OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question



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Topic: Religions > Atheism
User: "Jim07D6"
Date: 05 Feb 2006 02:31:26 PM
Object: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question
Serious replies only, please.
I'm posting this to aa because I know some folks here have some
background in this question.
According to the bbc website, the following countries have laws
against holocaust denial.
Austria
Belgium
Czech Republic
France
Germany
Israel
Lithuania
Poland
Slovakia
Switzerland
http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/world/europe/4436275.stm
Most countries, including my own USA, have laws that place limitations
on the exercise of speech. An example of a basis of such limitations
is the USSC's "shouting fire in a crowded theater" standard. (See the
book "Perilous Times: Free Speech in Wartime: From the Sedition Act of
1798 to the War on Terrorism" for other examples of standards for
restrictions on speech.)
So here is my question: What is the *legal* basis for these laws
against holocaust denial, in these countries? Were legal bases cited
in the passage of these laws? I'm interested in knowledgeable replies
including guidance for how to find out. I can understand the
historical issues, and I can understand the moral pros and cons, but I
am interested in, for example, what constitutional or other legal
basis they have. Do they flow from, say, a constitutional or other law
that protects a specific class of people, or is it like the "crying
fire in a crowded theater" standard, or something else.
It would be especially useful to have references/web links.
I would also be interested in your own views as to the pros and cons
of such laws, and whether other situations need similar laws.
Thanks?
--- Jim07D6
.

User: "Ken"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 06 Feb 2006 02:49:10 AM
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On Sun, 05 Feb 2006 20:31:26 +0000, Jim07D6 wrote:

Most countries, including my own USA, have laws that place limitations
on the exercise of speech. An example of a basis of such limitations
is the USSC's "shouting fire in a crowded theater" standard.

This example doesn't really say what you are implying here. The reason it
is immoral and illegal to scream fire in a crowded theater is because
people may get trampled while running to the door. This is really a
different animal than saying to some one, "You can't say that because we
disagree with you." Or even, "You can't say that because we think you are
being dishonest."
What we should probably be saying is simply, "The marketplace of ideas
will take care of these people. They are wrong and nobody will believe
them."
- --
Ken
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User: "Jim07D6"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 06 Feb 2006 12:40:08 PM
Ken <nobody@nowhere.com> said:

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On Sun, 05 Feb 2006 20:31:26 +0000, Jim07D6 wrote:

Most countries, including my own USA, have laws that place limitations
on the exercise of speech. An example of a basis of such limitations
is the USSC's "shouting fire in a crowded theater" standard.


This example doesn't really say what you are implying here. The reason it
is immoral and illegal to scream fire in a crowded theater is because
people may get trampled while running to the door. This is really a
different animal than saying to some one, "You can't say that because we
disagree with you." Or even, "You can't say that because we think you are
being dishonest."

Yes, I wasn't trying to say that the crowded theater standard applies
to publishing those cartoons. I was just saying that there are
standards that legitimately limit speech. and asking -- what are the
standards that legitimize laws against Holocaust denial? Its a simple
question for facts, with no rhetorical message behind it. Rare on
alt.atheism, I know.


What we should probably be saying is simply, "The marketplace of ideas
will take care of these people. They are wrong and nobody will believe
them."

I can understand the laws against Holocaust denial being in place for
a few years after the demise of the Third Reich. Making it illegal
now, keeps it alive as a rallying point and source of minor league
martyrs who go to jail.
--- Jim07D6
.

User: "Matt Silberstein"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 06 Feb 2006 08:52:14 AM
On Mon, 06 Feb 2006 02:49:10 -0600, in alt.atheism , Ken
<nobody@nowhere.com> in <pan.2006.02.06.08.49.09.903024@volkswagon>
wrote:

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On Sun, 05 Feb 2006 20:31:26 +0000, Jim07D6 wrote:

Most countries, including my own USA, have laws that place limitations
on the exercise of speech. An example of a basis of such limitations
is the USSC's "shouting fire in a crowded theater" standard.


This example doesn't really say what you are implying here. The reason it
is immoral and illegal to scream fire in a crowded theater is because
people may get trampled while running to the door. This is really a
different animal than saying to some one, "You can't say that because we
disagree with you." Or even, "You can't say that because we think you are
being dishonest."

What we should probably be saying is simply, "The marketplace of ideas
will take care of these people. They are wrong and nobody will believe
them."

Except that the view was that the marketplace had shown something
quite a bit different.
--
Matt Silberstein
Do something today about the Darfur Genocide
http://www.beawitness.org
http://www.darfurgenocide.org
http://www.savedarfur.org
"Darfur: A Genocide We can Stop"
.
User: "Ken"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 06 Feb 2006 12:27:27 PM
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On Mon, 06 Feb 2006 14:52:14 +0000, Matt Silberstein wrote:

Except that the view was that the marketplace had shown something
quite a bit different.

If you don't believe the common people can work out these things
themselves then you really have no reason to believe in democracy at all.
- --
Ken
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User: "Matt Silberstein"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 06 Feb 2006 01:12:35 PM
On Mon, 06 Feb 2006 12:27:27 -0600, in alt.atheism , Ken
<nobody@nowhere.com> in <pan.2006.02.06.18.27.27.971048@volkswagon>
wrote:

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On Mon, 06 Feb 2006 14:52:14 +0000, Matt Silberstein wrote:

Except that the view was that the marketplace had shown something
quite a bit different.


If you don't believe the common people can work out these things
themselves then you really have no reason to believe in democracy at all.

Ah, the "faith" in the "common" people. Sorry, but I do have faith in
democracy. It was democracies, for example, that instituted the laws
in question. Perhaps you mean something else.
--
Matt Silberstein
Do something today about the Darfur Genocide
http://www.beawitness.org
http://www.darfurgenocide.org
http://www.savedarfur.org
"Darfur: A Genocide We can Stop"
.
User: "Ken"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 06 Feb 2006 07:24:13 PM
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On Mon, 06 Feb 2006 19:12:35 +0000, Matt Silberstein wrote:

Ah, the "faith" in the "common" people. Sorry, but I do have faith in
democracy. It was democracies, for example, that instituted the laws
in question. Perhaps you mean something else.

No, the point is that these kinds of laws should give you pause. In
England it is also illegal to speak positively of terrorist acts... unless
they are exempted.
I can't imagine a democracy lasting that doesn't allow it's people to
think for themselves.
- --
Ken
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User: "Matt Silberstein"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 06 Feb 2006 08:42:30 PM
On Mon, 06 Feb 2006 19:24:13 -0600, in alt.atheism , Ken
<nobody@nowhere.com> in <pan.2006.02.07.01.24.12.854096@volkswagon>
wrote:

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On Mon, 06 Feb 2006 19:12:35 +0000, Matt Silberstein wrote:

Ah, the "faith" in the "common" people. Sorry, but I do have faith in
democracy. It was democracies, for example, that instituted the laws
in question. Perhaps you mean something else.


No, the point is that these kinds of laws should give you pause. In
England it is also illegal to speak positively of terrorist acts... unless
they are exempted.

I can't imagine a democracy lasting that doesn't allow it's people to
think for themselves.

Germany has been a democracy for 60 years now. I think that the laws
restricting the Nazis has helped maintain that democracy. Whether or
not they need those laws now is an issue for Germany to decide.
England has quite a few restrictions on speech and press, at least
compared to the U.S. Is it a democracy?

--
Matt Silberstein
Do something today about the Darfur Genocide
http://www.beawitness.org
http://www.darfurgenocide.org
http://www.savedarfur.org
"Darfur: A Genocide We can Stop"
.






User: ""

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 05 Feb 2006 11:29:33 PM
Jim07D6 wrote:

Serious replies only, please.

I'm posting this to aa because I know some folks here have some
background in this question.

According to the bbc website, the following countries have laws
against holocaust denial.
Austria
Belgium
Czech Republic
France
Germany
Israel
Lithuania
Poland
Slovakia
Switzerland
http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/world/europe/4436275.stm

Most countries, including my own USA, have laws that place limitations
on the exercise of speech. An example of a basis of such limitations
is the USSC's "shouting fire in a crowded theater" standard. (See the
book "Perilous Times: Free Speech in Wartime: From the Sedition Act of
1798 to the War on Terrorism" for other examples of standards for
restrictions on speech.)

Canada has laws prohibiting hate speech; one's speech cannot
advocate intolerance and promote violence. So a "Skokie"
parade is probably legal, but suggesting people attack others
is not permissible, eg. Pat Robertson's show was banned from
Canadian TV for his anti-gay comments.

So here is my question: What is the *legal* basis for these laws
against holocaust denial, in these countries? Were legal bases cited
in the passage of these laws? I'm interested in knowledgeable replies
including guidance for how to find out. I can understand the
historical issues, and I can understand the moral pros and cons, but I
am interested in, for example, what constitutional or other legal
basis they have. Do they flow from, say, a constitutional or other law
that protects a specific class of people, or is it like the "crying
fire in a crowded theater" standard, or something else.

It would be especially useful to have references/web links.

I would also be interested in your own views as to the pros and cons
of such laws, and whether other situations need similar laws.

I'm no expert, but doubtless many of such laws were written out
of guilt over complicity in Nazism and other xian crimes against
the jews. Are such laws really necessary, or do they make some
feel self-righteous, that they have some "moral superiority"?
Do these laws give jews "special rights" in the same way hate
crime laws give "special rights" to gays? Even if the laws
don't create "special rights", do said laws create a backlash
against those the laws are meant to protect?
The existence and application of these laws begs a question: If
it's not kosher (pun intended) to deny the mass murder of jews,
then is it equally criminal to deny the mass murder of others by
the Nazis, such as the mentally handicapped, the Slavs, Romany,
and homosexuals? Why is it not criminal to deny the causes and
who were the perpetrators of the holocaust? (Eg. Pope Vindictive,
aka Nazinger, claimed at a 2005 meeting of xian and jewish
groups that Nazism was caused by "paganism" and not xianity.)
Bob Dog
-----
"Stop throwing the Constitution in my face,
it's just a goddamned piece of paper!"
- George W. Bush, US President
"I've never seen a pro-choicer bomb any churches. Have you?"
- Aaron Kinney, speaking on Eric Rudolph
"The best thing about the Left Behind books is the way the
non-Christians get their guts pulled out by God."
- 15-year-old fundamentalist fan of the books
.
User: ""

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 06 Feb 2006 01:00:24 PM
wrote:
<snip>

The existence and application of these laws begs a question: If
it's not kosher (pun intended) to deny the mass murder of jews,
then is it equally criminal to deny the mass murder of others by
the Nazis, such as the mentally handicapped, the Slavs, Romany,
and homosexuals?

You may have seen my other post, but just to make it clear: The German
law bans the denial of ALL Nazi crimes. There is no group of victims
singled out and given special status.
j.m.
#1491
.


User: ""

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 05 Feb 2006 04:48:47 PM
Jim07D6 wrote:

Serious replies only, please.

I'm posting this to aa because I know some folks here have some
background in this question.

According to the bbc website, the following countries have laws
against holocaust denial.
Austria
Belgium
Czech Republic
France
Germany
Israel
Lithuania
Poland
Slovakia
Switzerland
http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/world/europe/4436275.stm

<snip>

So here is my question: What is the *legal* basis for these laws
against holocaust denial, in these countries?

<snip>
First: I am not a lawyer.
The relevant section of the German penal code would be §130(3) and (4)
I'll try to translate it, original is here:
http://www.recht-in.de/gesetze/paragraph.php?struktur_id=112&gesetz_id=13
(3) With imprisonment up to five years or with fine is punished who an
action committed under the rule of the National Socialism as defined in
§6(1) of the 'people penal code'[1] publicly or in a meeting approves,
denies or down-plays in a way that is suitable to disturbing the public
peace.
([1] This section of German law deals with genocide, crimes against
humanity and war crimes. And I have no idea how to translate it proper.)
(4) With imprisonment up to three years or with fine is punished who
publicly or in a meeting disturbs the public peace by approving,
glorifying or justifying the National Socialist government in a way
deemed to diminish the dignity of the victims.
The key words to make it acceptable under the German constitution are
'disturbing the public peace', and as such is similar to the 'Fire' call
in a crowded cinema. Different, but similar. The prohibition of the
'Fire' call tries to protect people hurt in a panic, the prohibition of
denying the Nazi crimes tries to prevent the public disturbance and in
the long run the repetition of the crimes.
The logic was that we don't want to have mobs of Nazis running around
screaming 'We didn't do it, but if we could, we would'. In practice it
means that if you publicly deny the Holocaust you are out of what the
law defines as limits on freedom of expression.
Also note that the law does not single out the Jews. I notice in a lot
of discussions that someone says 'You can't deny the murder of Jews'.
While technically correct, I consider it a lie by omission. The law says
that you can't deny any murder, on anybody, be they Jews, JW, Slavic
people, political dissidents, etc. committed by the Nazis.
I think this law was necessary in 1949. 60 years later, perhaps we don't
need this paragraph.
j.m.
#1491
.
User: "Jim07D6"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 05 Feb 2006 05:06:14 PM
"j.m.1491@gmx.net" <j.m.1491@gmx.net> said:

Jim07D6 wrote:

Serious replies only, please.

I'm posting this to aa because I know some folks here have some
background in this question.

According to the bbc website, the following countries have laws
against holocaust denial.
Austria
Belgium
Czech Republic
France
Germany
Israel
Lithuania
Poland
Slovakia
Switzerland
http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/world/europe/4436275.stm

<snip>

So here is my question: What is the *legal* basis for these laws
against holocaust denial, in these countries?


<snip>

First: I am not a lawyer.

The relevant section of the German penal code would be §130(3) and (4)

I'll try to translate it, original is here:
http://www.recht-in.de/gesetze/paragraph.php?struktur_id=112&gesetz_id=13

(3) With imprisonment up to five years or with fine is punished who an
action committed under the rule of the National Socialism as defined in
§6(1) of the 'people penal code'[1] publicly or in a meeting approves,
denies or down-plays in a way that is suitable to disturbing the public
peace.

([1] This section of German law deals with genocide, crimes against
humanity and war crimes. And I have no idea how to translate it proper.)

(4) With imprisonment up to three years or with fine is punished who
publicly or in a meeting disturbs the public peace by approving,
glorifying or justifying the National Socialist government in a way
deemed to diminish the dignity of the victims.


The key words to make it acceptable under the German constitution are
'disturbing the public peace', and as such is similar to the 'Fire' call
in a crowded cinema. Different, but similar. The prohibition of the
'Fire' call tries to protect people hurt in a panic, the prohibition of
denying the Nazi crimes tries to prevent the public disturbance and in
the long run the repetition of the crimes.

The logic was that we don't want to have mobs of Nazis running around
screaming 'We didn't do it, but if we could, we would'. In practice it
means that if you publicly deny the Holocaust you are out of what the
law defines as limits on freedom of expression.

Also note that the law does not single out the Jews. I notice in a lot
of discussions that someone says 'You can't deny the murder of Jews'.
While technically correct, I consider it a lie by omission. The law says
that you can't deny any murder, on anybody, be they Jews, JW, Slavic
people, political dissidents, etc. committed by the Nazis.

I think this law was necessary in 1949. 60 years later, perhaps we don't
need this paragraph.

j.m.
#1491

Thanks, j.m. I'm not a lawyer either, but your reply gives enough
information to deduce the legal basis. The German constitution's
delegation of authority and responsibility, to the German federal
government, to enact laws to prevent disturbances to the public peace,
coupled with the (apparent) German federal court finding that the
Holocaust Denial law does not infringe on protected individual rights,
appears to be the basis.
If you are able to tell me about the German constitutional protections
on free speech, I would appreciate it. Or perhaps, I can find an
English translation of the German federal constitution, so I don't
have to try my one year learning of the German language.
--- Jim07D6
.
User: ""

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 05 Feb 2006 06:25:46 PM
Jim07D6 wrote:
<snip>

Thanks, j.m. I'm not a lawyer either, but your reply gives enough
information to deduce the legal basis. The German constitution's
delegation of authority and responsibility, to the German federal
government, to enact laws to prevent disturbances to the public peace,
coupled with the (apparent) German federal court finding

I do not know if it was ever challenged in Constitutional Court (US term
would be Supreme court).
If it was, it survived, if not, nobody even bothered to challenge. There
have been convictions and punishments by lower courts.

that the
Holocaust Denial law does not infringe on protected individual rights,
appears to be the basis.

If you are able to tell me about the German constitutional protections
on free speech, I would appreciate it. Or perhaps, I can find an
English translation of the German federal constitution, so I don't
have to try my one year learning of the German language.
--- Jim07D6

German version is
here:http://www.bundesregierung.de/Gesetze/-,4222/Grundgesetz.htm
I found this English version:
http://www.lib.byu.edu/~rdh/eurodocs/germ/ggeng.html
last updated 1990, there were minor changes since them. Yes, I know that
compared with the US constitution we change it often, mainly because we
have so many details. No change was made on the basic rights part.[1]
The argument for the existence of basic rights is in Article 1:
Article 1 (Protection of human dignity).
(1) The dignity of man is inviolable. To respect and protect it is the
duty of all state authority.
(2) The German people therefore acknowledge inviolable and inalienable
human rights as the basis of every community, of peace and of justice in
the world.
(3) The following basic rights bind the legislature, the executive and
the judiciary as directly enforceable law.
The article about freedom of speech is:
Article 5 (Freedom of expression).
(1) Everyone has the right freely to express and to disseminate his
opinion by speech, writing and pictures and freely to inform himself
from generally accessible sources. Freedom of the press and freedom of
reporting by radio and motion pictures are guaranteed. There shall be no
censorship.
(2) These rights are limited by the provisions of the general laws, the
provisions of law for the protection of youth and by the right to
inviolability of personal honor.
(3) Art and science, research and teaching are free. Freedom of teaching
does not absolve from loyalty to the constitution.
5(1) grants it, 5(2) puts limits.
More limits come in Article 18:
Article 18 (Forfeiture of basic rights).
Whoever abuses freedom of opinion, in particular freedom of the press
(Article 5, paragraph 1) freedom of teaching (Article 5, paragraph 3),
freedom of assembly (Article 8), freedom of association (Article 9), the
secrecy of mail posts and telecommunications (Article 10),property
(Article 14), or the right of asylum (Article 16, paragraph 2) in order
to attack the free democratic basic order, forfeits these basic rights.
The forfeiture and its extent are pronounced by the Federal
Constitutional Court.
19(1) regulates legal requirments for a restriction of basic rights:
Article 19 (Restriction of Basic Rights).
(1) Insofar as under this Basic Law a basic right may be restricted by
or pursuant to a law, the law must apply generally and not solely to an
individual case. Furthermore the law must name the basic right,
indicating the Article.
(2) In no case may a basic right be infringed upon in its essential content.
(3) The basic rights apply also to corporations established under German
Public law to the extent that the nature of such rights permits.
(4) Should any person's right be violated by public authority, recourse
to the court shall be open to him. If no other court has jurisdiction,
recourse shall be to the ordinary courts.
Article 20(4) might be of general interest about what my right would be
if the Islamists or other scum take over:
Article 20 (Basic principles of state order, right to resist).
(4) All Germans shall have the right to resist any person seeking to
abolish this constitutional order, should no other remedy be possible.
(inserted 24 June 1968)
j.m.
#1491
[1] About changing the basic law: See Article 79.
You may note that according this article we are still at war...
Article 79 (Amendment of the Basic Law; amended March 27, 1954).
(1) The Basic law can be amended only by a law which expressly amends or
supplements the text thereof. With respect to international treaties the
subject of which is a peace settlement, the preparation of a peace
settlement or the abolition of an occupation regime, or which are
designed to serve the defense of the Federal Republic, it shall be
sufficient, for the purpose of a clarifying interpretation to the effect
that the provisions of the Basic Law are not contrary to the conclusion
and entry into force of such treaties, to effect a supplementation of
the Basic Law confined to this clarifying interpretation.
(2) Such a law requires the affirmative vote of two thirds of the
members of the Bundestag and two-thirds of the votes of the Bundesrat.
(3) An amendment of this Basic Law affecting the division of the
Federation into Länder, the participation in principle of the Länder in
legislation, or the basic principles laid down in Articles 1 and 20, is
inadmissible.
.
User: "Jim07D6"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 05 Feb 2006 11:11:04 PM
"j.m.1491@gmx.net" <j.m.1491@gmx.net> said:

Jim07D6 wrote:
<snip>

Thanks, j.m. I'm not a lawyer either, but your reply gives enough
information to deduce the legal basis. The German constitution's
delegation of authority and responsibility, to the German federal
government, to enact laws to prevent disturbances to the public peace,
coupled with the (apparent) German federal court finding


I do not know if it was ever challenged in Constitutional Court (US term
would be Supreme court).
If it was, it survived, if not, nobody even bothered to challenge. There
have been convictions and punishments by lower courts.

that the
Holocaust Denial law does not infringe on protected individual rights,
appears to be the basis.

If you are able to tell me about the German constitutional protections
on free speech, I would appreciate it. Or perhaps, I can find an
English translation of the German federal constitution, so I don't
have to try my one year learning of the German language.
--- Jim07D6


German version is
here:http://www.bundesregierung.de/Gesetze/-,4222/Grundgesetz.htm


I found this English version:
http://www.lib.byu.edu/~rdh/eurodocs/germ/ggeng.html
last updated 1990, there were minor changes since them. Yes, I know that
compared with the US constitution we change it often, mainly because we
have so many details. No change was made on the basic rights part.[1]

The argument for the existence of basic rights is in Article 1:

Article 1 (Protection of human dignity).
(1) The dignity of man is inviolable. To respect and protect it is the
duty of all state authority.
(2) The German people therefore acknowledge inviolable and inalienable
human rights as the basis of every community, of peace and of justice in
the world.
(3) The following basic rights bind the legislature, the executive and
the judiciary as directly enforceable law.


The article about freedom of speech is:

Article 5 (Freedom of expression).
(1) Everyone has the right freely to express and to disseminate his
opinion by speech, writing and pictures and freely to inform himself
from generally accessible sources. Freedom of the press and freedom of
reporting by radio and motion pictures are guaranteed. There shall be no
censorship.
(2) These rights are limited by the provisions of the general laws, the
provisions of law for the protection of youth and by the right to
inviolability of personal honor.
(3) Art and science, research and teaching are free. Freedom of teaching
does not absolve from loyalty to the constitution.

5(1) grants it, 5(2) puts limits.

More limits come in Article 18:

Article 18 (Forfeiture of basic rights).
Whoever abuses freedom of opinion, in particular freedom of the press
(Article 5, paragraph 1) freedom of teaching (Article 5, paragraph 3),
freedom of assembly (Article 8), freedom of association (Article 9), the
secrecy of mail posts and telecommunications (Article 10),property
(Article 14), or the right of asylum (Article 16, paragraph 2) in order
to attack the free democratic basic order, forfeits these basic rights.
The forfeiture and its extent are pronounced by the Federal
Constitutional Court.

19(1) regulates legal requirments for a restriction of basic rights:

Article 19 (Restriction of Basic Rights).
(1) Insofar as under this Basic Law a basic right may be restricted by
or pursuant to a law, the law must apply generally and not solely to an
individual case. Furthermore the law must name the basic right,
indicating the Article.
(2) In no case may a basic right be infringed upon in its essential content.
(3) The basic rights apply also to corporations established under German
Public law to the extent that the nature of such rights permits.
(4) Should any person's right be violated by public authority, recourse
to the court shall be open to him. If no other court has jurisdiction,
recourse shall be to the ordinary courts.

Article 20(4) might be of general interest about what my right would be
if the Islamists or other scum take over:

Article 20 (Basic principles of state order, right to resist).
(4) All Germans shall have the right to resist any person seeking to
abolish this constitutional order, should no other remedy be possible.
(inserted 24 June 1968)

j.m.
#1491


[1] About changing the basic law: See Article 79.
You may note that according this article we are still at war...

Article 79 (Amendment of the Basic Law; amended March 27, 1954).
(1) The Basic law can be amended only by a law which expressly amends or
supplements the text thereof. With respect to international treaties the
subject of which is a peace settlement, the preparation of a peace
settlement or the abolition of an occupation regime, or which are
designed to serve the defense of the Federal Republic, it shall be
sufficient, for the purpose of a clarifying interpretation to the effect
that the provisions of the Basic Law are not contrary to the conclusion
and entry into force of such treaties, to effect a supplementation of
the Basic Law confined to this clarifying interpretation.
(2) Such a law requires the affirmative vote of two thirds of the
members of the Bundestag and two-thirds of the votes of the Bundesrat.
(3) An amendment of this Basic Law affecting the division of the
Federation into Länder, the participation in principle of the Länder in
legislation, or the basic principles laid down in Articles 1 and 20, is
inadmissible.

Thanks greatly!
--- Jim07D6
.




User: "Thurisaz, Germanic barbarian"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 05 Feb 2006 10:38:23 PM
Jim07D6 wrote:

So here is my question: What is the *legal* basis for these laws
against holocaust denial, in these countries?

Speaking strictly for the German situation, or at least for how I perceive
it:
There is no real _legal_ basis for laws like these ones, aside from the
assumption that whoever denies the holocaust must be one of those who
already pushed Germany and most of the civilized world into war and
atrocities once, some decades ago. Same goes for displaying a swastika in
public over here, and _no one_ will ask whether you are nazi scum or
perhaps just an Asatruar or Hindu displaying this as symbol of your faith.

I would also be interested in your own views as to the pros and cons
of such laws, and whether other situations need similar laws.

Personally (as an Asatruar) I'd like to see at least the swastika ban gone,
for very personal reasons mentioned above, though I don't feel much pain
about the holocaust denial law. After all, let's be honest here: If we
would allow this kind of "free speech" again, how many _minutes_ would pass
before someone starts to scream from the rooftops to all the world "Look!
It begins anew! Hitler rising!!!111!!!"?
I don't feel like I'm in a position to speak for the other countries with
such laws, though. Please refer to citizens of those nations for further
info. :)
--
"To his friend a man a friend shall prove, and gifts with gifts requite;
But men shall mocking with mockery answer, and fraud with falsehood meet."
(The Poetic Edda)
Must have been written with fundies in mind...
Why I am not a christian:
http://www.carcosa.de/nojebus/nojebus
.
User: "Jim07D6"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 05 Feb 2006 11:22:18 PM
"Thurisaz, Germanic barbarian" <MAILTOcommoner@carcosa.de> said:

Jim07D6 wrote:

So here is my question: What is the *legal* basis for these laws
against holocaust denial, in these countries?


Speaking strictly for the German situation, or at least for how I perceive
it:

There is no real _legal_ basis for laws like these ones, aside from the
assumption that whoever denies the holocaust must be one of those who
already pushed Germany and most of the civilized world into war and
atrocities once, some decades ago. Same goes for displaying a swastika in
public over here, and _no one_ will ask whether you are nazi scum or
perhaps just an Asatruar or Hindu displaying this as symbol of your faith.

It must be tough, for those like you, having no Nazi sympathies.


I would also be interested in your own views as to the pros and cons
of such laws, and whether other situations need similar laws.


Personally (as an Asatruar) I'd like to see at least the swastika ban gone,
for very personal reasons mentioned above, though I don't feel much pain
about the holocaust denial law. After all, let's be honest here: If we
would allow this kind of "free speech" again, how many _minutes_ would pass
before someone starts to scream from the rooftops to all the world "Look!
It begins anew! Hitler rising!!!111!!!"?

The so-called swastika predates Nazi Germany, that's for sure. How did
that graphic image come to be associated with the Asatruar? This is
not an agressive question, I am just curious. The image is rather easy
to imagine being invented many times.


I don't feel like I'm in a position to speak for the other countries with
such laws, though. Please refer to citizens of those nations for further
info. :)

Thanks!
--- Jim07D6
.
User: "Thurisaz, Germanic barbarian"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 06 Feb 2006 12:27:30 PM
Jim07D6 wrote:

It must be tough, for those like you, having no Nazi sympathies.

Well, it's not too hard for me as long as I can at least wear some other
symbols of my faith in public, like the goo' ol' Mjolnir (Thor's Hammer).
However, neo-fascists busily work on occupying one ancient Asatru symbol
after another for themselves, using it as a sign of recognition until the
authorities step in and declare that symbol to be 1. a new symbol of the
nazi scum and thus 2. banned. Whether they will ultimately succeed, I do
not know.
(And there's at least one of the goo' ol' runes of the Elder Futhark that
won't be banned anytime soon, not completely that is. After all, the
emblems of the German sergeant military rank happen to incorporate the
Othila rune... *g*)

The so-called swastika predates Nazi Germany, that's for sure. How did
that graphic image come to be associated with the Asatruar? This is
not an agressive question, I am just curious. The image is rather easy
to imagine being invented many times.

Indeed. As far as my info goes, it's pretty simple and plausible.
The Sowulo rune, standing mainly for the sun, and for victory:
/
/
/
\
\
\
/
/
/
Now superimpose two Sowulo's over each other with one rotated 90 degrees,
and you get the sunwheel. And it happens to look like... yup... that one.
Hope to have helped :)
--
"To his friend a man a friend shall prove, and gifts with gifts requite;
But men shall mocking with mockery answer, and fraud with falsehood meet."
(The Poetic Edda)
Must have been written with fundies in mind...
Why I am not a christian:
http://www.carcosa.de/nojebus/nojebus
.



User: "Rune B"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 05 Feb 2006 04:24:43 PM
On Sun, 05 Feb 2006 20:31:26 GMT, Jim07D6 <Jim07D6@nospam.net> wrote:

So here is my question: What is the *legal* basis for these laws
against holocaust denial, in these countries? Were legal bases cited
in the passage of these laws? I'm interested in knowledgeable replies

The laws are remnants and relics of war world 2. And it has long since
been proven that nothing is more dangerous than forcing extremists
underground.
In my opinion the only limitation on free speech should be unjust
harassment of private citizens be that for reasons of race or
whatever. But as groups, religions etc. we must be allowed to
criticize eachother without fear of reprisal.
.

User: "Matt Silberstein"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 05 Feb 2006 05:08:21 PM
On Sun, 05 Feb 2006 20:31:26 GMT, in alt.atheism , Jim07D6
<Jim07D6@nospam.net> in <l4ncu1dh8g9hvupfm3h9h03dhlmemt3slt@4ax.com>
wrote:

Serious replies only, please.

I'm posting this to aa because I know some folks here have some
background in this question.

According to the bbc website, the following countries have laws
against holocaust denial.
Austria
Belgium
Czech Republic
France
Germany
Israel
Lithuania
Poland
Slovakia
Switzerland
http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/world/europe/4436275.stm

Most countries, including my own USA, have laws that place limitations
on the exercise of speech. An example of a basis of such limitations
is the USSC's "shouting fire in a crowded theater" standard. (See the
book "Perilous Times: Free Speech in Wartime: From the Sedition Act of
1798 to the War on Terrorism" for other examples of standards for
restrictions on speech.)

So here is my question: What is the *legal* basis for these laws
against holocaust denial, in these countries?

The same legal basis for any other laws in those countries.

Were legal bases cited
in the passage of these laws? I'm interested in knowledgeable replies
including guidance for how to find out. I can understand the
historical issues, and I can understand the moral pros and cons, but I
am interested in, for example, what constitutional or other legal
basis they have.

Did you bother to look to see if those countries have a constitution?
Here is a clue: not everyone has a constitutional legal system.
England, for example, has no such system. England has laws that allow
prior restraint, something the U.S. forbids.

Do they flow from, say, a constitutional or other law
that protects a specific class of people, or is it like the "crying
fire in a crowded theater" standard, or something else.

That is not a legal basis, that is a political rational behind the
law. The laws are laws because the legislative bodies voted for them.

It would be especially useful to have references/web links.

I would also be interested in your own views as to the pros and cons
of such laws, and whether other situations need similar laws.

--
Matt Silberstein
Do something today about the Darfur Genocide
http://www.beawitness.org
http://www.darfurgenocide.org
http://www.savedarfur.org
"Darfur: A Genocide We can Stop"
.
User: "Jim07D6"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 05 Feb 2006 11:16:10 PM
Matt Silberstein <RemoveThisPrefixmatts2nospam@ix.netcom.com> said:

On Sun, 05 Feb 2006 20:31:26 GMT, in alt.atheism , Jim07D6
<Jim07D6@nospam.net> in <l4ncu1dh8g9hvupfm3h9h03dhlmemt3slt@4ax.com>
wrote:

Serious replies only, please.

I'm posting this to aa because I know some folks here have some
background in this question.

According to the bbc website, the following countries have laws
against holocaust denial.
Austria
Belgium
Czech Republic
France
Germany
Israel
Lithuania
Poland
Slovakia
Switzerland
http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/world/europe/4436275.stm

Most countries, including my own USA, have laws that place limitations
on the exercise of speech. An example of a basis of such limitations
is the USSC's "shouting fire in a crowded theater" standard. (See the
book "Perilous Times: Free Speech in Wartime: From the Sedition Act of
1798 to the War on Terrorism" for other examples of standards for
restrictions on speech.)

So here is my question: What is the *legal* basis for these laws
against holocaust denial, in these countries?


The same legal basis for any other laws in those countries.

Were legal bases cited
in the passage of these laws? I'm interested in knowledgeable replies
including guidance for how to find out. I can understand the
historical issues, and I can understand the moral pros and cons, but I
am interested in, for example, what constitutional or other legal
basis they have.


Did you bother to look to see if those countries have a constitution?

My response to that is unprintable.

Here is a clue: not everyone has a constitutional legal system.
England, for example, has no such system. England has laws that allow
prior restraint, something the U.S. forbids.

I know that. I said "...for example. what constitutional or other
legal basis..." with that exact thought in mind. You underestimate me,
Matt.


Do they flow from, say, a constitutional or other law
that protects a specific class of people, or is it like the "crying
fire in a crowded theater" standard, or something else.


That is not a legal basis, that is a political rational behind the
law. The laws are laws because the legislative bodies voted for them.

Laws are what they are because the government in toto says they are.
\
--- Jim07D6
.
User: "Matt Silberstein"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 06 Feb 2006 08:45:12 AM
On Mon, 06 Feb 2006 05:16:10 GMT, in alt.atheism , Jim07D6
<Jim07D6@nospam.net> in <6kmdu1599deo0dnpmd35fa22vjnc16n9p5@4ax.com>
wrote:

Matt Silberstein <RemoveThisPrefixmatts2nospam@ix.netcom.com> said:

On Sun, 05 Feb 2006 20:31:26 GMT, in alt.atheism , Jim07D6
<Jim07D6@nospam.net> in <l4ncu1dh8g9hvupfm3h9h03dhlmemt3slt@4ax.com>
wrote:

Serious replies only, please.

I'm posting this to aa because I know some folks here have some
background in this question.

According to the bbc website, the following countries have laws
against holocaust denial.
Austria
Belgium
Czech Republic
France
Germany
Israel
Lithuania
Poland
Slovakia
Switzerland
http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/world/europe/4436275.stm

Most countries, including my own USA, have laws that place limitations
on the exercise of speech. An example of a basis of such limitations
is the USSC's "shouting fire in a crowded theater" standard. (See the
book "Perilous Times: Free Speech in Wartime: From the Sedition Act of
1798 to the War on Terrorism" for other examples of standards for
restrictions on speech.)

So here is my question: What is the *legal* basis for these laws
against holocaust denial, in these countries?


The same legal basis for any other laws in those countries.

Were legal bases cited
in the passage of these laws? I'm interested in knowledgeable replies
including guidance for how to find out. I can understand the
historical issues, and I can understand the moral pros and cons, but I
am interested in, for example, what constitutional or other legal
basis they have.


Did you bother to look to see if those countries have a constitution?


My response to that is unprintable.

Why? Because you want others to do the work?

Here is a clue: not everyone has a constitutional legal system.
England, for example, has no such system. England has laws that allow
prior restraint, something the U.S. forbids.


I know that. I said "...for example. what constitutional or other
legal basis..." with that exact thought in mind. You underestimate me,
Matt.

What other legal basis do you have in mind?

Do they flow from, say, a constitutional or other law
that protects a specific class of people, or is it like the "crying
fire in a crowded theater" standard, or something else.


That is not a legal basis, that is a political rational behind the
law. The laws are laws because the legislative bodies voted for them.


Laws are what they are because the government in toto says they are.

Why yes, what else do you expect for laws? If there is no constitution
what other kind of basis would there be?
You are asking the wrong question. You seem to assume that there is,
in those countries, some fundamental right to speech of some sort.
That is a poor assumption to make.
--
Matt Silberstein
Do something today about the Darfur Genocide
http://www.beawitness.org
http://www.darfurgenocide.org
http://www.savedarfur.org
"Darfur: A Genocide We can Stop"
.
User: "Jim07D6"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 06 Feb 2006 10:10:37 AM
Matt Silberstein <RemoveThisPrefixmatts2nospam@ix.netcom.com> said:

On Mon, 06 Feb 2006 05:16:10 GMT, in alt.atheism , Jim07D6
<Jim07D6@nospam.net> in <6kmdu1599deo0dnpmd35fa22vjnc16n9p5@4ax.com>
wrote:

Matt Silberstein <RemoveThisPrefixmatts2nospam@ix.netcom.com> said:

On Sun, 05 Feb 2006 20:31:26 GMT, in alt.atheism , Jim07D6
<Jim07D6@nospam.net> in <l4ncu1dh8g9hvupfm3h9h03dhlmemt3slt@4ax.com>
wrote:

Serious replies only, please.

I'm posting this to aa because I know some folks here have some
background in this question.

According to the bbc website, the following countries have laws
against holocaust denial.
Austria
Belgium
Czech Republic
France
Germany
Israel
Lithuania
Poland
Slovakia
Switzerland
http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/world/europe/4436275.stm

Most countries, including my own USA, have laws that place limitations
on the exercise of speech. An example of a basis of such limitations
is the USSC's "shouting fire in a crowded theater" standard. (See the
book "Perilous Times: Free Speech in Wartime: From the Sedition Act of
1798 to the War on Terrorism" for other examples of standards for
restrictions on speech.)

So here is my question: What is the *legal* basis for these laws
against holocaust denial, in these countries?


The same legal basis for any other laws in those countries.

Were legal bases cited
in the passage of these laws? I'm interested in knowledgeable replies
including guidance for how to find out. I can understand the
historical issues, and I can understand the moral pros and cons, but I
am interested in, for example, what constitutional or other legal
basis they have.


Did you bother to look to see if those countries have a constitution?


My response to that is unprintable.


Why? Because you want others to do the work?

What is with you? Yes, I asked for something that would require some
work, for example one chap translated part of the relevant German law
for me. I couldn't find the law, or translate it if I did. Sure, there
might be an English translation of the German constitution, but why
not ask, if someone knows and cares to help?


Here is a clue: not everyone has a constitutional legal system.
England, for example, has no such system. England has laws that allow
prior restraint, something the U.S. forbids.


I know that. I said "...for example. what constitutional or other
legal basis..." with that exact thought in mind. You underestimate me,
Matt.


What other legal basis do you have in mind?

There are several legal bases used for limiting speech: Slander
(basically, tort law), national security, the "crowded theater
argument", incitement to riot, obscenity, and protected classes of
people, to name some. Some European countries are unique in there
recent Nazi experience and have taken understandable but rather
extreme measures such that one can't put "the holocaust" and "didn't
happen" right next to one another. I am not saying they are legitimate
bases, or apply in this case, I am *researching* the issue, and not
just by asking. I pulled down and read a 9-pager on the legal issues
related to Internet gambling because it touched on legal theories for
limiting communications between people in different countries.


Do they flow from, say, a constitutional or other law
that protects a specific class of people, or is it like the "crying
fire in a crowded theater" standard, or something else.


That is not a legal basis, that is a political rational behind the
law. The laws are laws because the legislative bodies voted for them.


Laws are what they are because the government in toto says they are.


Why yes, what else do you expect for laws? If there is no constitution
what other kind of basis would there be?

Common law with Parliament is one example (England). Another is royal
edict under Sharia law (Saudi Arabia). Neither is a constitutionally
based government.


You are asking the wrong question. You seem to assume that there is,
in those countries, some fundamental right to speech of some sort.
That is a poor assumption to make.

I made no such assumption. I was quite ready to hear that one or more
of those countries has no mention of free speech in its constitution,
or has no constitution and no common law tradition giving government
protection to any speech. But I am not certain what laws exist on the
books in England on speech. Apparently, the recent cartoons would not
be illegal in any of the countries mentioned here, and for that
matter, Holocaust denial does not appear to be illegal in England if
the above list is correct.
--- Jim07D6
.
User: "Matt Silberstein"

Title: Re: OT: Laws Against Holocaust Denial -- A Question 09 Feb 2006 09:27:02 AM
On Mon, 06 Feb 2006 16:10:37 GMT, in alt.atheism , Jim07D6
<Jim07D6@nospam.net> in <llreu1lfdi5e1gmp81qfi082mu5cf78psj@4ax.com>
wrote:

Matt Silberstein <RemoveThisPrefixmatts2nospam@ix.netcom.com> said:

On Mon, 06 Feb 2006 05:16:10 GMT, in alt.atheism , Jim07D6
<Jim07D6@nospam.net> in <6kmdu1599deo0dnpmd35fa22vjnc16n9p5@4ax.com>
wrote:

Matt Silberstein <RemoveThisPrefixmatts2nospam@ix.netcom.com> said:

On Sun, 05 Feb 2006 20:31:26 GMT, in alt.atheism , Jim07D6
<Jim07D6@nospam.net> in <l4ncu1dh8g9hvupfm3h9h03dhlmemt3slt@4ax.com>
wrote:

Serious replies only, please.

I'm posting this to aa because I know some folks here have some
background in this question.

According to the bbc website, the following countries have laws
against holocaust denial.
Austria
Belgium
Czech Republic
France
Germany
Israel
Lithuania
Poland
Slovakia
Switzerland
http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/world/europe/4436275.stm

Most countries, including my own USA, have laws that place limitations
on the exercise of speech. An example of a basis of such limitations
is the USSC's "shouting fire in a crowded theater" standard. (See the
book "Perilous Times: Free Speech in Wartime: From the Sedition Act of
1798 to the War on Terrorism" for other examples of standards for
restrictions on speech.)

So here is my question: What is the *legal* basis for these laws
against holocaust denial, in these countries?


The same legal basis for any other laws in those countries.

Were legal bases cited
in the passage of these laws? I'm interested in knowledgeable replies
including guidance for how to find out. I can understand the
historical issues, and I can understand the moral pros and cons, but I
am interested in, for example, what constitutional or other legal
basis they have.


Did you bother to look to see if those countries have a constitution?


My response to that is unprintable.


Why? Because you want others to do the work?


What is with you?

Over reaction for the most part. I'll try to pass off the rest as a
long time pedantic attitude.

Yes, I asked for something that would require some
work, for example one chap translated part of the relevant German law
for me. I couldn't find the law, or translate it if I did. Sure, there
might be an English translation of the German constitution, but why
not ask, if someone knows and cares to help?

No reason. I would suggest, however, that alt.atheism is probably not
the best group for this. I see two approaches to the Usenet, and often
two kinds of groups. There are people who see a group as their home
and post almost anything there. Maff comes to mind, but others do as
well. And alt.atheism is one of those groups, a remarkably large
number of quite off-topic threads are started (as opposed to drifting
off topic). Then there is the attempt to stay focused. Various tech
groups are good examples of that. You would probably be better served
to find either a German/? group or a legal group. Or even
soc.culture.jewish.moderated.

Here is a clue: not everyone has a constitutional legal system.
England, for example, has no such system. England has laws that allow
prior restraint, something the U.S. forbids.


I know that. I said "...for example. what constitutional or other
legal basis..." with that exact thought in mind. You underestimate me,
Matt.


What other legal basis do you have in mind?


There are several legal bases used for limiting speech: Slander
(basically, tort law), national security, the "crowded theater
argument", incitement to riot, obscenity, and protected classes of
people, to name some. Some European countries are unique in there
recent Nazi experience and have taken understandable but rather
extreme measures such that one can't put "the holocaust" and "didn't
happen" right next to one another. I am not saying they are legitimate
bases, or apply in this case, I am *researching* the issue, and not
just by asking. I pulled down and read a 9-pager on the legal issues
related to Internet gambling because it touched on legal theories for
limiting communications between people in different countries.

That mixes a few different concepts. Laws themselves don't need a
rational like "fire in a crowded theater". If there is a constitution,
then they have to pass a constitutional test. If not, just a political
test. The laws you asked about are, IIANM, specific laws regarding
those issues. They are not general slander laws or other such things.
So courts did not apply those facts to existing laws, the legislatures
established new laws to forbid those acts.

Do they flow from, say, a constitutional or other law
that protects a specific class of people, or is it like the "crying
fire in a crowded theater" standard, or something else.


That is not a legal basis, that is a political rational behind the
law. The laws are laws because the legislative bodies voted for them.


Laws are what they are because the government in toto says they are.


Why yes, what else do you expect for laws? If there is no constitution
what other kind of basis would there be?


Common law with Parliament is one example (England). Another is royal
edict under Sharia law (Saudi Arabia). Neither is a constitutionally
based government.

Right, so there is no need for a legal basis. (One could argue that
the Koran acts as a constitution for Sharia, but I don't know enough
about it to make a real comment myself.)

You are asking the wrong question. You seem to assume that there is,
in those countries, some fundamental right to speech of some sort.
That is a poor assumption to make.


I made no such assumption. I was quite ready to hear that one or more
of those countries has no mention of free speech in its constitution,
or has no constitution and no common law tradition giving government
protection to any speech. But I am not certain what laws exist on the
books in England on speech. Apparently, the recent cartoons would not
be illegal in any of the countries mentioned here, and for that
matter, Holocaust denial does not appear to be illegal in England if
the above list is correct.

Holocaust denial is not illegal in England.
--
Matt Silberstein
Do something today about the Darfur Genocide
http://www.beawitness.org
http://www.darfurgenocide.org
http://www.savedarfur.org
"Darfur: A Genocide We can Stop"
.






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