it may not be in anyone's interests except for possibly
one, and in that case, it probably will not prevail. <
That is correct. But we trust justice as a principle, because we have faith
(based on reason) that overall it will produce greater good for everyone and
help reduce harm.
I certainly don't choose and value justice for that reason. What does
"faith based on reason" mean, by the way?
We are born into a world of good that we did not create. Much of this good
comes from the sacrifices that others have made in the past, to secure
principles which sustain good.
That is merely your personal way of looking at it -- not an
objectively philosophically true belief. In other words, this is not
actually a *moral* judgment you are making.
--
Liberator Veritatis
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| User: "Marvin Edwards" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
10 Sep 2004 07:33:44 PM |
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"Liberator Veritatis" <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> wrote in message
news:tgg2k0lhajum7t6mnhdkobpv1jk9b95asb@4ax.com...
... In the real world, people embrace morality for a reason. You have
offered no reason for embracing morality and no reason for embracing Kant's
categorical imperative. So make your case, if you can. <<
That reason -- the reason to be moral -- is not part of morality. That is
why people often choose not to be moral. <
That's not an answer. And people do generally choose to be moral. Do you
know why?
Stop telling me that I haven't given the correct answer as to why the
categorical imperative is valuable. Give the correct answer yourself.
Morality is not based on value. <
Again with the tease. Spit it out junior.
On a personal level, most people benefit from living in a just society
rather than an unjust one so they have a tendency to try to establish
justice. <<<
We can put that checkmark in the "morality is about improving good and
reducing harm" column. <<
I don't think so. It is personal motivation to be moral -- not, itself, a
moral argument. <
And the personal motivation is this: We are born into a world of good which
we did not create. It was created by the sacrifices of those who came before
us, people who embraced and promoted liberty, democracy, individual rights,
the rule of law, and the rule of love. Much of what we enjoy in life was
created by others. And we are motivated by what we have recieved to give
something back in return. As we have benefited by others seeking to make the
world a better place for everyone, so we too are obligated to maintain and
sustain that good for those who come after us. And perhaps, humbly, to
improve it.
... That is merely your personal way of looking at it -- not an
objectively philosophically true belief. In other words, this is not
actually a *moral* judgment you are making. ... <
It is a description of reality. Philosophy which is divorced from reality is
irrelevant.
... But we trust justice as a principle, because we have faith (based on
reason) that overall it will produce greater good for everyone and help
reduce harm.<<
I certainly don't choose and value justice for that reason. What does
"faith based on reason" mean, by the way? <
We can never know for certain what the ultimate result of a change in a
principle or law will be. The best we can do is make an estimate, based upon
research and discussion, and cast our vote for or against the law based upon
our faith that it is the right thing to do.
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| User: "ralph" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
11 Sep 2004 12:03:48 PM |
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In message <IJr0d.862$az6.433@newsread2.news.atl.earthlink.net>, Marvin
Edwards <mbe4talk@earthlink.net> writes
And the personal motivation is this: We are born into a world of good
which we did not create. It was created by the sacrifices of those who
came before us, people who embraced and promoted liberty, democracy,
individual rights, the rule of law, and the rule of love. Much of what
we enjoy in life was created by others. And we are motivated by what we
have recieved to give something back in return. As we have benefited by
others seeking to make the world a better place for everyone, so we too
are obligated to maintain and sustain that good for those who come
after us. And perhaps, humbly, to improve it.
Spoken like a humanist! Absolutely right.
... That is merely your personal way of looking at it -- not an
objectively philosophically true belief. In other words, this is not
actually a *moral* judgment you are making. ... <
It is a description of reality. Philosophy which is divorced from
reality is irrelevant.
You betcha!
--
ralph
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| User: "Marvin Edwards" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
11 Sep 2004 07:44:09 PM |
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Thank you for the kind words, Ralph.
"ralph" <ralph@eddlewood.demon.co.uk> wrote in message
news:QCRF6mE0$yQBFw8V@eddlewood.demon.co.uk...
In message <IJr0d.862$az6.433@newsread2.news.atl.earthlink.net>, Marvin
Edwards <mbe4talk@earthlink.net> writes
And the personal motivation is this: We are born into a world of good
which we did not create. It was created by the sacrifices of those who
came before us, people who embraced and promoted liberty, democracy,
individual rights, the rule of law, and the rule of love. Much of what
we enjoy in life was created by others. And we are motivated by what we
have recieved to give something back in return. As we have benefited by
others seeking to make the world a better place for everyone, so we too
are obligated to maintain and sustain that good for those who come
after us. And perhaps, humbly, to improve it.
Spoken like a humanist! Absolutely right.
... That is merely your personal way of looking at it -- not an
objectively philosophically true belief. In other words, this is not
actually a *moral* judgment you are making. ... <
It is a description of reality. Philosophy which is divorced from
reality is irrelevant.
You betcha!
--
ralph
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| User: "Liberator Veritatis" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
12 Sep 2004 12:11:53 AM |
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On Sat, 11 Sep 2004 00:33:44 GMT, "Marvin Edwards"
<mbe4talk@earthlink.net> wrote:
"Liberator Veritatis" <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> wrote in message
news:tgg2k0lhajum7t6mnhdkobpv1jk9b95asb@4ax.com...
... In the real world, people embrace morality for a reason. You have
offered no reason for embracing morality and no reason for embracing Kant's
categorical imperative. So make your case, if you can. <<
That reason -- the reason to be moral -- is not part of morality. That is
why people often choose not to be moral. <
That's not an answer. And people do generally choose to be moral. Do you
know why?
Stop telling me that I haven't given the correct answer as to why the
categorical imperative is valuable. Give the correct answer yourself.
Morality is not based on value. <
Again with the tease. Spit it out junior.
On a personal level, most people benefit from living in a just society
rather than an unjust one so they have a tendency to try to establish
justice. <<<
We can put that checkmark in the "morality is about improving good and
reducing harm" column. <<
I don't think so. It is personal motivation to be moral -- not, itself, a
moral argument. <
And the personal motivation is this: We are born into a world of good which
we did not create. It was created by the sacrifices of those who came before
us, people who embraced and promoted liberty, democracy, individual rights,
the rule of law, and the rule of love. Much of what we enjoy in life was
created by others. And we are motivated by what we have recieved to give
something back in return. As we have benefited by others seeking to make the
world a better place for everyone, so we too are obligated to maintain and
sustain that good for those who come after us. And perhaps, humbly, to
improve it.
We certainly are not *obligated* to do any such thing. And, in any
case, this is all just *your* *personal* motivation. This is not some
universal trait we all have and are somehow bound to.
... That is merely your personal way of looking at it -- not an
objectively philosophically true belief. In other words, this is not
actually a *moral* judgment you are making. ... <
It is a description of reality. Philosophy which is divorced from reality is
irrelevant.
Philosophy certainly isn't "divorced from reality". What I am saying
is that there is nothing about your characterization that is really
independent of *you*. This is *your* subjective attitude. There is
no reason why anyone else must share it out of some sort of rational
necessity.
... But we trust justice as a principle, because we have faith (based on
reason) that overall it will produce greater good for everyone and help
reduce harm.<<
I certainly don't choose and value justice for that reason. What does
"faith based on reason" mean, by the way? <
We can never know for certain what the ultimate result of a change in a
principle or law will be. The best we can do is make an estimate, based upon
research and discussion, and cast our vote for or against the law based upon
our faith that it is the right thing to do.
That isn't "faith" -- that is just reason.
--
Liberator Veritatis
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| User: "ralph" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
10 Sep 2004 02:14:08 PM |
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In message <tgg2k0lhajum7t6mnhdkobpv1jk9b95asb@4ax.com>, Liberator
Veritatis <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> writes
I'm stating that on a personal level. Most people subjectively prefer
order over chaos. Is there a rational reason for this? No or at least
there need not be
I don't know whether you accept evolutionary psychology as rational, but
that is the clear reason for the preference.
Order *works* better than chaos.
--
ralph
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| User: "Liberator Veritatis" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
12 Sep 2004 12:05:49 AM |
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On Fri, 10 Sep 2004 20:14:08 +0100, ralph
<ralph@eddlewood.demon.co.uk> wrote:
In message <tgg2k0lhajum7t6mnhdkobpv1jk9b95asb@4ax.com>, Liberator
Veritatis <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> writes
I'm stating that on a personal level. Most people subjectively prefer
order over chaos. Is there a rational reason for this? No or at least
there need not be
I don't know whether you accept evolutionary psychology as rational, but
that is the clear reason for the preference.
Order *works* better than chaos.
I'm not asking if there is a rational reason for why most people
subjectively desire something but rather if there is one TO desire
that thing. In other words, this is a good reason why it turns out
that most people end up subjectively desiring something but no
particular reason to desire a thing.
--
Liberator Veritatis
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| User: "AnotherObserver®" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
12 Sep 2004 01:23:56 AM |
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Liberator Veritatis <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> wrote:
On Fri, 10 Sep 2004 20:14:08 +0100, ralph
<ralph@eddlewood.demon.co.uk> wrote:
In message <tgg2k0lhajum7t6mnhdkobpv1jk9b95asb@4ax.com>, Liberator
Veritatis <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> writes
I'm stating that on a personal level. Most people subjectively prefer
order over chaos. Is there a rational reason for this? No or at least
there need not be
I don't know whether you accept evolutionary psychology as rational, but
that is the clear reason for the preference.
Order *works* better than chaos.
I'm not asking if there is a rational reason for why most people
subjectively desire something but rather if there is one TO desire
that thing. In other words, this is a good reason why it turns out
that most people end up subjectively desiring something but no
particular reason to desire a thing.
What about those who subjectively desire something with particular
reasons to desire the thing, yet both desire and reason are chaotic?
--
Davidwd
~~~~~~~~~
irreligionist
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| User: "darth_versive" |
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| Title: Re: What the Heck is "Materialism"? |
12 Sep 2004 02:09:01 PM |
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AnotherObserver® wrote in message news:<2iq7k0tjq0njl38tjet46ss2sjrhiommvt@4ax.com>...
Liberator Veritatis <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> wrote:
On Fri, 10 Sep 2004 20:14:08 +0100, ralph
<ralph@eddlewood.demon.co.uk> wrote:
In message <tgg2k0lhajum7t6mnhdkobpv1jk9b95asb@4ax.com>, Liberator
Veritatis <LiberatorVeritatis@houston.rr.com> writes
I'm stating that on a personal level. Most people subjectively prefer
order over chaos. Is there a rational reason for this? No or at least
there need not be
I don't know whether you accept evolutionary psychology as rational, but
that is the clear reason for the preference.
Order *works* better than chaos.
I'm not asking if there is a rational reason for why most people
subjectively desire something but rather if there is one TO desire
that thing. In other words, this is a good reason why it turns out
that most people end up subjectively desiring something but no
particular reason to desire a thing.
What about those who subjectively desire something with particular
reasons to desire the thing, yet both desire and reason are chaotic?
I've never come across any desire, or mode of reasoning, that I would
call "chaotic." There's always some kind of order t | | | | | | | | | | | |