"Ron B." <zypher@spamcop.net> Tue, 30 Dec 2003 05:22:19 GMT
On Mon, 29 Dec 2003 14:09:28 -0600, walksalone wrote:
Be so kind as to explain to the audience then, the original source of the
j sound, not the letter itself, the sound. I've always heard the Greeks
accused of that.
TIA
walksalone who is always willing to learn, but requires evidence for the
claims posted.
The source of any sound in a language is going to be older then the
No argument there, unless we include Veitnamese French style. No one is
really sure about that one.
written form of that language. Languages evolve over time and new sounds
replace older ones. Indo-European "p" as in pater was kept by Greek and
Latin but changed in "f" in the Germanic languages as in father.
Pre-classical Greek did have the "j" sound but was lost by the time the
Greeks adopted the alphabet that is in current use.
Would they simply left it out of all forms. That sucker screws with speech
recognition programs something fierce.
From:
http://ptolemy.tlg.uci.edu/~opoudjis/unicode/yot.html
Site saved, thanks.
Snip quote
The original source of the "j" phoneme? I don't know. What is the
original source of the "d" sound? Some think that "m" came from the
sound of an infant nursing, thus most Indo-European languages' word for
"mother" starts with "m". This seems to me to be speculation and hardly
provable.
On that last part, I think I provisonally agree with you.
Feel fre tpo reply no longer, you've answered my question rather well.
walksalone who has more reading apparently, as if I don't have enough.
.
