| Topic: |
Religions > Atheism |
| User: |
"Uncle Buck" |
| Date: |
08 Mar 2006 09:12:24 PM |
| Object: |
OT: Physics question |
I'm watching Nova's "The Elegant Universe", and it brought up a question wrt the
strength of each known force of physics versus the operational range of that
force. Is it generally true that the strength of a force bears an inverse
relationship to its range? And do the known forces fall on any sort of
continuum in a uniform way (i.e., gravity possesses strength s and range r, the
next force in line possesses strength f(s) and f(r), the next would possess
strength f(f(s)) and f(f(r))?
Just curious. If they've addressed that on the program, I missed it. Thanks as
always for your time. :-)
--
L8r,
Uncle Buck
************************************************
The true mark of a civilized society is when its
citizens know how to hate each other peacefully.
************************************************
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| User: "Josef Balluch" |
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| Title: Re: OT: Physics question |
08 Mar 2006 10:06:00 PM |
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In a message sent 'round the world, Uncle Buck poured fuel on the fire
with the following:
I'm watching Nova's "The Elegant Universe", and it brought up a question wrt the
strength of each known force of physics versus the operational range of that
force. Is it generally true that the strength of a force bears an inverse
relationship to its range? And do the known forces fall on any sort of
continuum in a uniform way (i.e., gravity possesses strength s and range r, the
next force in line possesses strength f(s) and f(r), the next would possess
strength f(f(s)) and f(f(r))?
In a word: no.
Nova offers the following nifty chart to clarify:
http://tinyurl.com/j2wa9
Regards,
Josef
Had the telescope and microscope been invented first, religion never
would have been.
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| User: "Uncle Buck" |
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| Title: Re: OT: Physics question |
09 Mar 2006 05:20:32 PM |
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On Wed, 8 Mar 2006 23:06:00 -0500, Josef Balluch <josef.balluch@sympatico.can>
wrote:
In a message sent 'round the world, Uncle Buck poured fuel on the fire
with the following:
I'm watching Nova's "The Elegant Universe", and it brought up a question wrt the
strength of each known force of physics versus the operational range of that
force. Is it generally true that the strength of a force bears an inverse
relationship to its range? And do the known forces fall on any sort of
continuum in a uniform way (i.e., gravity possesses strength s and range r, the
next force in line possesses strength f(s) and f(r), the next would possess
strength f(f(s)) and f(f(r))?
In a word: no.
Nova offers the following nifty chart to clarify:
http://tinyurl.com/j2wa9
->Perfect!<- Thank you! :-)
--
L8r,
Uncle Buck
************************************************
The true mark of a civilized society is when its
citizens know how to hate each other peacefully.
************************************************
.
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| User: "Llanzlan Klazmon" |
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| Title: Re: OT: Physics question |
09 Mar 2006 09:34:59 PM |
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Uncle Buck <UncleBuck@SpamMeNot.com> wrote in
news:i37v02lhkm4hfthui9b0d7ug0u2jvr88si@4ax.com:
I'm watching Nova's "The Elegant Universe", and it brought up a question
wrt the strength of each known force of physics versus the operational
range of that force. Is it generally true that the strength of a force
bears an inverse relationship to its range?
No. The electromagnetic force has "infinite" range just like gravity.
Compare Newton's law of gravity with Coulombs law. The reason that gravity
dominates on large scales is simply because the universe appears to be
electrically neutral overall.
Klazmon.
<SNIP>
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| User: "Dean" |
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| Title: Re: OT: Physics question |
08 Mar 2006 09:18:09 PM |
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Uncle Buck wrote:
I'm watching Nova's "The Elegant Universe", and it brought up a question wrt the
strength of each known force of physics versus the operational range of that
force. Is it generally true that the strength of a force bears an inverse
relationship to its range? And do the known forces fall on any sort of
continuum in a uniform way (i.e., gravity possesses strength s and range r, the
next force in line possesses strength f(s) and f(r), the next would possess
strength f(f(s)) and f(f(r))?
Just curious. If they've addressed that on the program, I missed it. Thanks as
always for your time. :-)
Try crossposting to sci.physics maybe? I've read the book, but I
couldn't tell you.
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