Matt Giwer wrote:

Ha SATAN [Sin Tet Nun] wrote:

Matt Giwer wrote:

Ha SATAN [Sin Tet Nun] wrote:

Matt Giwer wrote

And as it is it remains a jewish myth. That is all I am saying.

You do not see Leo's order of forced baptism of Jews as a
"Romanization" scheme i suppose.

And how does that make being a Jew illegal? And which Leo III and where did it apply and all those
questions?

i said effectively.

Effectively does not answer the mail.

for example, if the Mishna is prohibited then it is illegal.
That is criminalization.
If the Mishna is a key component of Judaism then this is
criminalization of Judaism.

If the Jew cannot practice Judaic culture without his Judaism then this
is criminalization of practicing Judaic culture.

If a Roman head of state [say Byzantium i don't care in this context]
represents the embodiment of the judicial system and decrees that
something is prohibited then he has criminalized such.

If the Roman head of state launches a campaign to forcibly convert Jews
to Romans

via the reinterpreted Christian state religion then this is
not a local incident, this is law and national policy,
and therefore criminalization of Judaism, Judaic culture, and being a Jew.

Ha SATAN [Sin Tet Nun] wrote:

Matt Giwer wrote:

Ha SATAN [Sin Tet Nun] wrote:

As only a little reading will teach you, the OT has only about 1/3 the words needed for a working
language. And it is the only thing claimed to be an original source for the language. And that means
2/3rds of the words in modern "Hebrew" had to be invented just to have a working language.

first of all that is false.
a 'word' is not limited to a single lexemic unit and multiple lexemes
combine to produce new morphemic units.
i agree that it was reinvented in fact i am the one who said so.
the point is that it was not reinvented out of thin air but was an
ancient language preserved in the kollels and yeshivas.

So of course the "books" in which the "ancient" language was preserved can be produced for the
public to read? An oral tradition is a corrupt tradition by definition.

but you must admit that ancient languages can be preserved and in the
case of kollel and yeshiva hebrew that is what you have

Nothing is admissable without physical evidence that it did in fact occur.

that is the reason the scribes are adding the nikud markers for the
vowels circa 900 CE

Late-comers to the vowel game of course. But as we know vowel pronunciation changes quite quickly
and can be much different in the same language only 50 miles away. See the British Isles for details
-- watch BBC broadcasts for interviews with Welsh locals subtitled even for the British broadcast.
Consonants change more slowly. See Roman Catholic and Classic Latin for details. You can see it
today with the town of Heebron, Hebron and Hevron with a rolling R. I have come across a suggestion
American "hillbilly" pronunciation is closest to Shakespearian.

The idea that any pronunciation remains constant over even a century is foolish.

But none of this has to do with the idea of preserving 2/3rd of the language in secret when there
is no physical evidence to support the claim.

the zionists expanded it and thus many sacred words became profane in
modern context, eg. 'electricity.'

However the Zionists were a bit more open about their creative efforts a century ago. Sort of
"educated" guesses as to what the word would have been using Aramaic, Arabic and Greek as models.

that is a misrepresentation of the process the base was kollel and yeshiva hebrew

The idea that Yiddish or Ladino would arise with the existence of a full, functional language does
not make sense. Why would Yiddish use the German Fenster if there was a Hebrew word for window known
to them? Buildings in bibleland always had windows.

back to your point of course: there is no ancient hebrew i understand
you to mean.
you see paleo hebrew as non-existent and there is only
paleo-phoenician.

Only phoenician. It a class name, not a specific name. It is mainly marked by the purely phonetic
alphabet. The older stuff have their own names like Linear A and B. There was the generic Hellene
culture of the northwest Med which used the script and were sort of consistent in its use and
spellings. I once came across a long discussion of an out-of-print book which showed a large number
of "hebrew" words were simply greek words read backwards often with a missing consonant to fit the
three consonant pattern.

what is this now, an assertion of a semitic language being derived from
an Indo European language ?

Not really but that is one of the speculations. However given it is most closely an African
language and as Egypt ruled bibleland and the eastern Red Sea south through Yemen for a thousand
years that is its most likely origin -- although at different times. As we know Arabic spread with
the Koran and the Koran started on the east coast of the Red Sea as a version of Egyptian from
around 4000 years ago.

i suppose you also believe that Chinese characters as used in Japan
would not really represent Japanese language.

As the basic Japanese culture developed from an invasion force sent to conquer it around 105BC, did
so, told the emperor to go to hell and stayed, at one time it did. That is roughly in the same time
frame as we are talking.

105 CE ? is this when Japanese language began adapting chinese
characters to represent their morphemes ?

I only said that is when people whose origin was China took over a fair part of Japan and
eventually spread to controlling all of it.

you must have meant something else.

I said the empire Chinese of 2100 years ago began being used as the Chinese rulers of Japan
integrated into the local culture. Chin dynasty Chinese is something left to a very small handful of
scholars and so far as I know the version(s) spoken by those sent to conquer Japan is unknown.

Note even today China does not have an official language in the sense of Americans speaking
English. The local dialects require as much education and experience to learn as it does for a
French speaker to learn Italian. There are a mess of root words and ideas which permit some pidgin

talk but that is about it. What we call dialects of
Chinese can be as different as French and Greek.

Mao spoke such a rare dialect he needed a retinue of translators and he ran the country.