Antitheism



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Topic: Religions > Atheism
User: "Sphere"
Date: 30 Dec 2006 10:59:50 PM
Object: Antitheism
I don't think I invented the term but I have been
seeing it bantied about for awhile, and I think
the first use of it I've ever seen was someone
describing my position. I think I'll have a go at
defining the term.
Antitheist: n. Somone who believes God is
a bad idea.
Antitheists may also accept the label Atheist,
or might not. The primary distinction between
atheism and antitheism is that the atheist may
think the question of the existence or non-existence
of God worthy of consideration, while the antitheist
does not. The primary interest of the antitheist
with respect to God is to make the idea go away,
and it is even possible for an antitheist to believe
that God exists -- but is irrelevant.
Antitheists are generally not well received by
monotheists, and for good reason. The antitheist
probably finds the behavor of monotheists
particularly unpleasant in their pushing of the
God idea as some sort of absolute truth.
As an antitheist, my brief against monotheism
is this: The idea of One God is a schoolyard bully
who cannot play well with others. It is basic to
the idea of One God that all other notions of divinity
must be destroyed -- frequently by killing the people
who hold those other notions of divinity. People
infected with the One God idea have to be viewed with
suspicion, as in the past -- and even the present --
they have been known to engage in violence based
upon this evil idea, sometimes collectively.
---
No essence. No permanence. No perfection.
.

User: "Roy"

Title: Re: Antitheism 19 Mar 2007 10:37:20 AM
"chazwin" <chazwyman@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1174312270.248207.307170@l75g2000hse.googlegroups.com...

On Mar 19, 12:27 pm, "Roy" <b...@me.net> wrote:

"chazwin" <chazwy...@yahoo.com> wrote in message

news:1174297926.464226.255640@y80g2000hsf.googlegroups.com...


You are correct, whereas Jeckyl is using the study of logic as a
preconceived and independant thing.

I'm going to have to let Jeckyl tackle that one.
<lots of snipping and reorganizing> Roy wrote:

I'll state
it another way: if a sentient being *did* come along then
the stars would be there to discover AND the "two-ness"
would be there to discover as well.

Roy also wrote

"Those two stars are orbitting around each other."
If that proposition were true, it would be a truth that
exists outside of any human's experience of it.

Roy also wrote:

Numbers, mathematics, propositions and logic are
all *out there to be discovered*, just like spatial
physical objects like stars.

Chazwin answered:

I am not trying to suggest that there are no things in the universe
that we cannot or do not conceive, [nor] that I am trying to say that
nothing exists until we conceive of such things.
I am saying that maths and logic are dependant on humans to
conceive them as ideas.
Then you will have to [...] account for the independant existence
of an idea. Please let me know where ideas exist?

I would agree that *ideas of things* are indepedent of the
things themselves. But... the question is:
in the case of math, numbers, propositions and logic
are there "things in themselves" that we have ideas about?
I don't know the answer to that question. This reminds me
of our disagreement about whether "spinach is green" is an
objective statement. Let me try to make a list and see how
far all of us agree:
(i) Naturally occuring things like stars and rocks exist *objectively*.
ie. there are "noumena" (things in themselves) and
"star" or "rock" is just the name we use to refer to those
things.
(ii) "Spinach is green" is an objective statement.
"Spinach" is a name that we have given to a plant (noumenon).
"Green" is the name that we have given to a color or wavelength
of light (noumenon).
(iii) Man made objects such as teacups exist *objectively*.
I"m actually not so sure on this one.... To call something a "teacup"
could be "subjective". On the other hand, "teacup" could just be
the name we use for an object made out of ceramic and
having a particular shape. (just like "star" is the word we use
for those physical objects in number (i) above).
So I guess I'm going to have to say "Yes... teacups exist
objectively".
(iv) Numbers and propositions exist *objectively*.
I don't think I can argue this one effectively. Please
take it up for yourself, if you are interested.

Clearly you are one of these idiots that think they know the real
objective reality.

It is not total skepticism. Ideas need minds to exist. Ideas cannot
exist aoutside our preception of them. A pure objective reality cannot
exist. All reality relies on perception. This is unavoidable and
therefore whilst me may speak of objective knowldge we cannot point to
any thing which is beyond some bias.

*ideas* need minds to exist. But I assert that *reality* exists on it own.
.
User: "Jeckyl"

Title: Re: Antitheism 19 Mar 2007 10:52:53 AM
"Roy" <bite2@me.net> wrote in message news:Q6yLh.5541$DX5.4208@trndny06...

"chazwin" <chazwyman@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1174312270.248207.307170@l75g2000hse.googlegroups.com...
(iii) Man made objects such as teacups exist *objectively*.
I"m actually not so sure on this one.... To call something a "teacup"
could be "subjective". On the other hand, "teacup" could just be
the name we use for an object made out of ceramic and
having a particular shape. (just like "star" is the word we use
for those physical objects in number (i) above).
So I guess I'm going to have to say "Yes... teacups exist
objectively".

I think that is indeed tricky. It depends on whther the categorisation is
based on well defined objective properties. ie can you take (objective)
measurement, apply some sort of (objective) calculation and come up with the
statiement "this is a teacup" (or not). Or is it more fuzzy .. ie how
un-teacup-like does a teacup have to be before it is NOT a teacup .. is that
decision subjective.
However, that a particular object that we may (or may not) subjectively
categorise as a tecup, still itself objectively exists. What is subjective
is the 'teacup' moniker/category.

(iv) Numbers and propositions exist *objectively*.
I don't think I can argue this one effectively. Please
take it up for yourself, if you are interested.

I think if anything it may be simpler that 'teacups', as the property
categories number based on objective measurement. Calculations does with
those numbers are also objectively correct or incorrect, its not a matter of
subjective opinion. So the 'objectiveness' I think is clear. I don't think
the tricky issue is with the *objectively* word .. but the 'exist' word :)

*ideas* need minds to exist. But I assert that *reality* exists on it
own.

That would be my 'take'. And further, that the mind needs *ideas* to model
/ categories / understand *reality*.
.


User: "Jeckyl"

Title: Re: Antitheism 19 Mar 2007 10:21:04 AM
"chazwin" <chazwyman@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1174312270.248207.307170@l75g2000hse.googlegroups.com...

My point is... let's get together on our definition of "logic"
shall we?

You are correct, whereas Jeckyl is using the study of logic as a
preconceived and independant thing.

That I believe that does not discredit my pointing out the rules of logic
and the fallacies that can be committed whne those rules are not followed.
Whether 'logic' is a product purely of the human mind, or is a property or
reality, is not relevant to what I was arguing, as the same rules apply
regardless of how you view logic itself. Even though the origins of the
universe is 'important' it is not necessarily relevant to understand when we
are trying to decide what to have for breakfast.
Do you propse we are each to have our own different rules of logic? If so,
that would make discussion and rational arguement very difficult.

But there is no "idea" involving numbers until you get an observer.

I beleive number exists as a property without an observer (assuming you
believe that reality even exists outside of the human mind .. that there is
anything physically 'out there'). However, the IDEA of number doesn't exist
without someone to think it
The idea of number is something we use to make sense of the reality of
number. When we perceive the reality, the human mind associates the idea of
number with what it perceives.

Logic is and idea and as such cannot be independant of those
that conceive of the idea.

Logic is like math and physics. One can argue whether these have some
meaning in the physical universe outside of human thought. I don't think
we'll agree on that.
But regardless of that, I assume you would not argue with the rules of
addition and multiplication, or that the force of gravity results in things
falling. In exactly the same applies to logic as for math and physics
(logic is just a type of math). Regardless of who (if anyone) is thinking
of it, the rules apply.

I am saying that maths and logic are dependant on
humans to conceive them as ideas.

But then how is it that the same rules of math apply regardless of the
observer? And they apply even when we aren't observing them. Or do you
suppose the if you have a bag and you put in one marble and then the other,
but do not look in the bag that there are not two marbles in there? ie that
there are not two marbles until you observe them and have the thought 'two
marbles' in your mind? That when you are not looking at them, the stars and
galaxies do not follow the mathematical rules / laws of phyics?
I would agree that the idea of math and logic are in our minds .. just like
the idea of an apple or a marble. But that does not preclude there being a
corresponding physical reality that our minds are modelling.

Then you will have to dismiss you "truth from authority" and account
for the independant existence of an idea. Please let me know where
ideas exists?

Ideas are in the mind .. I think we can agree on that. The physical
realities that (some) ideas model are not just in the mind. That seems to
be where we disagree (and agin, its not really relevant to what the rules of
logic are)

Clearly you are one of these idiots that think they know the
real objective reality.

Responses to what looks like Chazwin's total
skepticism:http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fallibilism

It is not total skepticism. Ideas need minds to exist.\
Ideas cannot exist aoutside our preception of them.

Yes .. but there are things other than ideas.

A pure objective reality cannot exist.

So if all life were to suddenly perish, there would be no universe? Does
the mean that for the eons before life evolved, there was no universe .. if
so, from where did it evolve?

All reality relies on perception.

Our knowledge of reality relies on perception . .that does not mean the
existence of reality does.

This is unavoidable and
therefore whilst me may speak of objective knowldge
we cannot point to any thing which is beyond some bias.

We can point ot it .. phyiscal objective reality has no bias. But our ideas
of it do.
Once premises are defined, logical argument is independant of the observer.
Just like one plus one is two.

Fallibilism <snip. >>...reality

If you wan to contribute you should quote less and think more.

That is very unkind and unwarranted

The rational human mind makes use of logic
so that it can make sense of the data and ideas it has to process.
The
very
fact the it uses logic is what makes it rational. And why one needs
to
have
a basic understanding of logic and logical arguments if one wants a
rational
discussion .. both of which are sadly lacking in this thread.


The human mind need no knowledge of logic to operate. Ask any child
who has never heard of it.

But children *do* use logic all the time.

MY POINT EXACTLY!!! It is just like we all seem to grasp the rules of
grammar without knowing subject/object, accusative, genitive,
ablative, etc...

We may not know the words that describe them, but we implictly understand
the concepts. I don't know how that point in any way invalidates what I was
originally saying about logical proofs.

The study of logic is distilled from it and often misapplied.

Yes.. very often it is misapplied.

And you are giving a fucking wonderful example of its misapplication.

How is this statement helpful?

Its called frustration.

That is something we all feel at some stage.

You are confused. Logic is a toll distilled out of human praxis, like
mathematics it has no existence outside human experience of it.

I believe a lot of modern-day philosophers would disagree with
your statement "Logic, like mathematics, has no existence outside
human experience of it".

You are simply wrong.

A very narrow minded approach. Almost as narrow minded as saying "I am
simply right".

Tell me where ideas exist!

Ideas are formed in the human mind and can be expressed externally .. but
logic (like math) is more than just an idea. I do not accept the premise
that everthing is an idea.

You are confusing things with ideas.

It would appear that that is what you are doing.

There might be a certain number
of "planets" inthe "solar system", but these are both ideas which are
distilled out of our experience and observation.

The ideas of 'planets' and 'solar system' are in our minds .. but the
planets still exist, and the solar system still exists and the number-ness
of the planets exists. Unless of course, you think that they don't exists,
and that somehow there is a shared idea between all human observers so when
we look through a telescope we all magically see the same things?

Neither of these ideas have unbiased
and objective realities.

So there is no actual real thing that corresponds to (say) our (common) idea
of the planet mars ? I can see and accept how 'planet-ness' is a concept
within our minds that help us model and understand the lumps of matter and
energy that we calls 'planets'. I don't see that that would mean those
lumps of matter and energy are not objectively real.

These are human created categories which
have no clear meaning in nature, though the
objects of which they comprise are there.

So are you saying what I was above .. that there are ideas and concepts
within the mind that help us organise our internal model of the objective
external reality?
So there are the things we describe with the ideas of planets and solar
system that exist, but the ideas themselves are in the mind. I'd agree with
that. So would you say that we can categorise things in our mind, and
although the categoies themselves are ideas, they are based on the
underlying properties of the real objects. And that our describing and
thinking about principles of mathematics (including logic and physics) are
in the mind, although the essense of the math is something real.

You have only to look at the current argument concerning Pluto and
other bodies to know this is true.

That is an argument over categorisation .. but that does not mean the thing
we call pluto does not exist. Nor does changing how we cateogirse it change
the reality .. it only changes how we organise our thoughts about it.
Yes?
.
User: "chazwin"

Title: Re: Antitheism 19 Mar 2007 01:12:22 PM
On Mar 19, 3:21 pm, "Jeckyl" <n...@nowhere.com> wrote:

"chazwin" <chazwy...@yahoo.com> wrote in message

news:1174312270.248207.307170@l75g2000hse.googlegroups.com...

My point is... let's get together on our definition of "logic"
shall we?

You are correct, whereas Jeckyl is using the study of logic as a
preconceived and independant thing.


That I believe that does not discredit my pointing out the rules of logic
and the fallacies that can be committed whne those rules are not followed.

Whether 'logic' is a product purely of the human mind, or is a property or
reality, is not relevant to what I was arguing,

I don't think you know what youare agruing.
as the same rules apply

regardless of how you view logic itself. Even though the origins of the
universe is 'important' it is not necessarily relevant to understand when we
are trying to decide what to have for breakfast.

Do you propse we are each to have our own different rules of logic? If so,
that would make discussion and rational arguement very difficult.

But there is no "idea" involving numbers until you get an observer.


I beleive number exists as a property without an observer (assuming you
believe that reality even exists outside of the human mind .. that there is
anything physically 'out there'). However, the IDEA of number doesn't exist
without someone to think it

Prove that number exists as a property of nature!


The idea of number is something we use to make sense of the reality of
number. When we perceive the reality, the human mind associates the idea of
number with what it perceives.

Numbers are an invention, a tool like any other.


Logic is and idea and as such cannot be independant of those
that conceive of the idea.


Logic is like math and physics. One can argue whether these have some
meaning in the physical universe outside of human thought. I don't think
we'll agree on that.

We sure won't.


But regardless of that, I assume you would not argue with the rules of
addition and multiplication, or that the force of gravity results in things
falling.

That is a simple misconception. Things fall and we call it the force
of gravity. There is no idea that makes things fall. Falling is a
thing that happens it is not made to happen by another thing.

In exactly the same applies to logic as for math and physics
(logic is just a type of math). Regardless of who (if anyone) is thinking
of it, the rules apply.

I am saying that maths and logic are dependant on
humans to conceive them as ideas.


But then how is it that the same rules of math apply regardless of the
observer?

By convention and agreement. You should not be so arrogant as to
believe that these things exist in the mind of god.

And they apply even when we aren't observing them. Or do you
suppose the if you have a bag and you put in one marble and then the other,
but do not look in the bag that there are not two marbles in there? ie that
there are not two marbles until you observe them and have the thought 'two
marbles' in your mind? That when you are not looking at them, the stars and
galaxies do not follow the mathematical rules / laws of phyics?

The universe would be little different without humans.


I would agree that the idea of math and logic are in our minds .. just like
the idea of an apple or a marble. But that does not preclude there being a
corresponding physical reality that our minds are modelling.

But whatever that might be, it is not the same as our conception of
it.
I think you should read some Kant.


Then you will have to dismiss you "truth from authority" and account
for the independant existence of an idea. Please let me know where
ideas exists?


Ideas are in the mind .. I think we can agree on that. The physical
realities that (some) ideas model are not just in the mind.

I did not say that there is not physical reality outside of the mind.
But ideas can be used to model (imperfectly) the physical world.

That seems to
be where we disagree (and agin, its not really relevant to what the rules of
logic are).

Clearly you are one of these idiots that think they know the
real objective reality.

Responses to what looks like Chazwin's total
skepticism:http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fallibilism

It is not total skepticism. Ideas need minds to exist.\
Ideas cannot exist aoutside our preception of them.


Yes .. but there are things other than ideas.

A pure objective reality cannot exist.


So if all life were to suddenly perish, there would be no universe? Does
the mean that for the eons before life evolved, there was no universe .. if
so, from where did it evolve?

If all life were to perish it would not matter that there were a
universe of not. You are continuing to misrepresent my viewpoint. This
is not the logical extention of what I am saying. I AM saying that our
impression of the physical universe IS dependant on our preception of
it. Logic, maths, politics are all ideas that attempt to represent and
model our view of reality but cannot be said to map onto it exactly.

All reality relies on perception.


Our knowledge of reality relies on perception . .that does not mean the
existence of reality does.

Once again I am not saying that.


This is unavoidable and
therefore whilst me may speak of objective knowldge
we cannot point to any thing which is beyond some bias.


We can point ot it .. phyiscal objective reality has no bias. But our ideas
of it do.

But we are unable to perceive "physical objective reality" it is
another idea that we cannot exactly model.


Once premises are defined, logical argument is independant of the observer.
Just like one plus one is two.

No.


Fallibilism <snip. >>...reality

If you wan to contribute you should quote less and think more.


That is very unkind and unwarranted.

I think not. I am not here to read and answer quotations from the
Internet. I shall answer thoughts considered and written from a
thinking person. Sometimes quotes hit the spot but the full
significance of them is not always understood if they do not come from
the heart (as it were).

The rational human mind makes use of logic
so that it can make sense of the data and ideas it has to process.
The
very
fact the it uses logic is what makes it rational. And why one needs
to
have
a basic understanding of logic and logical arguments if one wants a
rational
discussion .. both of which are sadly lacking in this thread.


The human mind need no knowledge of logic to operate. Ask any child
who has never heard of it.

But children *do* use logic all the time.

MY POINT EXACTLY!!! It is just like we all seem to grasp the rules of
grammar without knowing subject/object, accusative, genitive,
ablative, etc...


We may not know the words that describe them, but we implictly understand
the concepts. I don't know how that point in any way invalidates what I was
originally saying about logical proofs.

You should re-read the thread then.


The study of logic is distilled from it and often misapplied.

Yes.. very often it is misapplied.

And you are giving a fucking wonderful example of its misapplication.

How is this statement helpful?

Its called frustration.


That is something we all feel at some stage.

You are confused. Logic is a toll distilled out of human praxis, like
mathematics it has no existence outside human experience of it.

I believe a lot of modern-day philosophers would disagree with
your statement "Logic, like mathematics, has no existence outside
human experience of it".

You are simply wrong.


A very narrow minded approach. Almost as narrow minded as saying "I am
simply right".

Tell me where ideas exist!


Ideas are formed in the human mind and can be expressed externally .. but
logic (like math) is more than just an idea. I do not accept the premise
that everthing is an idea.

But 100% of your viewpoint of the world is formed by ideas in your
brain.

There might be a certain number

of "planets" inthe "solar system", but these are both ideas which are
distilled out of our experience and observation.


The ideas of 'planets' and 'solar system' are in our minds .. but the
planets still exist, and the solar system still exists and the number-ness
of the planets exists. Unless of course, you think that they don't exists,
and that somehow there is a shared idea between all human observers so when
we look through a telescope we all magically see the same things?

DUH!


Neither of these ideas have unbiased
and objective realities.


So there is no actual real thing that corresponds to (say) our (common) idea
of the planet mars ?

Duh yes!

I can see and accept how 'planet-ness' is a concept
within our minds that help us model and understand the lumps of matter and
energy that we calls 'planets'. I don't see that that would mean those
lumps of matter and energy are not objectively real.

They are subjectively real as they are part of your perceptual
horizon.
You perception of mars will differ ever so slightly with another
person's.


These are human created categories which
have no clear meaning in nature, though the
objects of which they comprise are there.


So are you saying what I was above .. that there are ideas and concepts
within the mind that help us organise our internal model of the objective
external reality?

No, I am saying that there are ideas and concepts within the mind that
help us organise our internal model of the subjective external
reality. The objective reality cannot be preceived directly, but we
can make a simulation of it - this is a subjective model. The
differnece between the model and the reality is expressed by Kant as
the noumena and the phenomena respectively.
The noumena is the thing a part of which we perceive via a point of
view via phenomena.


So there are the things we describe with the ideas of planets and solar
system that exist, but the ideas themselves are in the mind. I'd agree with
that.

This is a good start.

So would you say that we can categorise things in our mind, and
although the categoies themselves are ideas, they are based on the
underlying properties of the real objects. And that our describing and
thinking about principles of mathematics (including logic and physics) are
in the mind, although the essense of the math is something real.

The essence of maths is a thing which corresponds to the phenomena
that we perceive, yes.


You have only to look at the current argument concerning Pluto and
other bodies to know this is true.


That is an argument over categorisation .. but that does not mean the thing
we call pluto does not exist. Nor does changing how we cateogirse it change
the reality .. it only changes how we organise our thoughts about it.

Yes?

Yes indeed. If you accept this point you will also have to accept that
our conception of a thing places limits on our model of the universe,
and that the phenomena around us must precede the ideas we share about
it. It is in this way that grammar and logic are supervening qualities
we place upon the world, that are only viable whilst they have
utility.
For example, although I think that contradictions cannot exist in
reality, I see contradictions around me all the time. Most of these
are contradiction in our different people conceive the universe, but
the universe might just allow these things to exist simultaneaously.
Whilst these exists I cannot know whether the statment "contradiction
cannot exist" is valid.
I think the beauty of Kant's epistemology is that it provides for an
explanation of contradction whereas others fail, but still allows
science to proceed in critical steps as it fundementally challenges
undue claims on the findings of science being falsely declared
objective and unrevisable.
.
User: "Jim07D7"

Title: Re: Antitheism 19 Mar 2007 01:51:41 PM
"chazwin" <chazwyman@yahoo.com> said:

On Mar 19, 3:21 pm, "Jeckyl" <n...@nowhere.com> wrote:

<...>

... the force of gravity results in things
falling.


That is a simple misconception. Things fall and we call it the force
of gravity. There is no idea that makes things fall. Falling is a
thing that happens it is not made to happen by another thing.

<...>
To wit, things falling results in the force of gravity. ;-)
.
User: "Sippuuden"

Title: Re: Antitheism 19 Mar 2007 10:16:36 PM
Jim07D7 wrote:

"chazwin" <chazwyman@yahoo.com> said:

On Mar 19, 3:21 pm, "Jeckyl" <n...@nowhere.com> wrote:

<...>

... the force of gravity results in things
falling.

That is a simple misconception. Things fall and we call it the force
of gravity. There is no idea that makes things fall. Falling is a
thing that happens it is not made to happen by another thing.

<...>

To wit, things falling results in the force of gravity. ;-)

There is nothing mystical about this phenomenon as some like to pretend,
it's just the simple matter of a law [observed regularity] of nature:
objects attract.
"ALL objects attract each other with a force of gravitational
attraction. This force of gravitational attraction is directly dependent
upon the masses of both objects and inversely proportional to the square
of the distance which separates their centers." --
http://www.glenbrook.k12.il.us/GBSSCI/PHYS/Class/circles/u6l3c.html
Einstein later showed that the apparent 'attraction' is not a mysterious
FORCE at all, it is simply due to objects curving the space/time
continuum in which they reside, creating 'low places' (so to speak) for
each other to 'fall into' (so to speak).
http://theory.uwinnipeg.ca/mod_tech/node60.html
.


User: "Jeckyl"

Title: Re: Antitheism 19 Mar 2007 06:46:53 PM
"chazwin" <chazwyman@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1174327942.401704.172470@n76g2000hsh.googlegroups.com...

On Mar 19, 3:21 pm, "Jeckyl" <n...@nowhere.com> wrote:

"chazwin" <chazwy...@yahoo.com> wrote in message
That I believe that does not discredit my pointing out the rules of logic
and the fallacies that can be committed whne those rules are not
followed.
Whether 'logic' is a product purely of the human mind, or is a property
or
reality, is not relevant to what I was arguing,

I don't think you know what youare agruing.

I don't think you know what I am arguing. Maybe that is part of the
problem.

I beleive number exists as a property without an observer (assuming you
believe that reality even exists outside of the human mind .. that there
is
anything physically 'out there'). However, the IDEA of number doesn't
exist
without someone to think it

Prove that number exists as a property of nature!

Prove it doesn't ! I don't think that is a matter that one can 'prove'
either way
If you have two objects then there are two objects. Twoness is a property
of that set of objects. It is independant of whether or not the objects are
observed. It is modelled by our subjective concept of 'two'.
Really .. this is going COMPELTELY off topic now, as whether numbers exist
as a property of nature has nothing to do with the logical validity of
claims of proof for the existence or otherwise of God.
Unless God IS a number :)

The idea of number is something we use to make sense of the reality of
number. When we perceive the reality, the human mind associates the idea
of
number with what it perceives.

Numbers are an invention, a tool like any other.

The idea of number is an invention to explain the natural property of
number.

Logic is and idea and as such cannot be independant of those
that conceive of the idea.

Logic is like math and physics. One can argue whether these have some
meaning in the physical universe outside of human thought. I don't think
we'll agree on that.

We sure won't.

Well .. I'm happy with that. Are you?

But regardless of that, I assume you would not argue with the rules of
addition and multiplication, or that the force of gravity results in
things
falling.

That is a simple misconception. Things fall and we call it the force
of gravity. There is no idea that makes things fall. Falling is a
thing that happens it is not made to happen by another thing.

But it is the mathematics of physics that the falling object obeys .. it is
objectively following rules that one can observe and discover and
incorporate into ones subjective model of reality.

In exactly the same applies to logic as for math and physics
(logic is just a type of math). Regardless of who (if anyone) is
thinking
of it, the rules apply.

I am saying that maths and logic are dependant on
humans to conceive them as ideas.

But then how is it that the same rules of math apply regardless of the
observer?

By convention and agreement. You should not be so arrogant as to
believe that these things exist in the mind of god.

I do not even say there is a god, let alone a god with a mind. So are you
saying that it is only by convention and agreement that if you get one
object and then another object that you end up with two objects? I would
agree that the word 'two' and the idea of 'two' are subjective .. but that
the twoness that one observes and that the idea of 'two' models is
objective.

The universe would be little different without humans.

Got to agree with you there .. although the earth would probably be a much
better place

I would agree that the idea of math and logic are in our minds .. just
like
the idea of an apple or a marble. But that does not preclude there being
a
corresponding physical reality that our minds are modelling.

But whatever that might be, it is not the same as our conception of
it.

I didn't say it was.

I think you should read some Kant.

Reading is alwaysa good idea.

Then you will have to dismiss you "truth from authority" and account
for the independant existence of an idea. Please let me know where
ideas exists?

Ideas are in the mind .. I think we can agree on that. The physical
realities that (some) ideas model are not just in the mind.

I did not say that there is not physical reality outside of the mind.
But ideas can be used to model (imperfectly) the physical world.

Yes .. we agree

So if all life were to suddenly perish, there would be no universe? Does
the mean that for the eons before life evolved, there was no universe ..
if
so, from where did it evolve?

If all life were to perish it would not matter that there were a
universe of not.

I didn't ask if it mattered .. I asked if it existed. I was not asking for
a value judgement.

You are continuing to misrepresent my viewpoint.

Perhaps.. that is why I am asking questions so I can better understand what
your viewpoint actually is.

I AM saying that our
impression of the physical universe IS dependant on our preception of
it.

I totally agree

Logic, maths, politics are all ideas that attempt to represent and
model our view of reality but cannot be said to map onto it exactly.

I'd agree with politics.
I disagree with you when it comes to math and logic .. I regard the rules of
logic and math as objective .. and as such they are discovered, not
invented. As we discover them, we create corresponding ideas in our mind as
part of our subjective model of reality. if we didn't do that, we couldn't
use math and logic in our thinking

All reality relies on perception.

Our knowledge of reality relies on perception . .that does not mean the
existence of reality does.

Once again I am not saying that.

That's fine .. I'm just working out where you stand. We agree again.

This is unavoidable and
therefore whilst me may speak of objective knowldge
we cannot point to any thing which is beyond some bias.

We can point ot it .. phyiscal objective reality has no bias.
But our ideas of it do.

But we are unable to perceive "physical objective reality"

What is it we perceive then? Are we only ever perceiving someone or
something elses ideas?
Maybe you are talking about the act of perception in out mind. rather than
the objective reality being perceived .. ie even though it is physical
objective reality that causes physical objective events within our anatomy
that end up 'creating' perception in our mind .. those perceptions
themselves are not objective reality (which is fair enough) .. they are only
our perceptions of it and so we can never directly perceive the reality we
can only perceive our perception of it (like thinking about thinking) ?
Maybe you can explain what you really mean by 'unable to perceive "physical
objective reality"'

it is another idea that we cannot exactly model.

That does not mean it isn't real, of course, just that our minds are limited
to what they can model. Objective reality cannot exist in our minds.

Once premises are defined, logical argument is independant of the
observer.
Just like one plus one is two.

No.

No what?

Fallibilism <snip. >>...reality

If you wan to contribute you should quote less and think more.

That is very unkind and unwarranted.

I think not. I am not here to read and answer quotations from the
Internet. I shall answer thoughts considered and written from a
thinking person. Sometimes quotes hit the spot but the full
significance of them is not always understood if they do not come from
the heart (as it were).

In that case, I will hope that means that you consider me a thinking person
... even if you do not necessarily agree with what I think.

The human mind need no knowledge of logic to operate. Ask any child
who has never heard of it.

But children *do* use logic all the time.

MY POINT EXACTLY!!! It is just like we all seem to grasp the rules of
grammar without knowing subject/object, accusative, genitive,
ablative, etc...

We may not know the words that describe them, but we implictly understand
the concepts. I don't know how that point in any way invalidates what I
was
originally saying about logical proofs.

You should re-read the thread then.

I know what I was saying. Is there something that you read that indicates
otherwise, as just telling me to re-read it will not mean I find what you
find.

Ideas are formed in the human mind and can be expressed externally .. but
logic (like math) is more than just an idea. I do not accept the premise
that everthing is an idea.

But 100% of your viewpoint of the world is formed by ideas in your
brain.

Yes .. 100% of ideas are ideas. I've not said otherwise.
But that does not mean 100% of the world is ideas in my brain (despite how
capacious it may be :)). In fact none of the objective world is ideas in my
brain .. the lump of matter and enregy that is my brain is part of the
objective world though.. But there is some correspondence between the ideas
in my mind and what they attempt to model .. if there weren't it would not
be in any way a useful model, and I could not function.

There might be a certain number

of "planets" inthe "solar system", but these are both ideas which are
distilled out of our experience and observation.

The ideas of 'planets' and 'solar system' are in our minds .. but the
planets still exist, and the solar system still exists and the
number-ness
of the planets exists. Unless of course, you think that they don't
exists,
and that somehow there is a shared idea between all human observers so
when
we look through a telescope we all magically see the same things?

DUH!

Ok .. so I guess that means "No, I do not think that"

Neither of these ideas have unbiased
and objective realities.

So there is no actual real thing that corresponds to (say) our (common)
idea
of the planet mars ?

Duh yes!

That's fine

I can see and accept how 'planet-ness' is a concept
within our minds that help us model and understand the lumps of matter
and
energy that we calls 'planets'. I don't see that that would mean those
lumps of matter and energy are not objectively real.

They are subjectively real as they are part of your perceptual
horizon.
You perception of mars will differ ever so slightly with another
person's.

Yes . .that's fine. Our thoughts, our ideas and our 'models' are our own.

These are human created categories which
have no clear meaning in nature, though the
objects of which they comprise are there.

So are you saying what I was above .. that there are ideas and concepts
within the mind that help us organise our internal model of the objective
external reality?

No,

Damn . .I thought I'd actually understood you for a momenty

. I am saying that there are ideas and concepts within the mind that
help us organise our internal model of the subjective external
reality.

If its it subjective, it must be internal to the subject (us) and vary
dependant on the observer .. if it is reality that is external it must be
objective (or do you think that the universe is not real, but a thought).

The objective reality cannot be preceived directly, but we
can make a simulation of it - this is a subjective model.

That is effectively just what I'd said (and you said no to) .. we make a
subjective model of the objective world based on what we perceive of it.
Maybe I do understand what you're saying

The
differnece between the model and the reality is expressed by Kant as
the noumena and the phenomena respectively.
The noumena is the thing a part of which we perceive via a point of
view via phenomena.

That is effectively the same as I was saying.

So there are the things we describe with the ideas of planets and solar
system that exist, but the ideas themselves are in the mind. I'd agree
with
that.

This is a good start.

:)

So would you say that we can categorise things in our mind, and
although the categoies themselves are ideas, they are based on the
underlying properties of the real objects. And that our describing and
thinking about principles of mathematics (including logic and physics)
are
in the mind, although the essense of the math is something real.

The essence of maths is a thing which corresponds to the phenomena
that we perceive, yes.

Ok.. looks like here may be some fundamental level at which we agree.

You have only to look at the current argument concerning Pluto and
other bodies to know this is true.

That is an argument over categorisation .. but that does not mean the
thing
we call pluto does not exist. Nor does changing how we cateogirse it
change
the reality .. it only changes how we organise our thoughts about it.
Yes?


Yes indeed.

Whoah .. a yes again. We're on a roll :)

If you accept this point you will also have to accept that
our conception of a thing places limits on our model of the universe,

Yes

and that the phenomena around us must precede the ideas we share about
it.

Yes

It is in this way that grammar and logic are supervening qualities
we place upon the world, that are only viable whilst they have
utility.

The only have meaning when they are used, but I see them as an subjective
model or an objective phenomena.

For example, although I think that contradictions cannot exist in
reality, I see contradictions around me all the time.

Contradictions (or paradoxes) are a natural consequence of any logical
system that is complete enough. But I don't think that means the paradox
'exist' in reality. Paradoxes occur when the logical system is applied to
itself. They basically boild down to the simple "this statement is false".

Most of these
are contradiction in our different people conceive the universe, but
the universe might just allow these things to exist simultaneaously.
Whilst these exists I cannot know whether the statment "contradiction
cannot exist" is valid.

Indeed

I think the beauty of Kant's epistemology is that it provides for an
explanation of contradction whereas others fail, but still allows
science to proceed in critical steps as it fundementally challenges
undue claims on the findings of science being falsely declared
objective and unrevisable.

I'll indeed do some more reading of Kant again. Thanks
.
User: "Roy"

Title: Re: Antitheism 19 Mar 2007 08:17:10 PM
"Jeckyl" <noone@nowhere.com> wrote in message
news:12vu87ikvu35292@corp.supernews.com...

If you have two objects then there are two objects. Twoness is a property
of that set of objects. It is independant of whether or not the objects
are observed. It is modelled by our subjective concept of 'two'.

Really .. this is going COMPELTELY off topic now, as whether numbers exist
as a property of nature has nothing to do with the logical validity of
claims of proof for the existence or otherwise of God.

Unless God IS a number :)

On the other hand, what about the God of Spinoza or
the pantheist? The idea that God is the universe and the
universe is God. If you find that there is a "God-ness" in
the universe then God exists. Just like if you find that
there is a "two-nes" in a set of objects then "two" exists.
.
User: "Sippuuden"

Title: Re: Antitheism 19 Mar 2007 10:03:04 PM
Roy wrote:

On the other hand, what about the God of Spinoza or
the pantheist? The idea that God is the universe and the
universe is God.

That is just equivocation. They want to co-opt something known to be
real (universe) and re-name that God so that they can argue, "You
wouldn't say that there is no universe in evidence would you?" It's just
more theist nonsense, logical fallacy.
.


User: "chazwin"

Title: Re: Antitheism 19 Mar 2007 08:28:02 PM
On Mar 19, 11:46 pm, "Jeckyl" <n...@nowhere.com> wrote:

"chazwin" <chazwy...@yahoo.com> wrote in message

news:1174327942.401704.172470@n76g2000hsh.googlegroups.com...

On Mar 19, 3:21 pm, "Jeckyl" <n...@nowhere.com> wrote:

"chazwin" <chazwy...@yahoo.com> wrote in message
That I believe that does not discredit my pointing out the rules of lo=

gic

and the fallacies that can be committed whne those rules are not
followed.
Whether 'logic' is a product purely of the human mind, or is a property
or
reality, is not relevant to what I was arguing,

I don't think you know what youare agruing.


I don't think you know what I am arguing. Maybe that is part of the
problem.

I beleive number exists as a property without an observer (assuming you
believe that reality even exists outside of the human mind .. that the=

re

is
anything physically 'out there'). However, the IDEA of number doesn't
exist
without someone to think it

Prove that number exists as a property of nature!


Prove it doesn't ! I don't think that is a matter that one can 'prove'
either way

BUt like atheism I do not insist on anything, you do. And once again
the burden of proof is on you.


If you have two objects then there are two objects. Twoness is a property
of that set of objects. It is independant of whether or not the objects =

are

observed. It is modelled by our subjective concept of 'two'.

If.. shoulda woulda coulda... Two ness is a property imposed by human
language and opinion. There is no "two" without an observer. no two
objects are identical so there intrinsic oneness is not equal. To
assign the number 2 to objects is an act of interpretation and is
subjective.


Really .. this is going COMPELTELY off topic now, as whether numbers exist
as a property of nature has nothing to do with the logical validity of
claims of proof for the existence or otherwise of God.

You are making claims for the validity of numbers - defend yourself!


Unless God IS a number :)

The idea of number is something we use to make sense of the reality of
number. When we perceive the reality, the human mind associates the i=

dea

of
number with what it perceives.

Numbers are an invention, a tool like any other.


The idea of number is an invention to explain the natural property of
number.

There are no natural numbers.


Logic is and idea and as such cannot be independant of those
that conceive of the idea.

Logic is like math and physics. One can argue whether these have some
meaning in the physical universe outside of human thought. I don't th=

ink

we'll agree on that.

We sure won't.


Well .. I'm happy with that. Are you?

But regardless of that, I assume you would not argue with the rules of
addition and multiplication, or that the force of gravity results in
things
falling.

That is a simple misconception. Things fall and we call it the force
of gravity. There is no idea that makes things fall. Falling is a
thing that happens it is not made to happen by another thing.


But it is the mathematics of physics that the falling object obeys .. it =

is

objectively following rules that one can observe and discover and
incorporate into ones subjective model of reality.

We observe phenomena and then attach our interpretations to them.
Things would fall and have fallen long before Newton assigned to
things the property of gravity. Gravity is of no consequence to
falling objects, it is just a useful device by which we conveniently
pretend to explain things, but gravity is not an explanation but a
description of how bodies behave. Science is all descrition.


In exactly the same applies to logic as for math and physics
(logic is just a type of math). Regardless of who (if anyone) is
thinking
of it, the rules apply.

I am saying that maths and logic are dependant on
humans to conceive them as ideas.

But then how is it that the same rules of math apply regardless of the
observer?

By convention and agreement. You should not be so arrogant as to
believe that these things exist in the mind of god.


I do not even say there is a god, let alone a god with a mind. So are you
saying that it is only by convention and agreement that if you get one
object and then another object that you end up with two objects? I would
agree that the word 'two' and the idea of 'two' are subjective .. but that
the twoness that one observes and that the idea of 'two' models is
objective.

There is no objectivity here. There might be a collective subjectivity
what some call intersubjectivity, whereby many people agree upon
statements about that which they perceive.


The universe would be little different without humans.


Got to agree with you there .. although the earth would probably be a much
better place

Better for whom? I know what you are saying but "better" is also a
value judgement that would not longer be relevant without a person to
appreciate it.

I would agree that the idea of math and logic are in our minds .. just
like
the idea of an apple or a marble. But that does not preclude there be=

ing

a
corresponding physical reality that our minds are modelling.

But whatever that might be, it is not the same as our conception of
it.


I didn't say it was.

I think you should read some Kant.


Reading is alwaysa good idea.

Then you will have to dismiss you "truth from authority" and account
for the independant existence of an idea. Please let me know where
ideas exists?

Ideas are in the mind .. I think we can agree on that. The physical
realities that (some) ideas model are not just in the mind.

I did not say that there is not physical reality outside of the mind.
But ideas can be used to model (imperfectly) the physical world.


Yes .. we agree

So if all life were to suddenly perish, there would be no universe? D=

oes

the mean that for the eons before life evolved, there was no universe =

..=2E

if
so, from where did it evolve?

If all life were to perish it would not matter that there were a
universe of not.


I didn't ask if it mattered .. I asked if it existed. I was not asking f=

or

a value judgement.

The point I was making is similar to the above (world without people).
The universe would abide the destruction of humans, yes.


You are continuing to misrepresent my viewpoint.


Perhaps.. that is why I am asking questions so I can better understand wh=

at

your viewpoint actually is.

I AM saying that our
impression of the physical universe IS dependant on our preception of
it.


I totally agree

Logic, maths, politics are all ideas that attempt to represent and
model our view of reality but cannot be said to map onto it exactly.


I'd agree with politics.

Now you will need to think why is it that you can include politics but
favour logic and maths with an exaulted position?


I disagree with you when it comes to math and logic .. I regard the rules=

of

logic and math as objective.

Tell me, where exactly can you stand to view this objective universe
devoid of bias and human interest?

.. and as such they are discovered, not
invented. As we discover them, we create corresponding ideas in our mind=

as

part of our subjective model of reality. if we didn't do that, we couldn=

't

use math and logic in our thinking

There are only tools to help us describe the universe. They are good
ones but nothing more than tools invented by humans to do a job. There
is no logic or maths without humans, though there is a universe out
there.


All reality relies on perception.

Our knowledge of reality relies on perception . .that does not mean the
existence of reality does.

Once again I am not saying that.


That's fine .. I'm just working out where you stand. We agree again.

This is unavoidable and
therefore whilst me may speak of objective knowldge
we cannot point to any thing which is beyond some bias.

We can point ot it .. phyiscal objective reality has no bias.
But our ideas of it do.

But we are unable to perceive "physical objective reality"


What is it we perceive then? Are we only ever perceiving someone or
something elses ideas?

No, you are think in black and white. What we see is an interpretation
of reality. It is based upon certain expectations we hold and coloured
by our previous experience and knowledge. If we could really see
"objective physical reality"(opr) then everyone on earth would be in
complete agreement with everything. The fact that we cannot see opr is
a perfect explanation as to why there is so much disagreement and
opinion in the world.


Maybe you are talking about the act of perception in out mind. rather than
the objective reality being perceived .. ie even though it is physical
objective reality that causes physical objective events within our anatomy
that end up 'creating' perception in our mind .. those perceptions
themselves are not objective reality (which is fair enough) .. they are o=

nly

our perceptions of it and so we can never directly perceive the reality we
can only perceive our perception of it (like thinking about thinking) ?
Maybe you can explain what you really mean by 'unable to perceive "physic=

al

objective reality"'

You are trapped inside your perceptions, we can observe things from
point of view doing things which seem to casue other things to action,
but we can never know the root casues. "If I ask you why you believe
any particular matter of fact, which you relate, you must tell me some
reason; and this reason will be some other fact, connected with it.
But as you cannot proceed after this manner, in infinitum, you must at
last terminate in some fact, which is present to your memory or
senses; or must allow that your belief is entirely without
foundation." Hume.


it is another idea that we cannot exactly model.


That does not mean it isn't real, of course, just that our minds are limi=

ted

to what they can model. Objective reality cannot exist in our minds.

I did nto say it was not "real" - what do you mean by real? You are
nearly there in Kant land.


Once premises are defined, logical argument is independant of the
observer.
Just like one plus one is two.

No.


No what? and argument cannot be independant of the observer.

Sometimes quotes hit the spot but the full

significance of them is not always understood if they do not come from
the heart (as it were).


In that case, I will hope that means that you consider me a thinking pers=

on

.. even if you do not necessarily agree with what I think.

Of course - but we seem to be reaching a similar ground.


The human mind need no knowledge of logic to operate. Ask any chi=

ld

who has never heard of it.

But children *do* use logic all the time.

MY POINT EXACTLY!!! It is just like we all seem to grasp the rules of
grammar without knowing subject/object, accusative, genitive,
ablative, etc...

We may not know the words that describe them, but we implictly underst=

and

the concepts. I don't know how that point in any way invalidates what=

I

was
originally saying about logical proofs.

You should re-read the thread then.


I know what I was saying. Is there something that you read that indicates
otherwise, as just telling me to re-read it will not mean I find what you
find.

Ideas are formed in the human mind and can be expressed externally .. =

but

logic (like math) is more than just an idea. I do not accept the prem=

ise

that everthing is an idea.

But 100% of your viewpoint of the world is formed by ideas in your
brain.


Yes .. 100% of ideas are ideas. I've not said otherwise.

But that does not mean 100% of the world is ideas in my brain (despite how
capacious it may be :)).

But everything you can possibly know about the world; 100% of your
evidence for the world; is all contained within. And as this is the
case knowledge of the objectivness of the world is illusory.

In fact none of the objective world is ideas in my
brain .. the lump of matter and enregy that is my brain is part of the
objective world though.. But there is some correspondence between the id=

eas

in my mind and what they attempt to model .. if there weren't it would not
be in any way a useful model, and I could not function.

Indeed.
There is a slight problem here as you suggest that your brain is part
of the objective world. This is so but that which is significant about
it is not observable by another, and your perception is not the same
as your brain.


There might be a certain number

of "planets" inthe "solar system", but these are both ideas which are
distilled out of our experience and observation.

The ideas of 'planets' and 'solar system' are in our minds .. but the
planets still exist, and the solar system still exists and the
number-ness
of the planets exists. Unless of course, you think that they don't
exists,
and that somehow there is a shared idea between all human observers so
when
we look through a telescope we all magically see the same things?

DUH!


Ok .. so I guess that means "No, ...

We never see exactly the same thing - not until we have mastered
simultaneous co-location. As Thales said you can never step into the
same river twice, and however slightly we cannot see exactly the same
tea-cup.


read more =BB

.
User: "Roy"

Title: Re: Antitheism 21 Mar 2007 07:02:00 PM
"chazwin" <chazwyman@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1174354082.402851.235480@e1g2000hsg.googlegroups.com...

We never see exactly the same thing - not until we have mastered
simultaneous co-location. As Thales said you can never step into the
same river twice, and however slightly we cannot see exactly the same
tea-cup.

I think I see a problem with this notion :
"We never see exactly the same thing."
How different are two people's perceptions?
Can we ever know how different people's
perceptions are?
Do we ever act on the assumption that we *do*
see the same thing?
Here is a thought experiment:
You are a teacher. (I believe you said you are.)
So let's assume that you have a class and
you want your class to watch a movie. After
the movie you want them to write an essay
on the plot of the movie. You are going
to grade the essays.
How can you possibly grade the essays? You
say above the nobody ever sees exactly the
same thing. If someone wrote a well worded
description of *a* plot but it wasn't anything like
the plot of the movie that you thought you had
watched then would you give him a failing
grade? How could you make the determination
that his perception is wrong? Wouldn't giving
a failing grade that be acting on the assumption
that you all saw the same plot?
.

User: "Jeckyl"

Title: Re: Antitheism 19 Mar 2007 09:07:12 PM

"chazwin" <chazwyman@yahoo.com> wrote in message

news:1174354082.402851.235480@e1g2000hsg.googlegroups.com...

On Mar 19, 11:46 pm, "Jeckyl" <n...@nowhere.com> wrote:

"chazwin" <chazwy...@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1174327942.401704.172470@n76g2000hsh.googlegroups.com...

On Mar 19, 3:21 pm, "Jeckyl" <n...@nowhere.com> wrote:

"chazwin" <chazwy...@yahoo.com> wrote in message
That I believe that does not discredit my pointing out the rules of
logic
and the fallacies that can be committed whne those rules are not
followed.
Whether 'logic' is a product purely of the human mind, or is a
property
or
reality, is not relevant to what I was arguing,

I don't think you know what youare agruing.

I don't think you know what I am arguing. Maybe that is part of the
problem.

I beleive number exists as a property without an observer (assuming
you
believe that reality even exists outside of the human mind .. that
there
is
anything physically 'out there'). However, the IDEA of number doesn't
exist
without someone to think it

Prove that number exists as a property of nature!

Prove it doesn't ! I don't think that is a matter that one can 'prove'
either way

BUt like atheism

Irrelevant

I do not insist on anything

You are insiting that your view is correct, and you are insisting that I
prove mine, without you proving yours.

you do.

I am not insisting on anything .. other than the rules of logic are
correctly applied to arugments (in particulr arguments about the existence
or otherwise of god)

And once again the burden of proof is on you.

I am under no burden whatsoever.

If you have two objects then there are two objects. Twoness is a
property
of that set of objects. It is independant of whether or not the objects
are
observed. It is modelled by our subjective concept of 'two'.

If.. shoulda woulda coulda...

Irrelevant .. and incorrect .. there are not shoulda woulda coulda in what I
said. Please, argue rationally if you intend to argue.

Two ness is a property imposed by human
language and opinion.
There is no "two" without an observer.

Your opinion only that this is all that there is.

no two objects are identical so there intrinsic oneness is not equal.

Who said you can only have two things when they are dientical. that
aregument is not relevant.

To assign the number 2 to objects is an act of interpretation

It is an act of observation of objective reality where the two obejcts
exist.

and is subjective.

And is objective

Really .. this is going COMPELTELY off topic now, as whether numbers
exist
as a property of nature has nothing to do with the logical validity of
claims of proof for the existence or otherwise of God.

You are making claims for the validity of numbers - defend yourself!

No thanks. I am under no burden to prove anything.

The idea of number is an invention to explain the natural property of
number.

There are no natural numbers.

Prove your assertion.

But regardless of that, I assume you would not argue with the rules of
addition and multiplication, or that the force of gravity results in
things falling.

That is a simple misconception. Things fall and we call it the force
of gravity. There is no idea that makes things fall. Falling is a
thing that happens it is not made to happen by another thing.


But it is the mathematics of physics that the falling object obeys .. it
is
objectively following rules that one can observe and discover and
incorporate into ones subjective model of reality.


We observe phenomena and then attach our interpretations to them.

The way falling objects (or any objects that interact in objective reality)
is not subjective. They behave that way regardless. We can discover their
behaviour.

Things would fall and have fallen long before Newton assigned to
things the property of gravity.

Exactly. All Newton did was give a name to something that exists
objectively so it cuold be modelled subjectively. Gravity was as real
before as it was after.

Gravity is of no consequence to falling objects

Prove it. Why do they fall

it is just a useful device by which we conveniently
pretend to explain things,

Givin a name to what we opbserve is useful . but because there is an idea
ofsomething does not mean the something does not exist.

but gravity is not an explanation but a
description of how bodies behave.
Science is all descrition.

Descriptions of real objective things. Like gravity.

I do not even say there is a god, let alone a god with a mind. So are
you
saying that it is only by convention and agreement that if you get one
object and then another object that you end up with two objects? I would
agree that the word 'two' and the idea of 'two' are subjective .. but
that
the twoness that one observes and that the idea of 'two' models is
objective.

There is no objectivity here.

I could ask for proof, but I don't want to play your game. I will simply
disagree with you.

There might be a collective subjectivity
what some call intersubjectivity, whereby many
people agree upon statements about that which
they perceive.

I was not talking about collectives and people agreeing. I was talking
about being two things (possibly different) is objective reality. That
there is a coressponding subjective model of that is irelevant to whater
there is 'twoness' in reality.

The universe would be little different without humans.

Got to agree with you there .. although the earth would probably be a
much
better place

Better for whom? I know what you are saying but "better" is also a
value judgement that would not longer be relevant without a person to
appreciate it.

It depends on whether you think non-humans can have values and feeling.
Also that value judgement can be made now by the humans (before we cease to
exists), that us not being here would be better. yes .. it is subjective
and a value judgement .. thats fine. . it can be.

If all life were to perish it would not matter that there were a
universe of not.

I didn't ask if it mattered .. I asked if it existed. I was not asking
for
a value judgement.

The point I was making is simil