Religions > Atheism > If a property is "subjective" by definition, can its assigned value be considered in any sense "objective"?
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Religions > Atheism |
| User: |
"Uncle Clover" |
| Date: |
30 Oct 2006 06:43:54 PM |
| Object: |
If a property is "subjective" by definition, can its assigned value be considered in any sense "objective"? |
Well, this was a quick query to arise from my "evil" post.
If you have property "X", and one of the defining features of "X" is that it is
a subjective property, can you ever a given value of that property to be its
"objective" value?
For instance, suppose "X" is "tallness". One's height is an objective property,
but what constitutes "tall" is a subjective one. If all who understand the
concept of "tallness" say that a given object is "very tall", could not the
"very tall" status of the object be considered something I can only think to
call "quasi-objective"?
Might be one for the fuzzy logic crowd. :-?
--
L8r,
Uncle Clover
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The true mark of a civilized society is that its
citizens know how to hate each other peacefully.
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| User: "Denis Loubet" |
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| Title: Re: If a property is "subjective" by definition, can its assigned value be considered in any sense "objective"? |
30 Oct 2006 08:05:53 PM |
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"Uncle Clover" <UncleClover@SpamMeNot.com> wrote in message
news:1r6dk219cqtu0sqbobn6sngi1bllfgh43i@4ax.com...
Well, this was a quick query to arise from my "evil" post.
If you have property "X", and one of the defining features of "X" is that
it is
a subjective property, can you ever a given value of that property to be
its
"objective" value?
For instance, suppose "X" is "tallness". One's height is an objective
property,
but what constitutes "tall" is a subjective one. If all who understand
the
concept of "tallness" say that a given object is "very tall", could not
the
"very tall" status of the object be considered something I can only think
to
call "quasi-objective"?
Might be one for the fuzzy logic crowd. :-?
Well, my dislike of seafood is subjective since it's a purely internal value
judgment, but my avoidance of seafood is objective since anyone can observe
it.
--
Denis Loubet
dloubet@io.com
http://www.io.com/~dloubet
http://www.ashenempires.com
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| User: "Al Klein" |
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| Title: Re: If a property is "subjective" by definition, can its assigned value be considered in any sense "objective"? |
30 Oct 2006 08:26:34 PM |
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On Mon, 30 Oct 2006 19:43:54 -0500, Uncle Clover
<UncleClover@SpamMeNot.com> wrote:
Well, this was a quick query to arise from my "evil" post.
If you have property "X", and one of the defining features of "X" is that it is
a subjective property, can you ever a given value of that property to be its
"objective" value?
For instance, suppose "X" is "tallness". One's height is an objective property,
but what constitutes "tall" is a subjective one. If all who understand the
concept of "tallness" say that a given object is "very tall", could not the
"very tall" status of the object be considered something I can only think to
call "quasi-objective"?
Might be one for the fuzzy logic crowd. :-?
Nope. Tallness refers to an objective property - height. But
tallness itself is in the eye of the beholder so it's subjective.
(Someone 7' tall is short to an 8' tall man.) Once we define "tall"
as 5'10" to 6', very tall as > 6' but not as high as 6'6", etc.,
you're not really talking about tallness, you're redefining the word
"tallness" to be a coarse measure of height.
--
rukbat at optonline dot net
"So much blood has been shed by the Church because of an omission from the Gospel: "Ye
shall be indifferent as to what your neighbor's religion is." Not merely tolerant of it,
but indifferent to it. Divinity is claimed for many religions; but no religion is great
enough or divine enough to add that new law to its code."
- Mark Twain, a Biography
(random sig, produced by SigChanger)
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| User: "Uncle Clover" |
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| Title: Re: If a property is "subjective" by definition, can its assigned value be considered in any sense "objective"? |
30 Oct 2006 06:47:57 PM |
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On Mon, 30 Oct 2006 19:43:54 -0500, Uncle Clover <UncleClover@SpamMeNot.com>
wrote:
Well, this was a quick query to arise from my "evil" post.
If you have property "X", and one of the defining features of "X" is that it is
a subjective property, can you ever a given value of that property to be its
"objective" value?
Wups... Last part should've read: "can you ever say that a given value of that
property is its 'objective' value?"
Soiree...
--
L8r,
Uncle Clover
************************************************
The true mark of a civilized society is that its
citizens know how to hate each other peacefully.
************************************************
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