| Topic: |
Religions > Atheism |
| User: |
"Dianelos Georgoudis" |
| Date: |
19 May 2006 03:39:16 AM |
| Object: |
objectivity found wanting? |
There is no objective evidence of consciousness. In other words there
is no objective observation for which the existence of consciousness is
the best explanation. So the consciousness hypothesis is not required
for understanding any of our observations of the physical universe. Yet
consciousness exists - we are absolutely certain of that - which shows
that the rule "We should only believe in the existence of something
when there is objective evidence for it " is wrong, as we have just
found a counterexample.
If one should relax this rule and say "We should only believe in the
existence of something when it is directly perceived or when there is
objective evidence for it" then one can justify the existence of
consciousness by pointing out that one's own consciousness is directly
perceived, therefore it exists, and therefore consciousness in general
exists also. But how about the existence of other peoples'
consciousness? We don't perceive it directly and neither is there
objective evidence of it. Yet we know other peoples' consciousness
exists also - we are practically certain about that. So this form of
the rule doesn't work either.
How about: "We should only believe in the existence of something when
it is directly perceived or when there is evidence for it."? That's I
think the rule that rational thought should follow. But it's not
objective anymore. (And it makes you think what subjective evidence
there is for the existence of other peoples' consciousness.)
In short what I am claiming here is that objectivity directly leads to
the solipsistic view that one is the only conscious being there is.
Objectivity and non-solipsism are logically exclusive.
.
|
|
| User: "Fred Stone" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
19 May 2006 07:03:45 AM |
|
|
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148027956.597785.121960@j33g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
There is no objective evidence of consciousness. In other words there
is no objective observation for which the existence of consciousness
is the best explanation. So the consciousness hypothesis is not
required for understanding any of our observations of the physical
universe. Yet consciousness exists - we are absolutely certain of that
- which shows that the rule "We should only believe in the existence
of something when there is objective evidence for it " is wrong, as we
have just found a counterexample.
Of course there is an objective observation for which consciousness is
the best explanation. "Other people behave in ways similar to ways that
I behave, and I know that I am conscious.".
All your attempts to get around that simple example fall on self-
contradiction based on the pzombie fallacy that "conscious behavior" can
be performed by a non-conscious entity. Occam's razor will eliminate any
alternative explanations.
If one should relax this rule and say "We should only believe in the
existence of something when it is directly perceived or when there is
objective evidence for it" then one can justify the existence of
consciousness by pointing out that one's own consciousness is directly
perceived, therefore it exists, and therefore consciousness in general
exists also. But how about the existence of other peoples'
consciousness? We don't perceive it directly and neither is there
objective evidence of it. Yet we know other peoples' consciousness
exists also - we are practically certain about that. So this form of
the rule doesn't work either.
It is not necessary to be able to observe "consciousness" directly.
Their behavior is the objective evidence of their consciousness.
How about: "We should only believe in the existence of something when
it is directly perceived or when there is evidence for it."? That's I
think the rule that rational thought should follow. But it's not
objective anymore. (And it makes you think what subjective evidence
there is for the existence of other peoples' consciousness.)
In short what I am claiming here is that objectivity directly leads to
the solipsistic view that one is the only conscious being there is.
Objectivity and non-solipsism are logically exclusive.
You may now once again stack piles upon piles of meaningless sophistry
in your attempts to disprove observable reality.
--
Fred Stone
aa# 1369
How can we connect the dots
if we cannot collect the dots?
*** Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com ***
.
|
|
|
| User: "Dianelos Georgoudis" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
20 May 2006 05:06:36 PM |
|
|
Fred Stone wrote:
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148027956.597785.121960@j33g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
There is no objective evidence of consciousness. In other words there
is no objective observation for which the existence of consciousness
is the best explanation. So the consciousness hypothesis is not
required for understanding any of our observations of the physical
universe. Yet consciousness exists - we are absolutely certain of that
- which shows that the rule "We should only believe in the existence
of something when there is objective evidence for it " is wrong, as we
have just found a counterexample.
Of course there is an objective observation for which consciousness is
the best explanation. "Other people behave in ways similar to ways that
I behave, and I know that I am conscious.".
Yes, but the statement "I know I am conscious" is not an objective
statement you see. Actually there are some materialists who claim that
you are wrong in this belief, and that your consciousness is nothing
more than an illusion and does not really exist. To say "I know this
(because it's intuitively completely obvious to me)" is not objective;
after all some people justify their belief in God using exactly the
same language.
But, as I explained in the initial post to this thread, I find it
entirely reasonable to relax the objectivity maxim and allow for
existential claims justified on direct conscious experience: "We should
only believe in the existence of something when it is directly
perceived or when there is objective evidence for it". So, as it really
is obvious to all of us, we are justified to believe in the existence
of our own consciousness even though there is no objective evidence for
it.
So you propose the following argument (let me know if I misrepresent
it):
1. I am a conscious being (i.e. my consciousness exists).
2. My behavior is objectively observable (i.e. objective evidence).
3. The best explanation for my behavior is that I am a conscious being.
4. Other peoples' behavior is objectively observable.
5. Other peoples' behavior is so similar to mine that the best
explanation for it is that they too are conscious beings (i.e. their
consciousness exists).
6. Therefore other peoples' consciousness exists.
I think that's the argument we all really make - but modern science has
shown that there is a serious error in it. We know already enough about
cognition and neurophysiology that it is virtually certain that in
principle somebody who would study the physical processes in your brain
would be able to explain your conscious behavior much better than you
yourself with all your privileged access to the content of your own
conscious experience. So #3 above is false: The best explanation for
our behavior is not the presence of our consciousness and whatever we
directly know about it, but physical processes in our brain.
There is also a problem with #5. It's true that other peoples'
objectively observable behavior is similar, but it's not identical to
ours. Observing live bacteria in the microscope also strikes us as
somehow similar behavior to ours. Why are we then justified to claim in
the former case almost absolute certainty that other people are
conscious beings and in the later case almost absolute certainty that
microbes are not conscious beings?
So, even though I agree that when thinking about this matter most of us
used your argument to justify our belief in other peoples'
consciousness, on closer inspection it does not hold water - even when
using the relaxed objectivity maxim.
Which is rather strange, especially to a person who believes in
objectivity and rationalism. In fact, there isn't any objective
evidence for consciousness: there is no observation that anybody can
independently validate and for which consciousness is the best
explanation. And even relaxing objectivity and accepting the obvious
truth of direct conscious experience we still cannot justify the belief
in other peoples' consciousness. That's why there is the so-called
Hard Problem of consciousness. And that's why some of the most
stringent materialists bite the bullet and conclude that there must be
something deeply wrong with our intuitive beliefs about consciousness,
and therefore propose, rather ludicrously, that consciousness is an
illusion (whatever that means in this context) or even that it does not
exist at all. Others have resorted to rather odd ideas (often
accompanied by the coining of new words) such as that consciousness is
an epiphenomenon, an emergent property, that it is a irreducible
physical phenomenon, or that it is identical to the physical processes
happening in our brains. Every one of these positions is a case of
special pleading: all other phenomena are mere phenomena and only
consciousness is an "epiphenomenon"; all other emergent properties are
objectively observable and only consciousness is not; all other
existents are physically reducible and only consciousness is not; in
all other cases if A is claimed to be identical to B then knowledge of
A implies at least some knowledge about B and only with consciousness
that isn't the case. The only viable position is I think to propose, as
Chalmers does, that consciousness must be a fundamental principle of
physical reality, in which case we should start speaking of
"spirituphysical reality".
All your attempts to get around that simple example fall on self-
contradiction based on the pzombie fallacy that "conscious behavior" can
be performed by a non-conscious entity. Occam's razor will eliminate any
alternative explanations.
No such claims are needed for my argument. My argument here is that
there simply isn't any objective evidence for the existence of
consciousness and that therefore a consistent use of objectivity
implies solipsism, i.e. the denial of the existence of other peoples'
consciousness - or at the extreme the even more absurd notion that
personal consciousness does not exist. The fact that virtually all
people affirm the existence of theirs and other peoples'
consciousness shows that they do not in fact consistently use
objectivity. Which is quite ok, as the example of consciousness shows
that to consistently use objectivity is not an intellectually viable
option and that in some cases subjective evidence must be accepted as
valid evidence for rational thought.
If one should relax this rule and say "We should only believe in the
existence of something when it is directly perceived or when there is
objective evidence for it" then one can justify the existence of
consciousness by pointing out that one's own consciousness is directly
perceived, therefore it exists, and therefore consciousness in general
exists also. But how about the existence of other peoples'
consciousness? We don't perceive it directly and neither is there
objective evidence of it. Yet we know other peoples' consciousness
exists also - we are practically certain about that. So this form of
the rule doesn't work either.
It is not necessary to be able to observe "consciousness" directly.
Their behavior is the objective evidence of their consciousness.
Behavior is indeed objective evidence, but the best explanation for
that objective evidence is the presence of physical processes in the
brains that produce that behavior. The behavior of a cockroach also is
best explained by the presence of physical processes in its brain (yes,
they have brains) - and incidentally we have no idea whether
cockroaches are conscious beings or not.
How about: "We should only believe in the existence of something when
it is directly perceived or when there is evidence for it."? That's I
think the rule that rational thought should follow. But it's not
objective anymore. (And it makes you think what subjective evidence
there is for the existence of other peoples' consciousness.)
In short what I am claiming here is that objectivity directly leads to
the solipsistic view that one is the only conscious being there is.
Objectivity and non-solipsism are logically exclusive.
You may now once again stack piles upon piles of meaningless sophistry
in your attempts to disprove observable reality.
On the contrary, my personal view is that only observable reality is
truly real. That's why I consider that consciousness is the
fundamental aspect of reality.
.
|
|
|
| User: "Fred Stone" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
20 May 2006 04:43:32 PM |
|
|
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148162796.577496.39060@38g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
Fred Stone wrote:
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148027956.597785.121960@j33g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
There is no objective evidence of consciousness. In other words
there is no objective observation for which the existence of
consciousness is the best explanation. So the consciousness
hypothesis is not required for understanding any of our
observations of the physical universe. Yet consciousness exists -
we are absolutely certain of that - which shows that the rule "We
should only believe in the existence of something when there is
objective evidence for it " is wrong, as we have just found a
counterexample.
Of course there is an objective observation for which consciousness
is the best explanation. "Other people behave in ways similar to ways
that I behave, and I know that I am conscious.".
Yes, but the statement "I know I am conscious" is not an objective
statement you see. Actually there are some materialists who claim that
you are wrong in this belief, and that your consciousness is nothing
more than an illusion and does not really exist. To say "I know this
(because it's intuitively completely obvious to me)" is not objective;
after all some people justify their belief in God using exactly the
same language.
"I know that I am conscious" is, of course, the ultimate *subjective*
statement. That's not a problem at all.
But, as I explained in the initial post to this thread, I find it
entirely reasonable to relax the objectivity maxim and allow for
existential claims justified on direct conscious experience: "We
should only believe in the existence of something when it is directly
perceived or when there is objective evidence for it". So, as it
really is obvious to all of us, we are justified to believe in the
existence of our own consciousness even though there is no objective
evidence for it.
So you propose the following argument (let me know if I misrepresent
it):
1. I am a conscious being (i.e. my consciousness exists).
2. My behavior is objectively observable (i.e. objective evidence).
No. *I* observe my behavior, and I know myself to be conscious.
3. The best explanation for my behavior is that I am a conscious
being.
4. Other peoples' behavior is objectively observable.
Now we're getting somewhere. Their behavior is objectively observable
because they are not me.
5. Other peoples' behavior is so similar to mine that the best
explanation for it is that they too are conscious beings (i.e. their
consciousness exists).
6. Therefore other peoples' consciousness exists.
I think that's the argument we all really make - but modern science
has shown that there is a serious error in it. We know already enough
about cognition and neurophysiology that it is virtually certain that
in principle somebody who would study the physical processes in your
brain would be able to explain your conscious behavior much better
than you yourself with all your privileged access to the content of
your own conscious experience. So #3 above is false: The best
explanation for our behavior is not the presence of our consciousness
and whatever we directly know about it, but physical processes in our
brain.
But that's where you've confused the issue, since they are equating
those physical processes to consciousness. Which is exactly my point.
Those physical processes, executing on the hardware platform of the
brain *are* consciousness.
There is also a problem with #5. It's true that other peoples'
objectively observable behavior is similar, but it's not identical to
ours. Observing live bacteria in the microscope also strikes us as
somehow similar behavior to ours. Why are we then justified to claim
in the former case almost absolute certainty that other people are
conscious beings and in the later case almost absolute certainty that
microbes are not conscious beings?
Other peoples' behavior does not have to be identical to mine. Whether
or not live microbes are conscious beings is not relevant to the
argument that other humans can be observed to be conscious beings.
So, even though I agree that when thinking about this matter most of
us used your argument to justify our belief in other peoples'
consciousness, on closer inspection it does not hold water - even when
using the relaxed objectivity maxim.
No, your objections do not hold water. They still fail on the pzombie
contradiction.
Which is rather strange, especially to a person who believes in
objectivity and rationalism. In fact, there isn't any objective
evidence for consciousness: there is no observation that anybody can
independently validate and for which consciousness is the best
explanation. And even relaxing objectivity and accepting the obvious
truth of direct conscious experience we still cannot justify the
belief in other peoples' consciousness. That's why there is the
so-called Hard Problem of consciousness. And that's why some of the
most stringent materialists bite the bullet and conclude that there
must be something deeply wrong with our intuitive beliefs about
consciousness, and therefore propose, rather ludicrously, that
consciousness is an illusion (whatever that means in this context) or
even that it does not exist at all. Others have resorted to rather odd
ideas (often accompanied by the coining of new words) such as that
consciousness is an epiphenomenon, an emergent property, that it is a
irreducible physical phenomenon, or that it is identical to the
physical processes happening in our brains. Every one of these
positions is a case of special pleading: all other phenomena are mere
phenomena and only consciousness is an "epiphenomenon"; all other
emergent properties are objectively observable and only consciousness
is not; all other existents are physically reducible and only
consciousness is not; in all other cases if A is claimed to be
identical to B then knowledge of A implies at least some knowledge
about B and only with consciousness that isn't the case. The only
viable position is I think to propose, as Chalmers does, that
consciousness must be a fundamental principle of physical reality, in
which case we should start speaking of "spirituphysical reality".
All your attempts to get around that simple example fall on self-
contradiction based on the pzombie fallacy that "conscious behavior"
can be performed by a non-conscious entity. Occam's razor will
eliminate any alternative explanations.
No such claims are needed for my argument. My argument here is that
there simply isn't any objective evidence for the existence of
consciousness and that therefore a consistent use of objectivity
implies solipsism, i.e. the denial of the existence of other peoples'
consciousness - or at the extreme the even more absurd notion that
personal consciousness does not exist. The fact that virtually all
people affirm the existence of theirs and other peoples'
consciousness shows that they do not in fact consistently use
objectivity. Which is quite ok, as the example of consciousness shows
that to consistently use objectivity is not an intellectually viable
option and that in some cases subjective evidence must be accepted as
valid evidence for rational thought.
You haven't proved your case.
If one should relax this rule and say "We should only believe in
the existence of something when it is directly perceived or when
there is objective evidence for it" then one can justify the
existence of consciousness by pointing out that one's own
consciousness is directly perceived, therefore it exists, and
therefore consciousness in general exists also. But how about the
existence of other peoples' consciousness? We don't perceive it
directly and neither is there objective evidence of it. Yet we know
other peoples' consciousness exists also - we are practically
certain about that. So this form of the rule doesn't work either.
It is not necessary to be able to observe "consciousness" directly.
Their behavior is the objective evidence of their consciousness.
Behavior is indeed objective evidence, but the best explanation for
that objective evidence is the presence of physical processes in the
brains that produce that behavior. The behavior of a cockroach also is
best explained by the presence of physical processes in its brain
(yes, they have brains) - and incidentally we have no idea whether
cockroaches are conscious beings or not.
Whether cockroaches are conscious or not is irrelevant to the argument
that other humans than myself are observably conscious beings.
How about: "We should only believe in the existence of something
when it is directly perceived or when there is evidence for it."?
That's I think the rule that rational thought should follow. But
it's not objective anymore. (And it makes you think what subjective
evidence there is for the existence of other peoples'
consciousness.)
In short what I am claiming here is that objectivity directly leads
to the solipsistic view that one is the only conscious being there
is. Objectivity and non-solipsism are logically exclusive.
You may now once again stack piles upon piles of meaningless
sophistry in your attempts to disprove observable reality.
On the contrary, my personal view is that only observable reality is
truly real. That's why I consider that consciousness is the
fundamental aspect of reality.
Vast swathes of physical reality are not objectively observable and yet
can be deduced to exist by indirect means. Thus consciousness cannot be
fundamental to existence.
--
Fred Stone
aa# 1369
How can we connect the dots
if we cannot collect the dots?
*** Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com ***
.
|
|
|
| User: "Dianelos Georgoudis" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
21 May 2006 11:26:15 PM |
|
|
Fred Stone wrote:
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148162796.577496.39060@38g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
Fred Stone wrote:
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148027956.597785.121960@j33g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
There is no objective evidence of consciousness. In other words
there is no objective observation for which the existence of
consciousness is the best explanation. So the consciousness
hypothesis is not required for understanding any of our
observations of the physical universe. Yet consciousness exists -
we are absolutely certain of that - which shows that the rule "We
should only believe in the existence of something when there is
objective evidence for it " is wrong, as we have just found a
counterexample.
Of course there is an objective observation for which consciousness
is the best explanation. "Other people behave in ways similar to ways
that I behave, and I know that I am conscious.".
Yes, but the statement "I know I am conscious" is not an objective
statement you see. Actually there are some materialists who claim that
you are wrong in this belief, and that your consciousness is nothing
more than an illusion and does not really exist. To say "I know this
(because it's intuitively completely obvious to me)" is not objective;
after all some people justify their belief in God using exactly the
same language.
"I know that I am conscious" is, of course, the ultimate *subjective*
statement.
Right.
That's not a problem at all.
What do you mean? It is a problem in the sense that if you uphold
objectivity you are not allowed to use subjective statements in your
arguments. So either you relax objectivity (as I claim is reasonable)
or else you abstain from using subjective statements - you can't
have it both ways.
But, as I explained in the initial post to this thread, I find it
entirely reasonable to relax the objectivity maxim and allow for
existential claims justified on direct conscious experience: "We
should only believe in the existence of something when it is directly
perceived or when there is objective evidence for it". So, as it
really is obvious to all of us, we are justified to believe in the
existence of our own consciousness even though there is no objective
evidence for it.
So you propose the following argument (let me know if I misrepresent
it):
1. I am a conscious being (i.e. my consciousness exists).
2. My behavior is objectively observable (i.e. objective evidence).
No. *I* observe my behavior, and I know myself to be conscious.
You don't agree that your behavior is objectively observable? After
all, not only you but any other person can in principle observe it.
3. The best explanation for my behavior is that I am a conscious
being.
4. Other peoples' behavior is objectively observable.
Now we're getting somewhere. Their behavior is objectively observable
because they are not me.
Other peoples' behavior is objectively observable because you as well
as anybody else can in principle observe it.
5. Other peoples' behavior is so similar to mine that the best
explanation for it is that they too are conscious beings (i.e. their
consciousness exists).
6. Therefore other peoples' consciousness exists.
I think that's the argument we all really make - but modern science
has shown that there is a serious error in it. We know already enough
about cognition and neurophysiology that it is virtually certain that
in principle somebody who would study the physical processes in your
brain would be able to explain your conscious behavior much better
than you yourself with all your privileged access to the content of
your own conscious experience. So #3 above is false: The best
explanation for our behavior is not the presence of our consciousness
and whatever we directly know about it, but physical processes in our
brain.
But that's where you've confused the issue, since they are equating
those physical processes to consciousness. Which is exactly my point.
Those physical processes, executing on the hardware platform of the
brain *are* consciousness.
You believe that? What objective evidence do you have for this belief?
There is also a problem with #5. It's true that other peoples'
objectively observable behavior is similar, but it's not identical to
ours. Observing live bacteria in the microscope also strikes us as
somehow similar behavior to ours. Why are we then justified to claim
in the former case almost absolute certainty that other people are
conscious beings and in the later case almost absolute certainty that
microbes are not conscious beings?
Other peoples' behavior does not have to be identical to mine. Whether
or not live microbes are conscious beings is not relevant to the
argument that other humans can be observed to be conscious beings.
But it is, because what goes for the goose goes for the gander too. If
the objective observation that X's behavior is similar to ours
justifies the belief that X is a conscious being, then the objective
observation that Y's behavior is also similar to ours should justify
the belief that Y is a conscious being. But if you are not willing to
accept that Y is a conscious being than neither can you claim that X is
- to do so would be a case of special pleading.
So, even though I agree that when thinking about this matter most of
us used your argument to justify our belief in other peoples'
consciousness, on closer inspection it does not hold water - even when
using the relaxed objectivity maxim.
No, your objections do not hold water. They still fail on the pzombie
contradiction.
I did not speak of zombies; on the contrary my argument rests on the
fact that we all believe in the existence of other peoples'
consciousness, i.e. that they are not zombies. But maybe I
misunderstand your point. What exactly do you mean?
Which is rather strange, especially to a person who believes in
objectivity and rationalism. In fact, there isn't any objective
evidence for consciousness: there is no observation that anybody can
independently validate and for which consciousness is the best
explanation. And even relaxing objectivity and accepting the obvious
truth of direct conscious experience we still cannot justify the
belief in other peoples' consciousness. That's why there is the
so-called Hard Problem of consciousness. And that's why some of the
most stringent materialists bite the bullet and conclude that there
must be something deeply wrong with our intuitive beliefs about
consciousness, and therefore propose, rather ludicrously, that
consciousness is an illusion (whatever that means in this context) or
even that it does not exist at all. Others have resorted to rather odd
ideas (often accompanied by the coining of new words) such as that
consciousness is an epiphenomenon, an emergent property, that it is a
irreducible physical phenomenon, or that it is identical to the
physical processes happening in our brains. Every one of these
positions is a case of special pleading: all other phenomena are mere
phenomena and only consciousness is an "epiphenomenon"; all other
emergent properties are objectively observable and only consciousness
is not; all other existents are physically reducible and only
consciousness is not; in all other cases if A is claimed to be
identical to B then knowledge of A implies at least some knowledge
about B and only with consciousness that isn't the case. The only
viable position is I think to propose, as Chalmers does, that
consciousness must be a fundamental principle of physical reality, in
which case we should start speaking of "spirituphysical reality".
All your attempts to get around that simple example fall on self-
contradiction based on the pzombie fallacy that "conscious behavior"
can be performed by a non-conscious entity. Occam's razor will
eliminate any alternative explanations.
No such claims are needed for my argument. My argument here is that
there simply isn't any objective evidence for the existence of
consciousness and that therefore a consistent use of objectivity
implies solipsism, i.e. the denial of the existence of other peoples'
consciousness - or at the extreme the even more absurd notion that
personal consciousness does not exist. The fact that virtually all
people affirm the existence of theirs and other peoples'
consciousness shows that they do not in fact consistently use
objectivity. Which is quite ok, as the example of consciousness shows
that to consistently use objectivity is not an intellectually viable
option and that in some cases subjective evidence must be accepted as
valid evidence for rational thought.
You haven't proved your case.
My case is simple. It is logically impossible for all three
propositions to be true:
1. I do not believe in something unless there is objective evidence for
it.
2. I believe in the existence of other peoples' consciousness.
3. There is no objective evidence for the existence of other peoples'
consciousness.
I assume we agree so far as this is a matter of simple propositional
logic. So, in your personal case, which one of these three propositions
is false?
If one should relax this rule and say "We should only believe in
the existence of something when it is directly perceived or when
there is objective evidence for it" then one can justify the
existence of consciousness by pointing out that one's own
consciousness is directly perceived, therefore it exists, and
therefore consciousness in general exists also. But how about the
existence of other peoples' consciousness? We don't perceive it
directly and neither is there objective evidence of it. Yet we know
other peoples' consciousness exists also - we are practically
certain about that. So this form of the rule doesn't work either.
It is not necessary to be able to observe "consciousness" directly.
Their behavior is the objective evidence of their consciousness.
Behavior is indeed objective evidence, but the best explanation for
that objective evidence is the presence of physical processes in the
brains that produce that behavior. The behavior of a cockroach also is
best explained by the presence of physical processes in its brain
(yes, they have brains) - and incidentally we have no idea whether
cockroaches are conscious beings or not.
Whether cockroaches are conscious or not is irrelevant to the argument
that other humans than myself are observably conscious beings.
Actually it is. If you claim that there are objective means (i.e. means
that do not include any subjective criteria at all) to ascertain that
other people are conscious then the same criteria apply to cockroaches
too. To suggest otherwise is a clear case of special pleading.
How about: "We should only believe in the existence of something
when it is directly perceived or when there is evidence for it."?
That's I think the rule that rational thought should follow. But
it's not objective anymore. (And it makes you think what subjective
evidence there is for the existence of other peoples'
consciousness.)
In short what I am claiming here is that objectivity directly leads
to the solipsistic view that one is the only conscious being there
is. Objectivity and non-solipsism are logically exclusive.
You may now once again stack piles upon piles of meaningless
sophistry in your attempts to disprove observable reality.
On the contrary, my personal view is that only observable reality is
truly real. That's why I consider that consciousness is the
fundamental aspect of reality.
Vast swathes of physical reality are not objectively observable and yet
can be deduced to exist by indirect means.
Correct, but the existence of every single item barred none in this
vast swatch of physical reality is justified by objective evidence,
i.e. there exists objective evidence for which the existence of this
item is the best explanation.
Thus consciousness cannot be
fundamental to existence.
Tell that to those materialist philosophers (the well known David
Chalmers comes to mind) who have spend many years of their lives
thinking about the problem of consciousness and who have concluded that
we must regard consciousness as a fundamental principle of reality:
something that is unprovable, does not connect to anything else, and
yet clearly exists.
.
|
|
|
| User: "Fred Stone" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
22 May 2006 06:51:13 AM |
|
|
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148271975.704617.138660@38g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
Fred Stone wrote:
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148162796.577496.39060@38g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
Fred Stone wrote:
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148027956.597785.121960@j33g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
There is no objective evidence of consciousness. In other words
there is no objective observation for which the existence of
consciousness is the best explanation. So the consciousness
hypothesis is not required for understanding any of our
observations of the physical universe. Yet consciousness exists
- we are absolutely certain of that - which shows that the rule
"We should only believe in the existence of something when there
is objective evidence for it " is wrong, as we have just found a
counterexample.
Of course there is an objective observation for which
consciousness is the best explanation. "Other people behave in
ways similar to ways that I behave, and I know that I am
conscious.".
Yes, but the statement "I know I am conscious" is not an objective
statement you see. Actually there are some materialists who claim
that you are wrong in this belief, and that your consciousness is
nothing more than an illusion and does not really exist. To say "I
know this (because it's intuitively completely obvious to me)" is
not objective; after all some people justify their belief in God
using exactly the same language.
"I know that I am conscious" is, of course, the ultimate *subjective*
statement.
Right.
That's not a problem at all.
What do you mean? It is a problem in the sense that if you uphold
objectivity you are not allowed to use subjective statements in your
arguments. So either you relax objectivity (as I claim is reasonable)
or else you abstain from using subjective statements - you can't
have it both ways.
Of course I can have it both ways. *I* am doing the observing, so a
subjective observation about *myself* is acceptable to an objectivist.
That's the basis of introspection.
Now, if I were to accept one of *YOUR* subjective observations, *THAT*
would be a problem.
But, as I explained in the initial post to this thread, I find it
entirely reasonable to relax the objectivity maxim and allow for
existential claims justified on direct conscious experience: "We
should only believe in the existence of something when it is
directly perceived or when there is objective evidence for it". So,
as it really is obvious to all of us, we are justified to believe
in the existence of our own consciousness even though there is no
objective evidence for it.
So you propose the following argument (let me know if I
misrepresent it):
1. I am a conscious being (i.e. my consciousness exists).
2. My behavior is objectively observable (i.e. objective evidence).
No. *I* observe my behavior, and I know myself to be conscious.
You don't agree that your behavior is objectively observable? After
all, not only you but any other person can in principle observe it.
Of course, DG, but I'm doing the observing and the reasoning here.
3. The best explanation for my behavior is that I am a conscious
being.
4. Other peoples' behavior is objectively observable.
Now we're getting somewhere. Their behavior is objectively observable
because they are not me.
Other peoples' behavior is objectively observable because you as well
as anybody else can in principle observe it.
But that's not what makes it objective *to me*.
5. Other peoples' behavior is so similar to mine that the best
explanation for it is that they too are conscious beings (i.e.
their consciousness exists).
6. Therefore other peoples' consciousness exists.
I think that's the argument we all really make - but modern science
has shown that there is a serious error in it. We know already
enough about cognition and neurophysiology that it is virtually
certain that in principle somebody who would study the physical
processes in your brain would be able to explain your conscious
behavior much better than you yourself with all your privileged
access to the content of your own conscious experience. So #3 above
is false: The best explanation for our behavior is not the presence
of our consciousness and whatever we directly know about it, but
physical processes in our brain.
But that's where you've confused the issue, since they are equating
those physical processes to consciousness. Which is exactly my point.
Those physical processes, executing on the hardware platform of the
brain *are* consciousness.
You believe that? What objective evidence do you have for this belief?
The current state of neurophysiology and cognitive science, among
others.
There is also a problem with #5. It's true that other peoples'
objectively observable behavior is similar, but it's not identical
to ours. Observing live bacteria in the microscope also strikes us
as somehow similar behavior to ours. Why are we then justified to
claim in the former case almost absolute certainty that other
people are conscious beings and in the later case almost absolute
certainty that microbes are not conscious beings?
Other peoples' behavior does not have to be identical to mine.
Whether or not live microbes are conscious beings is not relevant to
the argument that other humans can be observed to be conscious
beings.
But it is, because what goes for the goose goes for the gander too. If
the objective observation that X's behavior is similar to ours
justifies the belief that X is a conscious being, then the objective
observation that Y's behavior is also similar to ours should justify
the belief that Y is a conscious being. But if you are not willing to
accept that Y is a conscious being than neither can you claim that X
is - to do so would be a case of special pleading.
Now don't go putting abstract X's and Y's in where you had nice specific
Humans and Microbes before, DG, that's more bafflegabbian distraction
and I'm going to call you on it when you do it. Now explain why
Microbial behavior is so similar to Human behavior that no Human could
possibly make a distinction between Microbial behavior and that of
Humans.
So, even though I agree that when thinking about this matter most
of us used your argument to justify our belief in other peoples'
consciousness, on closer inspection it does not hold water - even
when using the relaxed objectivity maxim.
No, your objections do not hold water. They still fail on the pzombie
contradiction.
I did not speak of zombies; on the contrary my argument rests on the
fact that we all believe in the existence of other peoples'
consciousness, i.e. that they are not zombies. But maybe I
misunderstand your point. What exactly do you mean?
The zombie argument is that a non-conscious zombie could,
hypothetically, produce the same behavior as a conscious human. But that
runs into the contradiction of "conscious behavior" being produced by a
non-conscious actor.
Which is rather strange, especially to a person who believes in
objectivity and rationalism. In fact, there isn't any objective
evidence for consciousness: there is no observation that anybody
can independently validate and for which consciousness is the best
explanation. And even relaxing objectivity and accepting the
obvious truth of direct conscious experience we still cannot
justify the belief in other peoples' consciousness. That's why
there is the so-called Hard Problem of consciousness. And that's
why some of the most stringent materialists bite the bullet and
conclude that there must be something deeply wrong with our
intuitive beliefs about consciousness, and therefore propose,
rather ludicrously, that consciousness is an illusion (whatever
that means in this context) or even that it does not exist at all.
Others have resorted to rather odd ideas (often accompanied by the
coining of new words) such as that consciousness is an
epiphenomenon, an emergent property, that it is a irreducible
physical phenomenon, or that it is identical to the physical
processes happening in our brains. Every one of these positions is
a case of special pleading: all other phenomena are mere phenomena
and only consciousness is an "epiphenomenon"; all other emergent
properties are objectively observable and only consciousness is
not; all other existents are physically reducible and only
consciousness is not; in all other cases if A is claimed to be
identical to B then knowledge of A implies at least some knowledge
about B and only with consciousness that isn't the case. The only
viable position is I think to propose, as Chalmers does, that
consciousness must be a fundamental principle of physical reality,
in which case we should start speaking of "spirituphysical
reality".
All your attempts to get around that simple example fall on self-
contradiction based on the pzombie fallacy that "conscious
behavior" can be performed by a non-conscious entity. Occam's
razor will eliminate any alternative explanations.
No such claims are needed for my argument. My argument here is that
there simply isn't any objective evidence for the existence of
consciousness and that therefore a consistent use of objectivity
implies solipsism, i.e. the denial of the existence of other
peoples' consciousness - or at the extreme the even more absurd
notion that personal consciousness does not exist. The fact that
virtually all people affirm the existence of theirs and other
peoples' consciousness shows that they do not in fact consistently
use objectivity. Which is quite ok, as the example of consciousness
shows that to consistently use objectivity is not an intellectually
viable option and that in some cases subjective evidence must be
accepted as valid evidence for rational thought.
You haven't proved your case.
My case is simple. It is logically impossible for all three
propositions to be true:
1. I do not believe in something unless there is objective evidence
for it.
2. I believe in the existence of other peoples' consciousness.
3. There is no objective evidence for the existence of other peoples'
consciousness.
I assume we agree so far as this is a matter of simple propositional
logic. So, in your personal case, which one of these three
propositions is false?
Number 3 is the problem here. That's what I've been trying to get past
all your bafflegab diversions.
If one should relax this rule and say "We should only believe in
the existence of something when it is directly perceived or when
there is objective evidence for it" then one can justify the
existence of consciousness by pointing out that one's own
consciousness is directly perceived, therefore it exists, and
therefore consciousness in general exists also. But how about
the existence of other peoples' consciousness? We don't perceive
it directly and neither is there objective evidence of it. Yet
we know other peoples' consciousness exists also - we are
practically certain about that. So this form of the rule doesn't
work either.
It is not necessary to be able to observe "consciousness"
directly. Their behavior is the objective evidence of their
consciousness.
Behavior is indeed objective evidence, but the best explanation for
that objective evidence is the presence of physical processes in
the brains that produce that behavior. The behavior of a cockroach
also is best explained by the presence of physical processes in its
brain (yes, they have brains) - and incidentally we have no idea
whether cockroaches are conscious beings or not.
Whether cockroaches are conscious or not is irrelevant to the
argument that other humans than myself are observably conscious
beings.
Actually it is. If you claim that there are objective means (i.e.
means that do not include any subjective criteria at all) to ascertain
that other people are conscious then the same criteria apply to
cockroaches too. To suggest otherwise is a clear case of special
pleading.
Sorry, DG, your definition of "objective means" is a miserable failure.
How about: "We should only believe in the existence of something
when it is directly perceived or when there is evidence for
it."? That's I think the rule that rational thought should
follow. But it's not objective anymore. (And it makes you think
what subjective evidence there is for the existence of other
peoples' consciousness.)
In short what I am claiming here is that objectivity directly
leads to the solipsistic view that one is the only conscious
being there is. Objectivity and non-solipsism are logically
exclusive.
You may now once again stack piles upon piles of meaningless
sophistry in your attempts to disprove observable reality.
On the contrary, my personal view is that only observable reality
is truly real. That's why I consider that consciousness is the
fundamental aspect of reality.
Vast swathes of physical reality are not objectively observable and
yet can be deduced to exist by indirect means.
Correct, but the existence of every single item barred none in this
vast swatch of physical reality is justified by objective evidence,
i.e. there exists objective evidence for which the existence of this
item is the best explanation.
But "justified by objective evidence" is not the same as "objectively
observable". The latter is repeatably observable phenomena; the former
is logic and reasoning based on those observations.
Thus consciousness cannot be
fundamental to existence.
Tell that to those materialist philosophers (the well known David
Chalmers comes to mind) who have spend many years of their lives
thinking about the problem of consciousness and who have concluded
that we must regard consciousness as a fundamental principle of
reality: something that is unprovable, does not connect to anything
else, and yet clearly exists.
Since there is an obvious contradiction in "something that is unprovable
yet clearly exists" I'd say that there isn't much point in talking to
"the well known David Chalmers" about anything. He sounds like another
practitioner of bafflegab like yourself.
--
Fred Stone
aa# 1369
How can we connect the dots
if we cannot collect the dots?
*** Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com ***
.
|
|
|
| User: "Emmanual Kann" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
23 May 2006 04:28:23 AM |
|
|
An Mon, 22 May 2006 11:51:13 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Of course I can have it both ways. *I* am doing the observing, so a
subjective observation about *myself* is acceptable to an objectivist.
That's the basis of introspection.
Now, if I were to accept one of *YOUR* subjective observations, *THAT*
would be a problem.
That's silly. Even other people's subjective observations are objective
evidence.
.
|
|
|
| User: "Fred Stone" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
23 May 2006 05:21:18 AM |
|
|
Emmanual Kann <kann@keinspam.de> wrote in
news:pan.2006.05.23.09.28.17.300689@keinspam.de:
An Mon, 22 May 2006 11:51:13 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Of course I can have it both ways. *I* am doing the observing, so a
subjective observation about *myself* is acceptable to an objectivist.
That's the basis of introspection.
Now, if I were to accept one of *YOUR* subjective observations, *THAT*
would be a problem.
That's silly. Even other people's subjective observations are objective
evidence.
They're only objective evidence of that other person's subjective mental
state.
--
Fred Stone
aa# 1369
How can we connect the dots
if we cannot collect the dots?
*** Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com ***
.
|
|
|
| User: "Emmanual Kann" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
23 May 2006 10:43:07 AM |
|
|
An Tue, 23 May 2006 10:21:18 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Emmanual Kann <kann@keinspam.de> wrote in
news:pan.2006.05.23.09.28.17.300689@keinspam.de:
An Mon, 22 May 2006 11:51:13 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Of course I can have it both ways. *I* am doing the observing, so a
subjective observation about *myself* is acceptable to an objectivist.
That's the basis of introspection.
Now, if I were to accept one of *YOUR* subjective observations, *THAT*
would be a problem.
That's silly. Even other people's subjective observations are objective
evidence.
They're only objective evidence of that other person's subjective mental
state.
Only.
.
|
|
|
| User: "Dianelos Georgoudis" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
26 May 2006 01:04:51 AM |
|
|
Emmanual Kann wrote:
An Tue, 23 May 2006 10:21:18 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Emmanual Kann <kann@keinspam.de> wrote in
news:pan.2006.05.23.09.28.17.300689@keinspam.de:
An Mon, 22 May 2006 11:51:13 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Of course I can have it both ways. *I* am doing the observing, so a
subjective observation about *myself* is acceptable to an objectivist.
That's the basis of introspection.
Now, if I were to accept one of *YOUR* subjective observations, *THAT*
would be a problem.
That's silly. Even other people's subjective observations are objective
evidence.
They're only objective evidence of that other person's subjective mental
state.
Only.
Yes, only. They are objective evidence for the belief that the other
person's brain is in a particular physical state. They are not
objective evidence for the belief that the other person's brain is
having an actual conscious experience.
.
|
|
|
| User: "Fred Stone" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
26 May 2006 05:37:39 AM |
|
|
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148623490.934772.87690@j73g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
Emmanual Kann wrote:
An Tue, 23 May 2006 10:21:18 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Emmanual Kann <kann@keinspam.de> wrote in
news:pan.2006.05.23.09.28.17.300689@keinspam.de:
An Mon, 22 May 2006 11:51:13 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Of course I can have it both ways. *I* am doing the observing, so
a subjective observation about *myself* is acceptable to an
objectivist. That's the basis of introspection.
Now, if I were to accept one of *YOUR* subjective observations,
*THAT* would be a problem.
That's silly. Even other people's subjective observations are
objective evidence.
They're only objective evidence of that other person's subjective
mental state.
Only.
Yes, only. They are objective evidence for the belief that the other
person's brain is in a particular physical state. They are not
objective evidence for the belief that the other person's brain is
having an actual conscious experience.
By definition, any evidence of another person's mental state is evidence
of that person's consciousness. If that evidence is also evidence that
their brain is in a particular physical state then that is proof that
the physical state is equivalent to having a conscious experience.
--
Fred Stone
aa# 1369
"No, Congressman, Checks and Balances aren't about bribes."
*** Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com ***
.
|
|
|
| User: "Dianelos Georgoudis" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
29 May 2006 01:13:16 PM |
|
|
Fred Stone wrote:
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148623490.934772.87690@j73g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
Emmanual Kann wrote:
An Tue, 23 May 2006 10:21:18 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Emmanual Kann <kann@keinspam.de> wrote in
news:pan.2006.05.23.09.28.17.300689@keinspam.de:
An Mon, 22 May 2006 11:51:13 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Of course I can have it both ways. *I* am doing the observing, so
a subjective observation about *myself* is acceptable to an
objectivist. That's the basis of introspection.
Now, if I were to accept one of *YOUR* subjective observations,
*THAT* would be a problem.
That's silly. Even other people's subjective observations are
objective evidence.
They're only objective evidence of that other person's subjective
mental state.
Only.
Yes, only. They are objective evidence for the belief that the other
person's brain is in a particular physical state. They are not
objective evidence for the belief that the other person's brain is
having an actual conscious experience.
By definition, any evidence of another person's mental state is evidence
of that person's consciousness. If that evidence is also evidence that
their brain is in a particular physical state then that is proof that
the physical state is equivalent to having a conscious experience.
There is no "evidence of another person's mental state" - there is only
evidence of how people speak about having conscious experiences. So,
the scientist would tell you that as the existence of particular
processes in the brain is the best explanation for all human behavior
(including for how they describe themselves having conscious
experiences) you don't need to hypothesize the existence of
consciousness in the first place. Not when you do science and therefore
strictly follow the objectivity criterion.
.
|
|
|
| User: "Fred Stone" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
29 May 2006 12:41:27 PM |
|
|
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148926396.473562.134010@i39g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
Fred Stone wrote:
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148623490.934772.87690@j73g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
Emmanual Kann wrote:
An Tue, 23 May 2006 10:21:18 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Emmanual Kann <kann@keinspam.de> wrote in
news:pan.2006.05.23.09.28.17.300689@keinspam.de:
An Mon, 22 May 2006 11:51:13 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Of course I can have it both ways. *I* am doing the observing,
so a subjective observation about *myself* is acceptable to an
objectivist. That's the basis of introspection.
Now, if I were to accept one of *YOUR* subjective
observations, *THAT* would be a problem.
That's silly. Even other people's subjective observations are
objective evidence.
They're only objective evidence of that other person's
subjective mental state.
Only.
Yes, only. They are objective evidence for the belief that the
other person's brain is in a particular physical state. They are
not objective evidence for the belief that the other person's brain
is having an actual conscious experience.
By definition, any evidence of another person's mental state is
evidence of that person's consciousness. If that evidence is also
evidence that their brain is in a particular physical state then that
is proof that the physical state is equivalent to having a conscious
experience.
There is no "evidence of another person's mental state" - there is
only evidence of how people speak about having conscious experiences.
Begging the question. Equivocation.
So, the scientist would tell you that as the existence of particular
processes in the brain is the best explanation for all human behavior
(including for how they describe themselves having conscious
experiences) you don't need to hypothesize the existence of
consciousness in the first place. Not when you do science and
therefore strictly follow the objectivity criterion.
I see that DG is back to the Fallacy ad Nauseam.
--
Fred Stone
aa# 1369
"How do you get peace, love and understanding? First of all you have to
find all the bad people. Then you kill them." -- Ted Nugent
*** Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com ***
.
|
|
|
|
|
|
| User: "Emmanual Kann" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
26 May 2006 03:48:33 AM |
|
|
An Thu, 25 May 2006 23:04:51 -0700, Dianelos Georgoudis hat geschreibt:
Emmanual Kann wrote:
An Tue, 23 May 2006 10:21:18 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Emmanual Kann <kann@keinspam.de> wrote in
news:pan.2006.05.23.09.28.17.300689@keinspam.de:
An Mon, 22 May 2006 11:51:13 +0000, Fred Stone hat geschreibt:
Of course I can have it both ways. *I* am doing the observing, so a
subjective observation about *myself* is acceptable to an objectivist.
That's the basis of introspection.
Now, if I were to accept one of *YOUR* subjective observations, *THAT*
would be a problem.
That's silly. Even other people's subjective observations are objective
evidence.
They're only objective evidence of that other person's subjective mental
state.
Only.
Yes, only. They are objective evidence for the belief that the other
person's brain is in a particular physical state.
That state being consciousness.
They are not
objective evidence for the belief that the other person's brain is
having an actual conscious experience.
Only if they believe that consciousness doesn't exist. In that case there
would be no evidence one could provide to demonstrate it because it
doesn't exist.
.
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
| User: "Dianelos Georgoudis" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
22 May 2006 05:22:07 PM |
|
|
Fred Stone wrote:
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148271975.704617.138660@38g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
Fred Stone wrote:
[snip]
"I know that I am conscious" is, of course, the ultimate *subjective*
statement.
Right.
That's not a problem at all.
What do you mean? It is a problem in the sense that if you uphold
objectivity you are not allowed to use subjective statements in your
arguments. So either you relax objectivity (as I claim is reasonable)
or else you abstain from using subjective statements - you can't
have it both ways.
Of course I can have it both ways. *I* am doing the observing, so a
subjective observation about *myself* is acceptable to an objectivist.
That's the basis of introspection.
Well, using your argument theists could claim that they found
incontrovertible evidence for the existence of God in their subjective
observations about themselves, which is an acceptable method to an
objectivist; it's the basis of introspection.
Now, if I were to accept one of *YOUR* subjective observations, *THAT*
would be a problem.
Ah, but that wouldn't be a problem for the abovementioned theists. They
could still claim that, according to your logic, their religious
beliefs are as objective as your belief that you are a conscious being.
You see? You cannot mix subjective evidence into an objective argument
and still claim that it is objective.
[snip]
I think that's the argument we all really make - but modern science
has shown that there is a serious error in it. We know already
enough about cognition and neurophysiology that it is virtually
certain that in principle somebody who would study the physical
processes in your brain would be able to explain your conscious
behavior much better than you yourself with all your privileged
access to the content of your own conscious experience. So #3 above
is false: The best explanation for our behavior is not the presence
of our consciousness and whatever we directly know about it, but
physical processes in our brain.
But that's where you've confused the issue, since they are equating
those physical processes to consciousness. Which is exactly my point.
Those physical processes, executing on the hardware platform of the
brain *are* consciousness.
You believe that? What objective evidence do you have for this belief?
The current state of neurophysiology and cognitive science, among
others.
Ah, but virtually all of the findings of neurophysiology and cognitive
science are not about consciousness at all; they are about human
behavior - simply because that is what is objectively observable, and
the scientific method requires the presence of objectively observable
evidence. Actually I know of no findings in these scientific fields in
the sense that consciousness is identical to physical processes in the
brain. Can you actually suggest any, or are you just assuming that
there must be some?
But let's suppose there are some articles or books in these fields that
suggest this, and that the fact that these articles and books exist are
objective evidence. But this objective evidence only evidences their
writers' beliefs, not that these beliefs are true. Just the fact that
something is printed does not make it true. But maybe that's not what
you are saying. Maybe you are saying that those who claim that
consciousness is identical to physical processes in the brain know of
objective evidence for that belief. Could be. So what is that objective
evidence?
You see, it's not acceptable to say "I don't know personally what
objective evidence justifies what I just claimed, but I trust that
these very knowledgeable people know" - that's called the logical
fallacy of "Appeal to Authority), see:
http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/mathew/logic.html#authority
There is also a problem with #5. It's true that other peoples'
objectively observable behavior is similar, but it's not identical
to ours. Observing live bacteria in the microscope also strikes us
as somehow similar behavior to ours. Why are we then justified to
claim in the former case almost absolute certainty that other
people are conscious beings and in the later case almost absolute
certainty that microbes are not conscious beings?
Other peoples' behavior does not have to be identical to mine.
Whether or not live microbes are conscious beings is not relevant to
the argument that other humans can be observed to be conscious
beings.
But it is, because what goes for the goose goes for the gander too. If
the objective observation that X's behavior is similar to ours
justifies the belief that X is a conscious being, then the objective
observation that Y's behavior is also similar to ours should justify
the belief that Y is a conscious being. But if you are not willing to
accept that Y is a conscious being than neither can you claim that X
is - to do so would be a case of special pleading.
Now don't go putting abstract X's and Y's in where you had nice specific
Humans and Microbes before, DG, that's more bafflegabbian distraction
and I'm going to call you on it when you do it. Now explain why
Microbial behavior is so similar to Human behavior that no Human could
possibly make a distinction between Microbial behavior and that of
Humans.
No, of course microbes' behavior is much less similar to mine than
other peoples' behavior. But even microbes' behavior displays some
similarity. In between these extremes there are many other organisms
that display more and more similarity to our behavior. So, as an
objectivist, where do you suggest we draw the objective line that
separates that behavior that is sufficiently similar to ours to justify
the belief that the respective organisms are conscious beings from that
behavior that is not anymore sufficiently similar to ours in which case
the respective organisms are not conscious beings?
So, even though I agree that when thinking about this matter most
of us used your argument to justify our belief in other peoples'
consciousness, on closer inspection it does not hold water - even
when using the relaxed objectivity maxim.
No, your objections do not hold water. They still fail on the pzombie
contradiction.
I did not speak of zombies; on the contrary my argument rests on the
fact that we all believe in the existence of other peoples'
consciousness, i.e. that they are not zombies. But maybe I
misunderstand your point. What exactly do you mean?
The zombie argument is that a non-conscious zombie could,
hypothetically, produce the same behavior as a conscious human. But that
runs into the contradiction of "conscious behavior" being produced by a
non-conscious actor.
Well, maybe, but that's not my argument. My argument is that as there
is not objective evidence for the consciousness of other people then,
according to objectivity, we should not believe that other people are
conscious beings.
[snip]
You haven't proved your case.
My case is simple. It is logically impossible for all three
propositions to be true:
1. I do not believe in something unless there is objective evidence
for it.
2. I believe in the existence of other peoples' consciousness.
3. There is no objective evidence for the existence of other peoples'
consciousness.
I assume we agree so far as this is a matter of simple propositional
logic. So, in your personal case, which one of these three
propositions is false?
Number 3 is the problem here. That's what I've been trying to get past
all your bafflegab diversions.
Well, what is then the objective evidence for which the existence of
consciousness rather than the existence of physical processes happening
in our brain is the best explanation? You still haven't given one
concrete example, so, if I may say so, it seems to me it's you who is
using bafflegab (nice word!) diversions.
[snip]
You may now once again stack piles upon piles of meaningless
sophistry in your attempts to disprove observable reality.
On the contrary, my personal view is that only observable reality
is truly real. That's why I consider that consciousness is the
fundamental aspect of reality.
Vast swathes of physical reality are not objectively observable and
yet can be deduced to exist by indirect means.
Correct, but the existence of every single item barred none in this
vast swatch of physical reality is justified by objective evidence,
i.e. there exists objective evidence for which the existence of this
item is the best explanation.
But "justified by objective evidence" is not the same as "objectively
observable". The latter is repeatably observable phenomena; the former
is logic and reasoning based on those observations.
Exactly right. And my claim is that the belief in the existence of
consciousness is not justified by objective evidence (or in other
words, that there is no objective evidence for the existence of
consciousness).
Thus consciousness cannot be
fundamental to existence.
Tell that to those materialist philosophers (the well known David
Chalmers comes to mind) who have spend many years of their lives
thinking about the problem of consciousness and who have concluded
that we must regard consciousness as a fundamental principle of
reality: something that is unprovable, does not connect to anything
else, and yet clearly exists.
Since there is an obvious contradiction in "something that is unprovable
yet clearly exists" I'd say that there isn't much point in talking to
"the well known David Chalmers" about anything. He sounds like another
practitioner of bafflegab like yourself.
Actually he is widely considered as one of the brightest people in the
field. See his article "Facing up to the Problem of Consciousness"
here: http://consc.net/papers/facing.html
.
|
|
|
| User: "Fred Stone" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
22 May 2006 04:55:26 PM |
|
|
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148336527.408399.233240@i40g2000cwc.googlegroups.com:
Fred Stone wrote:
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148271975.704617.138660@38g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
Fred Stone wrote:
[snip]
"I know that I am conscious" is, of course, the ultimate
*subjective* statement.
Right.
That's not a problem at all.
What do you mean? It is a problem in the sense that if you uphold
objectivity you are not allowed to use subjective statements in
your arguments. So either you relax objectivity (as I claim is
reasonable) or else you abstain from using subjective statements -
you can't have it both ways.
Of course I can have it both ways. *I* am doing the observing, so a
subjective observation about *myself* is acceptable to an
objectivist. That's the basis of introspection.
Well, using your argument theists could claim that they found
incontrovertible evidence for the existence of God in their subjective
observations about themselves, which is an acceptable method to an
objectivist; it's the basis of introspection.
I would be willing to agree with them that their God is a subjective
mental state.
Now, if I were to accept one of *YOUR* subjective observations,
*THAT* would be a problem.
Ah, but that wouldn't be a problem for the abovementioned theists.
They could still claim that, according to your logic, their religious
beliefs are as objective as your belief that you are a conscious
being.
They'd be right to claim that, and I would agree with them that their
God was a subjective mental state.
You see? You cannot mix subjective evidence into an objective argument
and still claim that it is objective.
Nonsense, DG, of course you can mix it in, as long as you understand
what you're doing.
[snip]
I think that's the argument we all really make - but modern
science has shown that there is a serious error in it. We know
already enough about cognition and neurophysiology that it is
virtually certain that in principle somebody who would study the
physical processes in your brain would be able to explain your
conscious behavior much better than you yourself with all your
privileged access to the content of your own conscious
experience. So #3 above is false: The best explanation for our
behavior is not the presence of our consciousness and whatever
we directly know about it, but physical processes in our brain.
But that's where you've confused the issue, since they are
equating those physical processes to consciousness. Which is
exactly my point. Those physical processes, executing on the
hardware platform of the brain *are* consciousness.
You believe that? What objective evidence do you have for this
belief?
The current state of neurophysiology and cognitive science, among
others.
Ah, but virtually all of the findings of neurophysiology and cognitive
science are not about consciousness at all; they are about human
behavior - simply because that is what is objectively observable, and
the scientific method requires the presence of objectively observable
evidence. Actually I know of no findings in these scientific fields in
the sense that consciousness is identical to physical processes in the
brain. Can you actually suggest any, or are you just assuming that
there must be some?
I just told you where to look, go there and do the research. The subject
is far too deep for this forum and I'm not about to discuss it with you.
But let's suppose there are some articles or books in these fields
that suggest this, and that the fact that these articles and books
exist are objective evidence. But this objective evidence only
evidences their writers' beliefs, not that these beliefs are true.
Just the fact that something is printed does not make it true. But
maybe that's not what you are saying. Maybe you are saying that those
who claim that consciousness is identical to physical processes in the
brain know of objective evidence for that belief. Could be. So what is
that objective evidence?
You see, it's not acceptable to say "I don't know personally what
objective evidence justifies what I just claimed, but I trust that
these very knowledgeable people know" - that's called the logical
fallacy of "Appeal to Authority), see:
http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/mathew/logic.html#authority
Ho hum. Yawn.
There is also a problem with #5. It's true that other peoples'
objectively observable behavior is similar, but it's not
identical to ours. Observing live bacteria in the microscope
also strikes us as somehow similar behavior to ours. Why are we
then justified to claim in the former case almost absolute
certainty that other people are conscious beings and in the
later case almost absolute certainty that microbes are not
conscious beings?
Other peoples' behavior does not have to be identical to mine.
Whether or not live microbes are conscious beings is not relevant
to the argument that other humans can be observed to be conscious
beings.
But it is, because what goes for the goose goes for the gander too.
If the objective observation that X's behavior is similar to ours
justifies the belief that X is a conscious being, then the
objective observation that Y's behavior is also similar to ours
should justify the belief that Y is a conscious being. But if you
are not willing to accept that Y is a conscious being than neither
can you claim that X is - to do so would be a case of special
pleading.
Now don't go putting abstract X's and Y's in where you had nice
specific Humans and Microbes before, DG, that's more bafflegabbian
distraction and I'm going to call you on it when you do it. Now
explain why Microbial behavior is so similar to Human behavior that
no Human could possibly make a distinction between Microbial behavior
and that of Humans.
No, of course microbes' behavior is much less similar to mine than
other peoples' behavior. But even microbes' behavior displays some
similarity. In between these extremes there are many other organisms
that display more and more similarity to our behavior. So, as an
objectivist, where do you suggest we draw the objective line that
separates that behavior that is sufficiently similar to ours to
justify the belief that the respective organisms are conscious beings
from that behavior that is not anymore sufficiently similar to ours in
which case the respective organisms are not conscious beings?
I'm not interested in drawing those lines, DG. That's your job, since
you raised the objection. My argument is simply that other humans are
conscious.
So, even though I agree that when thinking about this matter
most of us used your argument to justify our belief in other
peoples' consciousness, on closer inspection it does not hold
water - even when using the relaxed objectivity maxim.
No, your objections do not hold water. They still fail on the
pzombie contradiction.
I did not speak of zombies; on the contrary my argument rests on
the fact that we all believe in the existence of other peoples'
consciousness, i.e. that they are not zombies. But maybe I
misunderstand your point. What exactly do you mean?
The zombie argument is that a non-conscious zombie could,
hypothetically, produce the same behavior as a conscious human. But
that runs into the contradiction of "conscious behavior" being
produced by a non-conscious actor.
Well, maybe, but that's not my argument. My argument is that as there
is not objective evidence for the consciousness of other people then,
according to objectivity, we should not believe that other people are
conscious beings.
Your argument is not logically coherent for the reasons I've already
given.
[snip]
You haven't proved your case.
My case is simple. It is logically impossible for all three
propositions to be true:
1. I do not believe in something unless there is objective evidence
for it.
2. I believe in the existence of other peoples' consciousness.
3. There is no objective evidence for the existence of other
peoples' consciousness.
I assume we agree so far as this is a matter of simple
propositional logic. So, in your personal case, which one of these
three propositions is false?
Number 3 is the problem here. That's what I've been trying to get
past all your bafflegab diversions.
Well, what is then the objective evidence for which the existence of
consciousness rather than the existence of physical processes
happening in our brain is the best explanation? You still haven't
given one concrete example, so, if I may say so, it seems to me it's
you who is using bafflegab (nice word!) diversions.
The physical processes in the brain are the consciousness. The two
cannot be separated.
[snip]
You may now once again stack piles upon piles of meaningless
sophistry in your attempts to disprove observable reality.
On the contrary, my personal view is that only observable
reality is truly real. That's why I consider that consciousness
is the fundamental aspect of reality.
Vast swathes of physical reality are not objectively observable
and yet can be deduced to exist by indirect means.
Correct, but the existence of every single item barred none in this
vast swatch of physical reality is justified by objective evidence,
i.e. there exists objective evidence for which the existence of
this item is the best explanation.
But "justified by objective evidence" is not the same as "objectively
observable". The latter is repeatably observable phenomena; the
former is logic and reasoning based on those observations.
Exactly right. And my claim is that the belief in the existence of
consciousness is not justified by objective evidence (or in other
words, that there is no objective evidence for the existence of
consciousness).
Odd then that you cite a paper that disagrees with you.
Thus consciousness cannot be
fundamental to existence.
Tell that to those materialist philosophers (the well known David
Chalmers comes to mind) who have spend many years of their lives
thinking about the problem of consciousness and who have concluded
that we must regard consciousness as a fundamental principle of
reality: something that is unprovable, does not connect to anything
else, and yet clearly exists.
Since there is an obvious contradiction in "something that is
unprovable yet clearly exists" I'd say that there isn't much point in
talking to "the well known David Chalmers" about anything. He sounds
like another practitioner of bafflegab like yourself.
Actually he is widely considered as one of the brightest people in the
field. See his article "Facing up to the Problem of Consciousness"
here: http://consc.net/papers/facing.html
Interesting. Nothing in that paper rules out my simplification of saying
that the physical processes of the brain *are* consciousness without
specific understanding of *which* processes or how they work.
I was particularly struck by this comment: "Given the coherence between
consciousness and awareness, it follows that a mechanism of awareness
will itself be a correlate of conscious experience. The question of just
which mechanisms in the brain govern global availability is an empirical
one; perhaps there are many such mechanisms. But if we accept the
coherence principle, we have reason to believe that the processes that
explain awareness will at the same time be part of the basis of
consciousness."
--
Fred Stone
aa# 1369
How can we connect the dots
if we cannot collect the dots?
*** Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com ***
.
|
|
|
|
| User: "Dianelos Georgoudis" |
|
| Title: Re: objectivity found wanting? |
26 May 2006 04:35:08 AM |
|
|
Fred Stone wrote:
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148336527.408399.233240@i40g2000cwc.googlegroups.com:
Fred Stone wrote:
"Dianelos Georgoudis" <dianelos@tecapro.com> wrote in
news:1148271975.704617.138660@38g2000cwa.googlegroups.com:
Fred Stone wrote:
[snip]
"I know that I am conscious" is, of course, the ultimate
*subjective* statement.
Right.
That's not a problem at all.
What do you mean? It is a problem in the sense that if you uphold
objectivity you are not allowed to use subjective statements in
your arguments. So either you relax objectivity (as I claim is
reasonable) or else you abstain from using subjective statements -
you can't have it both ways.
Of course I can have it both ways. *I* am doing the observing, so a
subjective observation about *myself* is acceptable to an
objectivist. That's the basis of introspection.
Well, using your argument theists could claim that they found
incontrovertible evidence for the existence of God in their subjective
observations about themselves, which is an acceptable method to an
objectivist; it's the basis of introspection.
I would be willing to agree with them that their God is a subjective
mental state.
Now, if I were to accept one of *YOUR* subjective observations,
*THAT* would be a problem.
Ah, but that wouldn't be a problem for the abovementioned theists.
They could still claim that, according to your logic, their religious
beliefs are as objective as your belief that you are a conscious
being.
They'd be right to claim that, and I would agree with them that their
God was a subjective mental state.
You said that you justify some beliefs of yours on introspection, and
that introspection (i.e. thinking about one's subjective experiences)
is a valid as well as objective method. I agreed that introspection is
a valid method but pointed out that you cannot call introspection
"objective". What goes for the goose goes for the gander: Both you and
some theists justify some beliefs on introspection; so in order to be
consistent we should either call all such beliefs subjective or
objective; it won't do that you call your own beliefs based on
introspection "objective" and other peoples' beliefs based on
introspection "subjective". It's not particularly relevant, but I
suggest we follow common usage and call "subjective" all beliefs based
(at least partially) or introspection.
Now you are absolutely certain that your consciousness exists even
though it's a subjective belief. And, as I have long explained in this
thread, like or not, there is no objective evidence for the existence
of other peoples' consciousness (after all there is no objective
evidence for your own consciousness and that's why you base that belief
on introspection). Therefore the belief that other peoples'
consciousness exists is subjective too and even so we are all
practically absolutely certain about this subjective belief. So the
claim "No reasonable person can be certain about a subjective belief"
is false, because we have just found two counterexamples. So it's
unreasonable (and rather hypocritical) when atheists accuse theists of
their certainty by pointing out that these are subjective beliefs.
You see? You cannot mix subjective evidence into an objective argument
| | | | | | |