What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology



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Topic: Religions > Atheism
User: "Nico Demusopelous"
Date: 04 Jun 2004 11:36:39 AM
Object: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology
I notice a lot of people call to witness the IPU, the invisible pink
unicorn. If a theist asks "can you prove God does not exist?", an IPU
enthusiast will counter with "can you prove the IPU does not exist?"
Are we presupposing that it is impossible to prove that something does
not exist? How would one explain mathematicians who demonstrate that
it is impossible to have a number whose square is negative one? What
about logicians who agree that that which does not exist are
contradicitions?
We can demonstrate the non-existence of certain conceptions of God, as
well as the IPU, by showing that the notion is contradictory (some
have tried to do this, for example, with the notion of a being who is
both omnipotent and omniscient). For the IPU, if it is invisible, it
does not reflect light, which would mean it has no color, and thus is
not pink. If it is pink, it reflects light, and thus is not invisible.
The IPU is a contradiction, and does not exist.
That being conceded, a regular pink unicorn would have to exist. Here
is a simple ontological argument for the existence of the PU (the Pink
Unicorn) which employs a basic modus tollens:
(1) If the PU did not exist, it would not be pink.
(2) The PU, by definition, is pink.
(3) Therefore, the PU exists.
.

User: "Ron Baker, Pluralitas!"

Title: Re: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology 04 Jun 2004 01:35:13 PM
"Nico Demusopelous" <nicodemus-asks@jesusanswers.com> wrote in message
news:2c68d44e.0406040836.29767c24@posting.google.com...

I notice a lot of people call to witness the IPU, the invisible pink
unicorn. If a theist asks "can you prove God does not exist?", an IPU
enthusiast will counter with "can you prove the IPU does not exist?"
Are we presupposing that it is impossible to prove that something does
not exist? How would one explain mathematicians who demonstrate that
it is impossible to have a number whose square is negative one? What

It is well established in mathematics that:
sqrt(-1) = i .... i*i = -1 .... e^(Pi*i) = -1 (oy,
klaven!)
OK, I guess 'i' is not technically a number.

about logicians who agree that that which does not exist are
contradicitions?

We can demonstrate the non-existence of certain conceptions of God, as

Yes, to reasonable people, but when it comes to God
theists are not reasonable people.

well as the IPU, by showing that the notion is contradictory (some
have tried to do this, for example, with the notion of a being who is
both omnipotent and omniscient). For the IPU, if it is invisible, it
does not reflect light, which would mean it has no color, and thus is
not pink. If it is pink, it reflects light, and thus is not invisible.
The IPU is a contradiction, and does not exist.

Hey, it's a *joke*, man.
It pokes fun at theism by possesing similar ludicrous contradictions
and arbitrary properties.
<snip>
Hey Nico, are you giving up on your first cause
argument?
Did I miss a response to my last post?
Can nature be the first cause?
And what about the probabilities?
P(E) probability that evil exists.
P(E|G) probability that evil exists, given God.
--
RB
.
User: "Nico Demusopelous"

Title: For Ron Baker, Pluralitas, on first cause arguments and the existence of evil (was: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology) 04 Jun 2004 08:48:45 PM
"Ron Baker, Pluralitas!" <rbaker4@msnn.com> wrote in message news:<Bh3wc.10342$Ha2.9109@twister.socal.rr.com>...

...

Greetings Ron!

about logicians who agree that that which does not exist are
contradicitions?

We can demonstrate the non-existence of certain conceptions of God, as


Yes, to reasonable people, but when it comes to God
theists are not reasonable people.

Actually, I think there are many theists who enage in quite reasonable
discussions on the logical coherence of various conceptions of God
(William Lane Craig immediately comes to mind, and his various reasons
for why he adheres to one conception of God while rejecting others).

well as the IPU, by showing that the notion is contradictory (some
have tried to do this, for example, with the notion of a being who is
both omnipotent and omniscient). For the IPU, if it is invisible, it
does not reflect light, which would mean it has no color, and thus is
not pink. If it is pink, it reflects light, and thus is not invisible.
The IPU is a contradiction, and does not exist.


Hey, it's a *joke*, man.
It pokes fun at theism by possesing similar ludicrous contradictions
and arbitrary properties.

I understand that, and was joking as well - hence the word "humorous"
in the title of the thread, and the attempt to give an ontological
argument for the PU's existence.

<snip>

Hey Nico, are you giving up on your first cause
argument?
Did I miss a response to my last post?
Can nature be the first cause?

Sorry about the huge (possibly month long) delay. I got too
comfortable with my tendency before finals to only respond to the easy
discussions, and avoid the harder ones, and this carried on well after
finals ended nine days ago.
Okay, if you don't mind me picking up the argument here, I'll respond
to the first cause thing now. If I recall correctly, you were willing
to concede (at least for the sake of moving the argument along) that
if we have a causal chain, that chain must be finite. Now, obviously a
finite causal chain must, by definition, have a first cause.
Now I offered the binary that a cause can be either mechanical or
personal, and defined the former as lacking volition, while the latter
possesses it. So the distinction would be analogous to the difference
between a human being and a can opener. I consider these to be
contradictory (in other words, I take mechanical to be equivalent to
not personal, and vice versa) - thus I am saying a cause either is a
personal agent or it is not.
Now you claimed that being a personal agent is mechanical as well, and
while there may be causal processes involved in a personal agent
freely making a decision, to describe it as purely mechanical would
seem to take a hard determinist position. I, with all due respect,
have total disdain for hard determinism, and feel that if hard
determinism is true, no conversation is worthwhile (and this one
certainly breaks down). If we do have free will (as I believe,
admittedly due wholly to personal experience), then there has to be a
non-mechanical, uncaused element to our decision making, whatever that
may be.
You asked if nature could be the first cause. I would say it is
certainly possible, but I would argue that if that is the case
"nature" would have to be a personal agent. Why? Because I find the
notion of an uncaused (and a first cause is by definition uncaused
since it is not preceded by any causes) mechanical first cause to be
absurd. This is why, in the past, I have asked how one can conceive of
something getting up and moving uncaused, but not itself possessing
any volition. Hence my billiard ball analogies. Care to give your
thoughts up to this point?

And what about the probabilities?
P(E) probability that evil exists.
P(E|G) probability that evil exists, given God.

I think we would have to agree to a definition of evil, but there is
none that I have seen thus far that I agree with (and you're certainly
not going to side with the traditional monotheist notion of evil as
being that which "Gawd" condemns, possible examples being
homosexuality, eating pork, owning a dog, wearing polyester on
fridays, or watching reruns of the TV show "Friends"). I have always
felt that if there are no objective moral laws, we cannot sensibly
define evil, and then the argument from evil falls apart.
.
User: "Ron Baker, Pluralitas!"

Title: Re: For Ron Baker, Pluralitas, on first cause arguments and the existence of evil (was: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology) 04 Jun 2004 10:55:22 PM
"Nico Demusopelous" <nicodemus-asks@jesusanswers.com> wrote in message
news:2c68d44e.0406041748.2b6003e0@posting.google.com...

"Ron Baker, Pluralitas!" <rbaker4@msnn.com> wrote in message

news:<Bh3wc.10342$Ha2.9109@twister.socal.rr.com>...

...


Greetings Ron!

Hello Nico. :)


about logicians who agree that that which does not exist are
contradicitions?

We can demonstrate the non-existence of certain conceptions of God, as


Yes, to reasonable people, but when it comes to God
theists are not reasonable people.


Actually, I think there are many theists who enage in quite reasonable
discussions on the logical coherence of various conceptions of God
(William Lane Craig immediately comes to mind, and his various reasons
for why he adheres to one conception of God while rejecting others).

Hmm. I just pulled up a web page on him.
I'll have to read further.


well as the IPU, by showing that the notion is contradictory (some
have tried to do this, for example, with the notion of a being who is
both omnipotent and omniscient). For the IPU, if it is invisible, it
does not reflect light, which would mean it has no color, and thus is
not pink. If it is pink, it reflects light, and thus is not invisible.
The IPU is a contradiction, and does not exist.


Hey, it's a *joke*, man.
It pokes fun at theism by possesing similar ludicrous contradictions
and arbitrary properties.


I understand that, and was joking as well - hence the word "humorous"
in the title of the thread, and the attempt to give an ontological
argument for the PU's existence.

Yes, it was clearly there that you were being humorous
and I missed that. My bad.


<snip>

Hey Nico, are you giving up on your first cause
argument?
Did I miss a response to my last post?
Can nature be the first cause?


Sorry about the huge (possibly month long) delay. I got too
comfortable with my tendency before finals to only respond to the easy
discussions, and avoid the harder ones, and this carried on well after
finals ended nine days ago.

Cool. (What are you studying?)


Okay, if you don't mind me picking up the argument here, I'll respond
to the first cause thing now. If I recall correctly, you were willing
to concede (at least for the sake of moving the argument along) that
if we have a causal chain, that chain must be finite. Now, obviously a
finite causal chain must, by definition, have a first cause.

No objections so far.


Now I offered the binary that a cause can be either mechanical or
personal, and defined the former as lacking volition, while the latter
possesses it. So the distinction would be analogous to the difference
between a human being and a can opener. I consider these to be
contradictory (in other words, I take mechanical to be equivalent to
not personal, and vice versa)

I follow but I don't agree with that final dichotomy.
As I have said, I view volition as a
type of mechanical process.
Yes, a human can have volition but a can opener does not.

- thus I am saying a cause either is a
personal agent or it is not.

That sounds like something of a leap.
Remember my rain analogy.
Is there a cause in rain?
Is there a personal agent in rain?
Are we going to have to define 'cause'?


Now you claimed that being a personal agent is mechanical as well, and
while there may be causal processes involved in a personal agent
freely making a decision, to describe it as purely mechanical would
seem to take a hard determinist position. I, with all due respect,
have total disdain for hard determinism,

Fine.

and feel that if hard
determinism is true, no conversation is worthwhile (and this one
certainly breaks down).

I don't see that.
Does determinism allow for chaos or randomness?

If we do have free will (as I believe,
admittedly due wholly to personal experience), then there has to be a
non-mechanical, uncaused element to our decision making, whatever that
may be.

What is free will?

You asked if nature could be the first cause. I would say it is
certainly possible, but I would argue that if that is the case
"nature" would have to be a personal agent. Why? Because I find the
notion of an uncaused (and a first cause is by definition uncaused
since it is not preceded by any causes) mechanical first cause to be
absurd.

Why? Your view sounds like a matter of taste.

This is why, in the past, I have asked how one can conceive of
something getting up and moving uncaused, but not itself possessing
any volition. Hence my billiard ball analogies. Care to give your
thoughts up to this point?

Yup. See above, especially the rain thing.


And what about the probabilities?
P(E) probability that evil exists.
P(E|G) probability that evil exists, given God.


I think we would have to agree to a definition of evil, but there is
none that I have seen thus far that I agree with (and you're certainly
not going to side with the traditional monotheist notion of evil as
being that which "Gawd" condemns, possible examples being
homosexuality, eating pork, owning a dog, wearing polyester on
fridays, or watching reruns of the TV show "Friends").

;)

I have always
felt that if there are no objective moral laws, we cannot sensibly
define evil, and then the argument from evil falls apart.

Ooo.
Well there's a problem. You say there must be an
objective evil but you don't agree with any known
definition. That *is* a problem.
What is your best approximation?
I just had a long discussion with a Catholic fellow by
the name of Scott on this.
We were pretty much in agreement.
(For the record: he is practicing member of the RCC
and I am an atheist.)
We agreed that evil is subjective and relative.
To me, evil is whatever I don't like.
I don't like murder. (Because I don't want to be
murdered.)
I don't like stealing. (Because I don't want anybody
to steal from me.)
Because our perception is subjective I don't think
anything can be absolute or truely objective.
Evil is relative.
Despite that, I'm sure that we can both agree that
there is evil.
Or am I wrong? Are you going to argue that what
might commonly be called evil is not because it
is part of God's plan?
--
RB
.
User: "Nico Demusopelous"

Title: Re: For Ron Baker, Pluralitas, on first cause arguments and the existence of evil (was: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology) 05 Jun 2004 08:20:51 AM
"Ron Baker, Pluralitas!" <rbaker4@msnn.com> wrote in message news:<Kubwc.10750$Ha2.4368@twister.socal.rr.com>...

about logicians who agree that that which does not exist are
contradicitions?

We can demonstrate the non-existence of certain conceptions of God, as


Yes, to reasonable people, but when it comes to God
theists are not reasonable people.


Actually, I think there are many theists who enage in quite reasonable
discussions on the logical coherence of various conceptions of God
(William Lane Craig immediately comes to mind, and his various reasons
for why he adheres to one conception of God while rejecting others).


Hmm. I just pulled up a web page on him.
I'll have to read further.

For an example of theists attempting to call certain conceptions of
God into doubt on rational grounds, one need not look any further than
a Christian-Muslim debate. Many atheists have noted that the Romans
used to accuse the Christians of "atheism," and follow that by noting
that Christians are close to being atheists in the sense that they
deny the existence of every other deity. Muslims engage in the same
sort of religious particularism (dare I say Monotheistic chauvinism?).
One example might be the debate on the "Concept of God in Islam and
Christianity" between William Lane Craig and Shabir Ally, which can be
listened to for free here:
http://shabirally.com/debates.asp
The reason I bring this up, is because this is a fine example of Craig
attempting to deny a certain conception of God (the Islamic
conception) into doubt on rational grounds. Ally also, briefly,
attempts to call the Trinitarian conception of God into doubt on
rational grounds.

<snip>

Hey Nico, are you giving up on your first cause
argument?
Did I miss a response to my last post?
Can nature be the first cause?


Sorry about the huge (possibly month long) delay. I got too
comfortable with my tendency before finals to only respond to the easy
discussions, and avoid the harder ones, and this carried on well after
finals ended nine days ago.


Cool. (What are you studying?)

Mathematics and Philosophy. I already have my BA in Philosophy, and am
currently taking post-bach classes in Mathematics, while attending the
occasional graduate level philosophy course...

Now I offered the binary that a cause can be either mechanical or
personal, and defined the former as lacking volition, while the latter
possesses it. So the distinction would be analogous to the difference
between a human being and a can opener. I consider these to be
contradictory (in other words, I take mechanical to be equivalent to
not personal, and vice versa)


I follow but I don't agree with that final dichotomy.
As I have said, I view volition as a
type of mechanical process.
Yes, a human can have volition but a can opener does not.

The problem is whether or not a personal agent is purely mechanical,
or if there is some non-mechanical element to him. If it is purely
mechanical, he/she ceases to be a personal agent, I think. More on
this below...

- thus I am saying a cause either is a
personal agent or it is not.


That sounds like something of a leap.
Remember my rain analogy.
Is there a cause in rain?
Is there a personal agent in rain?

I think we can argue that rain is caused (by a process of evaporation
and condensation). I think one can sensibly argue that the immediate
cause of rain is purely mechanic (the process just mentioned).

Are we going to have to define 'cause'?

That is pretty hard to do, but I will tentatively define a cause as an
action(?) or agent that results in another thing moving or performing
an action. So if a billiard ball crashes into another billiard ball,
and the second one moves, I assume that the first one "caused" the
second one to move (though I imagine here we start to get into
problems). I think the notion of cause is pretty clear.

Now you claimed that being a personal agent is mechanical as well, and
while there may be causal processes involved in a personal agent
freely making a decision, to describe it as purely mechanical would
seem to take a hard determinist position. I, with all due respect,
have total disdain for hard determinism,


Fine.

and feel that if hard
determinism is true, no conversation is worthwhile (and this one
certainly breaks down).


I don't see that.

Does determinism allow for chaos or randomness?

Hard determinism, as far as I know, certainly does not. The position
of hard determinists is that every action, every decision, every
thought, was caused by some factor in the environment. There is no
free will.

If we do have free will (as I believe,
admittedly due wholly to personal experience), then there has to be a
non-mechanical, uncaused element to our decision making, whatever that
may be.


What is free will?

The ability to freely choose or make decisions. So, for example,
suppose I am looking at two doors, and after a moment of apparent
contemplation, walk through the second. A hard determinist would argue
that the only reason I did that was because of external factors that
caused me to do such - in no way did I actually freely choose to do
so. A believer in free will would argue that I freely chose to walk
through that door rather than the other (or at least there is the
possibility that I could have made a choice). There is a rough middle
ground, where we are moved towards certain choices, but still have a
choice (such a soft determinist position, I think, still, ultimately
leaves room for free will).

You asked if nature could be the first cause. I would say it is
certainly possible, but I would argue that if that is the case
"nature" would have to be a personal agent. Why? Because I find the
notion of an uncaused (and a first cause is by definition uncaused
since it is not preceded by any causes) mechanical first cause to be
absurd.


Why? Your view sounds like a matter of taste.

Maybe so, and maybe I'm the positive claimant here, but I really
cannot see this discussion progressing if the the otherside does not
present a sensible model of a non-personal (mechanical) agent moving
without being caused to do so.

This is why, in the past, I have asked how one can conceive of
something getting up and moving uncaused, but not itself possessing
any volition. Hence my billiard ball analogies. Care to give your
thoughts up to this point?


Yup. See above, especially the rain thing.

I don't understand the rain analogy. Care to elaborate?

And what about the probabilities?
P(E) probability that evil exists.
P(E|G) probability that evil exists, given God.


I think we would have to agree to a definition of evil, but there is
none that I have seen thus far that I agree with (and you're certainly
not going to side with the traditional monotheist notion of evil as
being that which "Gawd" condemns, possible examples being
homosexuality, eating pork, owning a dog, wearing polyester on
fridays, or watching reruns of the TV show "Friends").


;)

Glad we're in agreement thus far. =D

I have always
felt that if there are no objective moral laws, we cannot sensibly
define evil, and then the argument from evil falls apart.


Ooo.
Well there's a problem. You say there must be an
objective evil but you don't agree with any known
definition. That *is* a problem.
What is your best approximation?

Very quickly, I would note that I have not positively asserted that
there must be objective evil. It is actually my sincere position that
"evil" is purely subjective.

I just had a long discussion with a Catholic fellow by
the name of Scott on this.
We were pretty much in agreement.
(For the record: he is practicing member of the RCC
and I am an atheist.)
We agreed that evil is subjective and relative.

To me, evil is whatever I don't like.
I don't like murder. (Because I don't want to be
murdered.)
I don't like stealing. (Because I don't want anybody
to steal from me.)

Because our perception is subjective I don't think
anything can be absolute or truely objective.
Evil is relative.

Despite that, I'm sure that we can both agree that
there is evil.
Or am I wrong? Are you going to argue that what
might commonly be called evil is not because it
is part of God's plan?

What I would argue is roughly along the lines of the mutual conclusion
you and Scott reached: evil is purely subjective. While I am a huge
admirer of William Lane Craig, I disagree strongly with him on the
issue of objective moral laws. He claims that there are certain
actions that we can all agree are evil, and he gives the example of
raping a child. I disagree. While my own personal subjective notion of
morality results in me being strongly opposed to raping children,
human beings are no in unanamous agreement on this issue. Case in
point would be the ahaadeeth (Islamic traditions) that record that
Muhammad, in his fifties, consumated his marriage to his wife Ayesha
when she was only nine years old:
http://www.geocities.com/freethoughtmecca/vhadith.html
http://www.usc.edu/dept/MSA/fundamentals/hadithsunnah/bukhari/058.sbt.html#005.058.236
http://www.usc.edu/dept/MSA/fundamentals/hadithsunnah/bukhari/062.sbt.html#007.062.064
Regardless of whether these traditions are historically accurate (I
have my doubts), the fact is that many millions of Muslims accept them
as such. I, as a Westerner, cannot fathom how a man in his fifties
could engage in sexual intercourse with a nine year old girl without
the action being identical to rape. Of course, for many (though surely
not all!) Muslims, the notion of "rape" within marriage is absurd. If
a man is married to a girl (even one as young as nine), and forces
himself upon her, that is not rape to them.
The point of this long winded rant is that I can think of few things
more horrible than raping a child, but even this (under specific
circumstances) is not consider evil by millions of people.
Furthermore, taking the theistic definition of evil as "that which
Gawd condemns," it seems that most theistic religions firmly believe
that their God allows evil to exist (alleged evils that run the
gauntlette from murder to homosexuality to eating shellfish). So what
are the chances that this sort of God would exist given the existence
of "evil". It would seem that the existence of evil does not negate
the existence of this conception of God (which, it is presupposed,
allows evil to exist).
I look forward to your thoughts...
.
User: "Ron Baker, Pluralitas!"

Title: Re: For Ron Baker, Pluralitas, on first cause arguments and the existence of evil (was: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology) 05 Jun 2004 12:30:21 PM
"Nico Demusopelous" <nicodemus-asks@jesusanswers.com> wrote in message
news:2c68d44e.0406050520.79ebb30f@posting.google.com...

"Ron Baker, Pluralitas!" <rbaker4@msnn.com> wrote in message

news:<Kubwc.10750$Ha2.4368@twister.socal.rr.com>...

about logicians who agree that that which does not exist are
contradicitions?

We can demonstrate the non-existence of certain conceptions of

God, as


Yes, to reasonable people, but when it comes to God
theists are not reasonable people.


Actually, I think there are many theists who enage in quite reasonable
discussions on the logical coherence of various conceptions of God
(William Lane Craig immediately comes to mind, and his various reasons
for why he adheres to one conception of God while rejecting others).


Hmm. I just pulled up a web page on him.
I'll have to read further.


For an example of theists attempting to call certain conceptions of
God into doubt on rational grounds, one need not look any further than
a Christian-Muslim debate. Many atheists have noted that the Romans
used to accuse the Christians of "atheism," and follow that by noting
that Christians are close to being atheists in the sense that they
deny the existence of every other deity. Muslims engage in the same
sort of religious particularism (dare I say Monotheistic chauvinism?).

;)

One example might be the debate on the "Concept of God in Islam and
Christianity" between William Lane Craig and Shabir Ally, which can be
listened to for free here:

http://shabirally.com/debates.asp

I listened to the first 10 minutes or so.
I'm curious about the differences they might debate
but it is difficult to have great concern about the
theological fine points (such as how loving God is)
when the very 'existence of God' elephant is standing in
the room.
Video and text have their relative advantages.
I can read faster than they can talk but with the
video you can see the contemporaneous environment
and hear their inflection.
I'll give it another shot later.


The reason I bring this up, is because this is a fine example of Craig
attempting to deny a certain conception of God (the Islamic
conception) into doubt on rational grounds. Ally also, briefly,
attempts to call the Trinitarian conception of God into doubt on
rational grounds.

<snip>

Cool. (What are you studying?)


Mathematics and Philosophy. I already have my BA in Philosophy, and am
currently taking post-bach classes in Mathematics, while attending the
occasional graduate level philosophy course...

(That would explain the P(O|G) argument. :)
Cool. Good luck.


Now I offered the binary that a cause can be either mechanical or
personal, and defined the former as lacking volition, while the latter
possesses it. So the distinction would be analogous to the difference
between a human being and a can opener. I consider these to be
contradictory (in other words, I take mechanical to be equivalent to
not personal, and vice versa)


I follow but I don't agree with that final dichotomy.
As I have said, I view volition as a
type of mechanical process.
Yes, a human can have volition but a can opener does not.


The problem is whether or not a personal agent is purely mechanical,
or if there is some non-mechanical element to him. If it is purely
mechanical, he/she ceases to be a personal agent, I think. More on
this below...

- thus I am saying a cause either is a
personal agent or it is not.


That sounds like something of a leap.
Remember my rain analogy.
Is there a cause in rain?
Is there a personal agent in rain?


I think we can argue that rain is caused (by a process of evaporation
and condensation). I think one can sensibly argue that the immediate
cause of rain is purely mechanic (the process just mentioned).

OK.


Are we going to have to define 'cause'?


That is pretty hard to do, but I will tentatively define a cause as an
action(?) or agent that results in another thing moving or performing
an action. So if a billiard ball crashes into another billiard ball,
and the second one moves, I assume that the first one "caused" the
second one to move (though I imagine here we start to get into
problems). I think the notion of cause is pretty clear.

I think we can proceed.
(But let me present this: cause is the changing of the configuration
of one system of matter/energy by interaction with
another system of matter/energy.
In which case the universe has a beginning but no cause.)


Now you claimed that being a personal agent is mechanical as well, and
while there may be causal processes involved in a personal agent
freely making a decision, to describe it as purely mechanical would
seem to take a hard determinist position. I, with all due respect,
have total disdain for hard determinism,


Fine.

and feel that if hard
determinism is true, no conversation is worthwhile (and this one
certainly breaks down).


I don't see that.

Does determinism allow for chaos or randomness?


Hard determinism, as far as I know, certainly does not. The position

Quatum Mechanics says that some physical actions are
absolutely random.
QM has convinced me.
In addition there is chaos theory: that with repetitive nonlinear systems,
even given perfect knowledge of the initial conditions and the
rules of operation, the state at some time in the future is not
predictable.
I would think that determinism could accommodate the above
randomness and chaos, no?
Or is it called something else? Or are there different
versions of determinism?

of hard determinists is that every action, every decision, every
thought, was caused by some factor in the environment. There is no
free will.

If we do have free will (as I believe,
admittedly due wholly to personal experience), then there has to be a
non-mechanical, uncaused element to our decision making, whatever that
may be.


What is free will?


The ability to freely choose or make decisions. So, for example,

Then my computer has free will.

suppose I am looking at two doors, and after a moment of apparent
contemplation, walk through the second. A hard determinist would argue
that the only reason I did that was because of external factors that
caused me to do such - in no way did I actually freely choose to do
so. A believer in free will would argue that I freely chose to walk

What is 'freely chose'?

through that door rather than the other (or at least there is the
possibility that I could have made a choice). There is a rough middle
ground, where we are moved towards certain choices, but still have a
choice (such a soft determinist position, I think, still, ultimately
leaves room for free will).

I think this is basically an ad ignorantiam argument.
The mechanism of decission is so complex plus random
and chaotic that it is hard to recognize.
Do dogs have free will?
Do jelly fish have free will?
Do amoebae have free will?


You asked if nature could be the first cause. I would say it is
certainly possible, but I would argue that if that is the case
"nature" would have to be a personal agent. Why? Because I find the
notion of an uncaused (and a first cause is by definition uncaused
since it is not preceded by any causes) mechanical first cause to be
absurd.


Why? Your view sounds like a matter of taste.


Maybe so, and maybe I'm the positive claimant here, but I really
cannot see this discussion progressing if the the otherside does not
present a sensible model of a non-personal (mechanical) agent moving
without being caused to do so.

I'm sorry but the burden is really yours.
How can you say that the universe can't *just be*
but say that God *can* *just be*?
Why must the uncaused cause have volition?
Why can't the uncaused cause be absent volition?
What do you have other than 'gut feel' that
the uncaused cause has volition?
What is this supposed volition or will?
What does the uncaused cause desire?
Maybe this will help you with the argument:
The universe is filled with details (orderly and chaotic)
that have no corelation with any of the supposed
wills of God that I have heard.


This is why, in the past, I have asked how one can conceive of
something getting up and moving uncaused, but not itself possessing
any volition. Hence my billiard ball analogies. Care to give your
thoughts up to this point?


Yup. See above, especially the rain thing.


I don't understand the rain analogy. Care to elaborate?

(The rain analogy may no longer fit with my
current understanding of your position.)
It seems you are saying that if something moves the
cause is either purely mechanical or it contains
non-mechanical volition.
Let me ask you, how do you tell the difference?


And what about the probabilities?
P(E) probability that evil exists.
P(E|G) probability that evil exists, given God.


I think we would have to agree to a definition of evil, but there is
none that I have seen thus far that I agree with (and you're certainly
not going to side with the traditional monotheist notion of evil as
being that which "Gawd" condemns, possible examples being
homosexuality, eating pork, owning a dog, wearing polyester on
fridays, or watching reruns of the TV show "Friends").


;)


Glad we're in agreement thus far. =D

I have always
felt that if there are no objective moral laws, we cannot sensibly
define evil, and then the argument from evil falls apart.


Ooo.
Well there's a problem. You say there must be an
objective evil but you don't agree with any known
definition. That *is* a problem.
What is your best approximation?


Very quickly, I would note that I have not positively asserted that
there must be objective evil. It is actually my sincere position that
"evil" is purely subjective.

Does the same go for 'good' or 'order'?


I just had a long discussion with a Catholic fellow by
the name of Scott on this.
We were pretty much in agreement.
(For the record: he is practicing member of the RCC
and I am an atheist.)
We agreed that evil is subjective and relative.

(And I just remembered that he also said that the Pope
is infallible. ;)


To me, evil is whatever I don't like.
I don't like murder. (Because I don't want to be
murdered.)
I don't like stealing. (Because I don't want anybody
to steal from me.)

Because our perception is subjective I don't think
anything can be absolute or truely objective.
Evil is relative.

Despite that, I'm sure that we can both agree that
there is evil.
Or am I wrong? Are you going to argue that what
might commonly be called evil is not because it
is part of God's plan?


What I would argue is roughly along the lines of the mutual conclusion
you and Scott reached: evil is purely subjective. While I am a huge
admirer of William Lane Craig, I disagree strongly with him on the
issue of objective moral laws. He claims that there are certain
actions that we can all agree are evil, and he gives the example of
raping a child. I disagree. While my own personal subjective notion of
morality results in me being strongly opposed to raping children,
human beings are no in unanamous agreement on this issue. Case in
point would be the ahaadeeth (Islamic traditions) that record that
Muhammad, in his fifties, consumated his marriage to his wife Ayesha
when she was only nine years old:

http://www.geocities.com/freethoughtmecca/vhadith.html

http://www.usc.edu/dept/MSA/fundamentals/hadithsunnah/bukhari/058.sbt.html#005.058.236


http://www.usc.edu/dept/MSA/fundamentals/hadithsunnah/bukhari/062.sbt.html#007.062.064


Regardless of whether these traditions are historically accurate (I
have my doubts), the fact is that many millions of Muslims accept them
as such. I, as a Westerner, cannot fathom how a man in his fifties
could engage in sexual intercourse with a nine year old girl without
the action being identical to rape. Of course, for many (though surely
not all!) Muslims, the notion of "rape" within marriage is absurd. If
a man is married to a girl (even one as young as nine), and forces
himself upon her, that is not rape to them.

The point of this long winded rant is that I can think of few things
more horrible than raping a child, but even this (under specific
circumstances) is not consider evil by millions of people.

In discussion of the subjectivity of evil the extreme examples
are typically cited.
The objectivist typically responds "Obviously (Hitler, say) was evil".
The current constant low level (sorta) nagging social issues can
effectively be used in such an argument.
They are problems of evil. e.g. the death penalty, abortion,
homosexuality, extra-legal punishment.
You can show rational persons and views on both sides of most of
those issues, issues that are not extreme or black and white
but still issues of evil.
If you present one of those complicated issues to the objectivist
and ask for the objective truth he will have to either conceed
subjectivism or ludicrously insist that their own personal view is the
objective truth.


Furthermore, taking the theistic definition of evil as "that which
Gawd condemns," it seems that most theistic religions firmly believe
that their God allows evil to exist (alleged evils that run the
gauntlette from murder to homosexuality to eating shellfish). So what

There is much discussion of evil in the Bible.
The Bible says evil exists.

are the chances that this sort of God would exist given the existence
of "evil". It would seem that the existence of evil does not negate
the existence of this conception of God (which, it is presupposed,
allows evil to exist).

By itself, the existence of evil does not negate
all deity concepts.
But the existence of evil may be contradictory,
conflicting, or incompatible with the other supposed
properties of God.


I look forward to your thoughts...

:)
--
RB
.
User: "Nico Demusopelous"

Title: Re: For Ron Baker, Pluralitas, on first cause arguments and the existence of evil (was: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology) 07 Jun 2004 06:28:38 PM
"Ron Baker, Pluralitas!" <rbaker4@msnn.com> wrote in message news:<Nqnwc.31125$wO4.4833@twister.socal.rr.com>...

We can demonstrate the non-existence of certain conceptions of
God, as


Yes, to reasonable people, but when it comes to God
theists are not reasonable people.


Actually, I think there are many theists who enage in quite reasonable
discussions on the logical coherence of various conceptions of God
(William Lane Craig immediately comes to mind, and his various reasons
for why he adheres to one conception of God while rejecting others).


Hmm. I just pulled up a web page on him.
I'll have to read further.


For an example of theists attempting to call certain conceptions of
God into doubt on rational grounds, one need not look any further than
a Christian-Muslim debate. Many atheists have noted that the Romans
used to accuse the Christians of "atheism," and follow that by noting
that Christians are close to being atheists in the sense that they
deny the existence of every other deity. Muslims engage in the same
sort of religious particularism (dare I say Monotheistic chauvinism?).


;)

One example might be the debate on the "Concept of God in Islam and
Christianity" between William Lane Craig and Shabir Ally, which can be
listened to for free here:

http://shabirally.com/debates.asp


I listened to the first 10 minutes or so.
I'm curious about the differences they might debate
but it is difficult to have great concern about the
theological fine points (such as how loving God is)
when the very 'existence of God' elephant is standing in
the room.

I find this debate to be very interesting, because Muslims generally
come out on top in Muslim-Christian debate (mainly because the Muslim
debater repeats a bunch of Biblical contradictions memorized before
the debate, while the Christian is wholly ignorant of Islam and the
Qur'an, thus giving many in attendance that Islam some how wins by
default), however in this debate the Christian clearly won. What's
worse, the Christian won on the very subject that Christians are
generally afraid to debate with Muslims: the ontology of God (as the
monadic ontology that Islam's strict Monotheist posits for God is so
easy to present to a crowd, while the Trinity often results in tangled
arguments). Craig even gives Swinburne's argument for why traditional
theists should side with a multipersonal conception of God rather than
a monadic/unipersonal ontology...

Video and text have their relative advantages.
I can read faster than they can talk but with the
video you can see the contemporaneous environment
and hear their inflection.
I'll give it another shot later.

They sell the video on both Craig and Ally's respective sites, and I
do not think a text transcript yet exists...

Are we going to have to define 'cause'?


That is pretty hard to do, but I will tentatively define a cause as an
action(?) or agent that results in another thing moving or performing
an action. So if a billiard ball crashes into another billiard ball,
and the second one moves, I assume that the first one "caused" the
second one to move (though I imagine here we start to get into
problems). I think the notion of cause is pretty clear.


I think we can proceed.
(But let me present this: cause is the changing of the configuration
of one system of matter/energy by interaction with
another system of matter/energy.
In which case the universe has a beginning but no cause.)

Hmmmm... Interesting. It'll probably take me a while to digest this
defintion of cause, and why it results in, necessarily, the universe
being uncaused.

and feel that if hard
determinism is true, no conversation is worthwhile (and this one
certainly breaks down).


I don't see that.

Does determinism allow for chaos or randomness?


Hard determinism, as far as I know, certainly does not. The position


Quatum Mechanics says that some physical actions are
absolutely random.
QM has convinced me.

The big question on my mind has always been the following: on what
philosophical grounds could one ever conclude that an event just
witnessed was truly random or uncaused.?

In addition there is chaos theory: that with repetitive nonlinear systems,
even given perfect knowledge of the initial conditions and the
rules of operation, the state at some time in the future is not
predictable.

I know absolutely nothing about Chaos theory. Care to recommend a
book?

I would think that determinism could accommodate the above
randomness and chaos, no?

Well, at least in the sense that it is at least possible for the above
claims to be true, while the actions of human beings being truly
deterministic. I suppose.

Or is it called something else? Or are there different
versions of determinism?

Maybe there's a bunch (i.e. more than three), but I haven't done the
sufficient reading on this subject.

If we do have free will (as I believe,
admittedly due wholly to personal experience), then there has to be a
non-mechanical, uncaused element to our decision making, whatever that
may be.


What is free will?


The ability to freely choose or make decisions. So, for example,


Then my computer has free will.

Does it freely choose or make decisions? Or does it only do what it is
commanded to do? This leads to an issue that I, as a person with no
real background in computer science or programming, have grappled
with: I have tinkered with computer programs (the first being
Hypercard for the mac back in the early 90s) that could allegedly do
things at random (most recently I've done this with Java script). I
mean, you tell the computer, for example, to pick a number, at random,
from 1 to 10, and if it is 1, do action A, if 2, perform action B, et
cetera. The problem I have pondered is this: is it truly random, and
if so, how? I wonder this because if these choices actually are
random, much of my argumentation falls away (at least with regard to
causality). If a computer can actually do something that is perfectly
random, that is akin to a choice being made in a vacuum, something
purely mechanical happening uncaused. Is this what you were alluding
to? It is an interesting subject, but one I know next to nothing
about.

suppose I am looking at two doors, and after a moment of apparent
contemplation, walk through the second. A hard determinist would argue
that the only reason I did that was because of external factors that
caused me to do such - in no way did I actually freely choose to do
so. A believer in free will would argue that I freely chose to walk


What is 'freely chose'?

Um, I'm not sure how to answer. With all due respect, I figured it was
obvious. I mean to be able to choose, rather than being forced to make
that choice.

through that door rather than the other (or at least there is the
possibility that I could have made a choice). There is a rough middle
ground, where we are moved towards certain choices, but still have a
choice (such a soft determinist position, I think, still, ultimately
leaves room for free will).


I think this is basically an ad ignorantiam argument.
The mechanism of decission is so complex plus random
and chaotic that it is hard to recognize.

Do dogs have free will?

I think it is possible. Pavlov be damned.

Do jelly fish have free will?
Do amoebae have free will?

I think it becomes highly unlikely this low on the intelligence scale.

You asked if nature could be the first cause. I would say it is
certainly possible, but I would argue that if that is the case
"nature" would have to be a personal agent. Why? Because I find the
notion of an uncaused (and a first cause is by definition uncaused
since it is not preceded by any causes) mechanical first cause to be
absurd.


Why? Your view sounds like a matter of taste.


Maybe so, and maybe I'm the positive claimant here, but I really
cannot see this discussion progressing if the the otherside does not
present a sensible model of a non-personal (mechanical) agent moving
without being caused to do so.


I'm sorry but the burden is really yours.

I know. I conceded to that above when I wrote that I'm the positive
claimant, though the concession was admittedly soft since it was
prefaced by the word "maybe."

How can you say that the universe can't *just be*
but say that God *can* *just be*?

The universe it self could, I suppose, just be, which is why my
version of the first cause argument talks strictly about cause and
effect, and the nature of a first cause in a causal chain.

Why must the uncaused cause have volition?
Why can't the uncaused cause be absent volition?
What do you have other than 'gut feel' that
the uncaused cause has volition?
What is this supposed volition or will?
What does the uncaused cause desire?

Maybe it is not much more than a gut feeling, but it is ultimately
from a disjunctive syllogism. I imagine a first cause being personal
or mechanical, and then find the idea of a mechanical first cause to
be simply absurd. It is like a can opener, for no reason, getting up
and opening a can on its own.

Maybe this will help you with the argument:
The universe is filled with details (orderly and chaotic)
that have no corelation with any of the supposed
wills of God that I have heard.

I don't understand. Elaborate.

This is why, in the past, I have asked how one can conceive of
something getting up and moving uncaused, but not itself possessing
any volition. Hence my billiard ball analogies. Care to give your
thoughts up to this point?


Yup. See above, especially the rain thing.


I don't understand the rain analogy. Care to elaborate?


(The rain analogy may no longer fit with my
current understanding of your position.)

It seems you are saying that if something moves the
cause is either purely mechanical or it contains
non-mechanical volition.
Let me ask you, how do you tell the difference?

Well, in certain instances we may not be able to tell the difference.
The difference (whether we can spot it or not) would, however, be
whether the cause had some sort of consciousness/volition.

And what about the probabilities?
P(E) probability that evil exists.
P(E|G) probability that evil exists, given God.


I think we would have to agree to a definition of evil, but there is
none that I have seen thus far that I agree with (and you're certainly
not going to side with the traditional monotheist notion of evil as
being that which "Gawd" condemns, possible examples being
homosexuality, eating pork, owning a dog, wearing polyester on
fridays, or watching reruns of the TV show "Friends").


;)


Glad we're in agreement thus far. =D

I have always
felt that if there are no objective moral laws, we cannot sensibly
define evil, and then the argument from evil falls apart.


Ooo.
Well there's a problem. You say there must be an
objective evil but you don't agree with any known
definition. That *is* a problem.
What is your best approximation?


Very quickly, I would note that I have not positively asserted that
there must be objective evil. It is actually my sincere position that
"evil" is purely subjective.


Does the same go for 'good' or 'order'?

Good? Yes. Order? I'm not so sure. I think order is very clear, like
the difference between a puddle and a toy car. The latter has parts
that fit together and have a purpose, and were not just thrown
together in any order (though I suppose on the atomic level the same
could be said of water in a puddle).

I just had a long discussion with a Catholic fellow by
the name of Scott on this.
We were pretty much in agreement.
(For the record: he is practicing member of the RCC
and I am an atheist.)
We agreed that evil is subjective and relative.


(And I just remembered that he also said that the Pope
is infallible. ;)

That is becoming a tough position to maintain with the Popes
disagreeing with one another, condemning positions past Popes
affirmed. Oh well...

To me, evil is whatever I don't like.
I don't like murder. (Because I don't want to be
murdered.)
I don't like stealing. (Because I don't want anybody
to steal from me.)

Because our perception is subjective I don't think
anything can be absolute or truely objective.
Evil is relative.

Despite that, I'm sure that we can both agree that
there is evil.
Or am I wrong? Are you going to argue that what
might commonly be called evil is not because it
is part of God's plan?


What I would argue is roughly along the lines of the mutual conclusion
you and Scott reached: evil is purely subjective. While I am a huge
admirer of William Lane Craig, I disagree strongly with him on the
issue of objective moral laws. He claims that there are certain
actions that we can all agree are evil, and he gives the example of
raping a child. I disagree. While my own personal subjective notion of
morality results in me being strongly opposed to raping children,
human beings are no in unanamous agreement on this issue. Case in
point would be the ahaadeeth (Islamic traditions) that record that
Muhammad, in his fifties, consumated his marriage to his wife Ayesha
when she was only nine years old:

http://www.geocities.com/freethoughtmecca/vhadith.html

http://www.usc.edu/dept/MSA/fundamentals/hadithsunnah/bukhari/058.sbt.html#005.058.236


http://www.usc.edu/dept/MSA/fundamentals/hadithsunnah/bukhari/062.sbt.html#007.062.064


Regardless of whether these traditions are historically accurate (I
have my doubts), the fact is that many millions of Muslims accept them
as such. I, as a Westerner, cannot fathom how a man in his fifties
could engage in sexual intercourse with a nine year old girl without
the action being identical to rape. Of course, for many (though surely
not all!) Muslims, the notion of "rape" within marriage is absurd. If
a man is married to a girl (even one as young as nine), and forces
himself upon her, that is not rape to them.

The point of this long winded rant is that I can think of few things
more horrible than raping a child, but even this (under specific
circumstances) is not consider evil by millions of people.


In discussion of the subjectivity of evil the extreme examples
are typically cited.
The objectivist typically responds "Obviously (Hitler, say) was evil".
The current constant low level (sorta) nagging social issues can
effectively be used in such an argument.
They are problems of evil. e.g. the death penalty, abortion,
homosexuality, extra-legal punishment.
You can show rational persons and views on both sides of most of
those issues, issues that are not extreme or black and white
but still issues of evil.
If you present one of those complicated issues to the objectivist
and ask for the objective truth he will have to either conceed
subjectivism or ludicrously insist that their own personal view is the
objective truth.

Okay.

Furthermore, taking the theistic definition of evil as "that which
Gawd condemns," it seems that most theistic religions firmly believe
that their God allows evil to exist (alleged evils that run the
gauntlette from murder to homosexuality to eating shellfish). So what


There is much discussion of evil in the Bible.
The Bible says evil exists.

I agree, though "evil" according to the Bible (or according to popular
Judeo-Christian exegesis applied to the Bible) often includes, as per
the definition above, that which God condemns (such as homosexuality,
fabricating representations of God to serve as a focal point during
worship, eating shell fish, or possibly even having long hair). I
think the Biblical conception of evil would be drastically different
from your own.

are the chances that this sort of God would exist given the existence
of "evil". It would seem that the existence of evil does not negate
the existence of this conception of God (which, it is presupposed,
allows evil to exist).


By itself, the existence of evil does not negate
all deity concepts.
But the existence of evil may be contradictory,
conflicting, or incompatible with the other supposed
properties of God.

Agreed, particularly a deity who is defined as being opposed to
actions that continue to take place while simultaneously being able to
stop such actions. Traditional argument from evil sort of deal...
.
User: "Ron Baker, Pluralitas!"

Title: Re: For Ron Baker, Pluralitas, on first cause arguments and the existence of evil (was: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology) 09 Jun 2004 09:50:29 AM
"Nico Demusopelous" <nicodemus-asks@jesusanswers.com> wrote in message
news:2c68d44e.0406071528.15aa43dd@posting.google.com...

"Ron Baker, Pluralitas!" <rbaker4@msnn.com> wrote in message

news:<Nqnwc.31125$wO4.4833@twister.socal.rr.com>...
<snip>
<parallel post>
Here is a transcript from a very interesting TV program
that shows how mechanical the 'personal' is:
http://www.pbs.org/wgbh/nova/transcripts/2812mind.html
--
RB
.

User: "Ron Baker, Pluralitas!"

Title: Re: For Ron Baker, Pluralitas, on first cause arguments and the existence of evil (was: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology) 07 Jun 2004 11:07:46 PM
"Nico Demusopelous" <nicodemus-asks@jesusanswers.com> wrote in message
news:2c68d44e.0406071528.15aa43dd@posting.google.com...

"Ron Baker, Pluralitas!" <rbaker4@msnn.com> wrote in message

news:<Nqnwc.31125$wO4.4833@twister.socal.rr.com>...

We can demonstrate the non-existence of certain conceptions of
God, as


Yes, to reasonable people, but when it comes to God
theists are not reasonable people.


Actually, I think there are many theists who enage in quite

reasonable

discussions on the logical coherence of various conceptions of God
(William Lane Craig immediately comes to mind, and his various

reasons

for why he adheres to one conception of God while rejecting

others).


Hmm. I just pulled up a web page on him.
I'll have to read further.


For an example of theists attempting to call certain conceptions of
God into doubt on rational grounds, one need not look any further than
a Christian-Muslim debate. Many atheists have noted that the Romans
used to accuse the Christians of "atheism," and follow that by noting
that Christians are close to being atheists in the sense that they
deny the existence of every other deity. Muslims engage in the same
sort of religious particularism (dare I say Monotheistic chauvinism?).


;)

One example might be the debate on the "Concept of God in Islam and
Christianity" between William Lane Craig and Shabir Ally, which can be
listened to for free here:

http://shabirally.com/debates.asp


I listened to the first 10 minutes or so.
I'm curious about the differences they might debate
but it is difficult to have great concern about the
theological fine points (such as how loving God is)
when the very 'existence of God' elephant is standing in
the room.


I find this debate to be very interesting, because Muslims generally
come out on top in Muslim-Christian debate (mainly because the Muslim
debater repeats a bunch of Biblical contradictions memorized before
the debate, while the Christian is wholly ignorant of Islam and the
Qur'an, thus giving many in attendance that Islam some how wins by
default), however in this debate the Christian clearly won. What's
worse, the Christian won on the very subject that Christians are
generally afraid to debate with Muslims: the ontology of God (as the
monadic ontology that Islam's strict Monotheist posits for God is so
easy to present to a crowd, while the Trinity often results in tangled
arguments). Craig even gives Swinburne's argument for why traditional
theists should side with a multipersonal conception of God rather than
a monadic/unipersonal ontology...

Video and text have their relative advantages.
I can read faster than they can talk but with the
video you can see the contemporaneous environment
and hear their inflection.
I'll give it another shot later.


They sell the video on both Craig and Ally's respective sites, and I
do not think a text transcript yet exists...

Are we going to have to define 'cause'?


That is pretty hard to do, but I will tentatively define a cause as an
action(?) or agent that results in another thing moving or performing
an action. So if a billiard ball crashes into another billiard ball,
and the second one moves, I assume that the first one "caused" the
second one to move (though I imagine here we start to get into
problems). I think the notion of cause is pretty clear.


I think we can proceed.
(But let me present this: cause is the changing of the configuration
of one system of matter/energy by interaction with
another system of matter/energy.
In which case the universe has a beginning but no cause.)


Hmmmm... Interesting. It'll probably take me a while to digest this
defintion of cause, and why it results in, necessarily, the universe
being uncaused.

Because there was nothing to interact or 'cause' before
the universe began.


and feel that if hard
determinism is true, no conversation is worthwhile (and this one
certainly breaks down).


I don't see that.

Does determinism allow for chaos or randomness?


Hard determinism, as far as I know, certainly does not. The position


Quatum Mechanics says that some physical actions are
absolutely random.
QM has convinced me.


The big question on my mind has always been the following: on what
philosophical grounds could one ever conclude that an event just
witnessed was truly random or uncaused.?

I don't have neat little explanation, just some rough ones.
You have a lump of plutonium. Atoms in it are randomly
decaying. There is no way to tell which atom will be next
to decay. If you look at an atom there is no way to tell
when it will decay. There is nothing coming out of it to
tell you anything about what is going on inside.
If you probe it, you change it in an unpredictable way.
You've heard of the uncertainty principle.
At the atomic and smaller scales you can't know both
the position and speed of a particle at the same time.
If you probe an atom with a particle you can't know
the position and speed of the particle exactly.
So you don't know what change you've made to the atom.
So whatever you learn from probing it, you don't
know what it would have done if left alone.
The only possible description of the decay process
is statistical.


In addition there is chaos theory: that with repetitive nonlinear

systems,

even given perfect knowledge of the initial conditions and the
rules of operation, the state at some time in the future is not
predictable.


I know absolutely nothing about Chaos theory. Care to recommend a
book?

I'd say start here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chaos_theory


I would think that determinism could accommodate the above
randomness and chaos, no?


Well, at least in the sense that it is at least possible for the above
claims to be true, while the actions of human beings being truly
deterministic. I suppose.

Or is it called something else? Or are there different
versions of determinism?


Maybe there's a bunch (i.e. more than three), but I haven't done the
sufficient reading on this subject.

If we do have free will (as I believe,
admittedly due wholly to personal experience), then there has to

be a

non-mechanical, uncaused element to our decision making, whatever

that

may be.


What is free will?


The ability to freely choose or make decisions. So, for example,


Then my computer has free will.


Does it freely choose or make decisions? Or does it only do what it is
commanded to do?

It certainly does things I don't tell it to do. ;)
A computer is programmed. A computer is commanded.
But so are you.
In the old days computers and programs were pretty simple.
The 'choosing' they did was obvious and almost trivial.
Now with multiple interacting programs from different
authors and the fact that the computer is also constantly
receiving input from many (quasi-random)
sources, it is becoming harder to
say what the exact qualitative difference is between that
and 'free will'.
I think computers are likely to have real personalities
in a couple decades.
You should hear Ray Kurzweil talk.
I think he is too optimistic and hyperbolic but he
does illuminate possibilities.
You are programmed. By being raised in this society
you were programmed with certain ethic, values and
views. You will 'freely choose' differently than someone
from another society. Is that really free will?
You can't deny that choosing is a brain function.
Much of the logical wiring of your brain was
completed at birth. Much of your personality is
inherited. Twin studies have shown this.
Much of your free will is shown to be not free.
The brain is complex enough to be chaotic
(in the sense of chaos theory above).
That means there are most likely ordinary causes to your choices
to which one cannot trace.
I don't think there are any nonordinary or supernatural
causes to your choices.
Your free will is 100% corelated with your brain function.

This leads to an issue that I, as a person with no
real background in computer science or programming, have grappled
with: I have tinkered with computer programs (the first being
Hypercard for the mac back in the early 90s) that could allegedly do
things at random (most recently I've done this with Java script). I
mean, you tell the computer, for example, to pick a number, at random,
from 1 to 10, and if it is 1, do action A, if 2, perform action B, et
cetera. The problem I have pondered is this: is it truly random, and
if so, how?

Typically it is just pseudo random.
It starts with a seed number and then repeats
a nonlinear process on it of a number of times.
(It is related to that chaos theory.)
The result is pseudo random, not truely random.
It can be made more random by making a pseudo
random choice for the seed, e.g. the current clock time.
(Special hardware can generate truely random numbers
but that is almost never needed or used in PCs.)

I wonder this because if these choices actually are
random, much of my argumentation falls away (at least with regard to
causality). If a computer can actually do something that is perfectly
random, that is akin to a choice being made in a vacuum, something
purely mechanical happening uncaused. Is this what you were alluding
to?

Generally yes. A mechanical (electronic) logic system can
be built with logic, 'chaotic' complexity, random elements,
and random inputs, i.e. posessing all the same things that
give the brain what appears to be free will.

It is an interesting subject, but one I know next to nothing
about.

suppose I am looking at two doors, and after a moment of apparent
contemplation, walk through the second. A hard determinist would argue
that the only reason I did that was because of external factors that
caused me to do such - in no way did I actually freely choose to do
so. A believer in free will would argue that I freely chose to walk


What is 'freely chose'?


Um, I'm not sure how to answer. With all due respect, I figured it was
obvious.

:) It has been an unquestioned assumption for you up til now.
Consider the possibility that it is a mechanical process,
a wet, chemical, complex, chaoticly complex, somewhat
random process.
Then tell me how you would distinguish that from
'free will'.

I mean to be able to choose, rather than being forced to make
that choice.

What do you mean by forced?


through that door rather than the other (or at least there is the
possibility that I could have made a choice). There is a rough middle
ground, where we are moved towards certain choices, but still have a
choice (such a soft determinist position, I think, still, ultimately
leaves room for free will).


I think this is basically an ad ignorantiam argument.
The mechanism of decission is so complex plus random
and chaotic that it is hard to recognize.

Do dogs have free will?


I think it is possible. Pavlov be damned.

(Pavlov's process works on free willing humans too.)


Do jelly fish have free will?
Do amoebae have free will?


I think it becomes highly unlikely this low on the intelligence scale.

Which illustrates the rigid connection between
neurological processes and 'free will'.


You asked if nature could be the first cause. I would say it is
certainly possible, but I would argue that if that is the case
"nature" would have to be a personal agent. Why? Because I find

the

notion of an uncaused (and a first cause is by definition uncaused
since it is not preceded by any causes) mechanical first cause to

be

absurd.


Why? Your view sounds like a matter of taste.


Maybe so, and maybe I'm the positive claimant here, but I really
cannot see this discussion progressing if the the otherside does not
present a sensible model of a non-personal (mechanical) agent moving
without being caused to do so.


I'm sorry but the burden is really yours.


I know. I conceded to that above when I wrote that I'm the positive
claimant, though the concession was admittedly soft since it was
prefaced by the word "maybe."

:)


How can you say that the universe can't *just be*
but say that God *can* *just be*?


The universe it self could, I suppose, just be, which is why my
version of the first cause argument talks strictly about cause and
effect, and the nature of a first cause in a causal chain.

Why must the uncaused cause have volition?
Why can't the uncaused cause be absent volition?
What do you have other than 'gut feel' that
the uncaused cause has volition?
What is this supposed volition or will?
What does the uncaused cause desire?


Maybe it is not much more than a gut feeling, but it is ultimately
from a disjunctive syllogism. I imagine a first cause being personal
or mechanical, and then find the idea of a mechanical first cause to
be simply absurd. It is like a can opener, for no reason, getting up
and opening a can on its own.

As I have argued, I view 'personal' as just a configuration
of 'mechanical' so it is not a choice between the two.
I view the universe as the first uncaused cause and
it just popped (or Banged) into existance 15 billion years ago.
You would seem to argue that God is the first uncause cause
that caused the universe.
But before there was a unverse (which includes all time
and matter) what could God be doing? Twiddling his thumbs?
If there was no universe how could there be a God
or how could he be said to exist?
Maybe they pop into existance at the same time
So if they both popped into existance at the same
time, how can you say one created the other?
What does this God concept add?
What good is this God?
You didn't address that last question from before
and I am curious about it.
What desire did the uncaused cause have in
the first causing?


Maybe this will help you with the argument:
The universe is filled with details (orderly and chaotic)
that have no corelation with any of the supposed
wills of God that I have heard.


I don't understand. Elaborate.

Why are there quarks? Why are there atoms?
Why isn't water just water with no finer structure?
Why isn't air just air without finer structure?
Why are there billions of whole galaxies that
we will never be able to interact with?
None of these details to the universe is necessary
for us to live in the world as children of
God as related in the Bible.
If God's will is as described in the Bible, none
of those details is necessary.


This is why, in the past, I have asked how one can conceive of
something getting up and moving uncaused, but not itself

possessing

any volition. Hence my billiard ball analogies. Care to give your
thoughts up to this point?


Yup. See above, especially the rain thing.


I don't understand the rain analogy. Care to elaborate?


(The rain analogy may no longer fit with my
current understanding of your position.)

It seems you are saying that if something moves the
cause is either purely mechanical or it contains
non-mechanical volition.
Let me ask you, how do you tell the difference?


Well, in certain instances we may not be able to tell the difference.

I say it is all instances.

The difference (whether we can spot it or not) would, however, be
whether the cause had some sort of consciousness/volition.

Wha? Come on, Nico. That logic is no good.
If you can't spot it how do you know it is there?
Give me one example of non-mechanical volition
that can be spotted.


And what about the probabilities?
P(E) probability that evil exists.
P(E|G) probability that evil exists, given God.


I think we would have to agree to a definition of evil, but there

is

none that I have seen thus far that I agree with (and you're

certainly

not going to side with the traditional monotheist notion of evil

as

being that which "Gawd" condemns, possible examples being
homosexuality, eating pork, owning a dog, wearing polyester on
fridays, or watching reruns of the TV show "Friends").


;)


Glad we're in agreement thus far. =D

I have always
felt that if there are no objective moral laws, we cannot sensibly
define evil, and then the argument from evil falls apart.


Ooo.
Well there's a problem. You say there must be an
objective evil but you don't agree with any known
definition. That *is* a problem.
What is your best approximation?


Very quickly, I would note that I have not positively asserted that
there must be objective evil. It is actually my sincere position that
"evil" is purely subjective.


Does the same go for 'good' or 'order'?


Good? Yes. Order? I'm not so sure. I think order is very clear, like
the difference between a puddle and a toy car. The latter has parts
that fit together and have a purpose, and were not just thrown
together in any order (though I suppose on the atomic level the same
could be said of water in a puddle).

OK. I agree with you on evil and I think there is a relatively objective
definition of order (opposite of entropy) but I'll
say your description of order sounds pretty subjective.


I just had a long discussion with a Catholic fellow by
the name of Scott on this.
We were pretty much in agreement.
(For the record: he is practicing member of the RCC
and I am an atheist.)
We agreed that evil is subjective and relative.


(And I just remembered that he also said that the Pope
is infallible. ;)


That is becoming a tough position to maintain with the Popes
disagreeing with one another, condemning positions past Popes
affirmed. Oh well...

:) Yes, that is a whole other argument.
I take it you are not Catholic.


To me, evil is whatever I don't like.
I don't like murder. (Because I don't want to be
murdered.)
I don't like stealing. (Because I don't want anybody
to steal from me.)

Because our perception is subjective I don't think
anything can be absolute or truely objective.
Evil is relative.

Despite that, I'm sure that we can both agree that
there is evil.
Or am I wrong? Are you going to argue that what
might commonly be called evil is not because it
is part of God's plan?


What I would argue is roughly along the lines of the mutual conclusion
you and Scott reached: evil is purely subjective. While I am a huge
admirer of William Lane Craig, I disagree strongly with him on the
issue of objective moral laws. He claims that there are certain
actions that we can all agree are evil, and he gives the example of
raping a child. I disagree. While my own personal subjective notion of
morality results in me being strongly opposed to raping children,
human beings are no in unanamous agreement on this issue. Case in
point would be the ahaadeeth (Islamic traditions) that record that
Muhammad, in his fifties, consumated his marriage to his wife Ayesha
when she was only nine years old:

http://www.geocities.com/freethoughtmecca/vhadith.html


http://www.usc.edu/dept/MSA/fundamentals/hadithsunnah/bukhari/058.sbt.html#005.058.236



http://www.usc.edu/dept/MSA/fundamentals/hadithsunnah/bukhari/062.sbt.html#007.062.064


Regardless of whether these traditions are historically accurate (I
have my doubts), the fact is that many millions of Muslims accept them
as such. I, as a Westerner, cannot fathom how a man in his fifties
could engage in sexual intercourse with a nine year old girl without
the action being identical to rape. Of course, for many (though surely
not all!) Muslims, the notion of "rape" within marriage is absurd. If
a man is married to a girl (even one as young as nine), and forces
himself upon her, that is not rape to them.

The point of this long winded rant is that I can think of few things
more horrible than raping a child, but even this (under specific
circumstances) is not consider evil by millions of people.


In discussion of the subjectivity of evil the extreme examples
are typically cited.
The objectivist typically responds "Obviously (Hitler, say) was evil".
The current constant low level (sorta) nagging social issues can
effectively be used in such an argument.
They are problems of evil. e.g. the death penalty, abortion,
homosexuality, extra-legal punishment.
You can show rational persons and views on both sides of most of
those issues, issues that are not extreme or black and white
but still issues of evil.
If you present one of those complicated issues to the objectivist
and ask for the objective truth he will have to either conceed
subjectivism or ludicrously insist that their own personal view is the
objective truth.


Okay.

Furthermore, taking the theistic definition of evil as "that which
Gawd condemns," it seems that most theistic religions firmly believe
that their God allows evil to exist (alleged evils that run the
gauntlette from murder to homosexuality to eating shellfish). So what


There is much discussion of evil in the Bible.
The Bible says evil exists.


I agree, though "evil" according to the Bible (or according to popular
Judeo-Christian exegesis applied to the Bible) often includes, as per
the definition above, that which God condemns (such as homosexuality,
fabricating representations of God to serve as a focal point during
worship, eating shell fish, or possibly even having long hair). I
think the Biblical conception of evil would be drastically different
from your own.

That is a safe bet. :)
I'm still pretty much against murder, stealing, and
lieing though. :)


are the chances that this sort of God would exist given the existence
of "evil". It would seem that the existence of evil does not negate
the existence of this conception of God (which, it is presupposed,
allows evil to exist).


By itself, the existence of evil does not negate
all deity concepts.
But the existence of evil may be contradictory,
conflicting, or incompatible with the other supposed
properties of God.


Agreed, particularly a deity who is defined as being opposed to
actions that continue to take place while simultaneously being able to
stop such actions. Traditional argument from evil sort of deal...

Yup. Your P(O|G) was kind of an argument from good.
I turned it back around on you with the P(E|G), didn't I.
Do you have a counter argument to the problem of evil?
--
RB
.







User: "Eric Pepke"

Title: Re: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology 05 Jun 2004 11:55:27 PM
(Nico Demusopelous) wrote in message news:<2c68d44e.0406040836.29767c24@posting.google.com>...

I notice a lot of people call to witness the IPU, the invisible pink
unicorn. If a theist asks "can you prove God does not exist?", an IPU
enthusiast will counter with "can you prove the IPU does not exist?"
Are we presupposing that it is impossible to prove that something does
not exist? How would one explain mathematicians who demonstrate that
it is impossible to have a number whose square is negative one? What
about logicians who agree that that which does not exist are
contradicitions?

Haven't gotten to 8th grade mathematics, have we?

We can demonstrate the non-existence of certain conceptions of God, as
well as the IPU, by showing that the notion is contradictory (some
have tried to do this, for example, with the notion of a being who is
both omnipotent and omniscient). For the IPU, if it is invisible, it
does not reflect light, which would mean it has no color, and thus is
not pink. If it is pink, it reflects light, and thus is not invisible.
The IPU is a contradiction, and does not exist.

This demonstrate the spiritual nature of the IPU. Under mere, human
logic, a creature cannot be both invisible and pink at the same time. Yet
the IPU is both invisible and pink! Even more, her invisibility and pinkness
are essential properties, according to which, if you put Anselm's ontological
argument sideways, sorta, the IPU could not even be conceived of! Which
proves that the IPU not only exists but is beyond human logic.
.

User: "Gregory Gadow"

Title: Re: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! AHumorous trip into the world of ontology 04 Jun 2004 12:08:01 PM
Blasphemer!
The Invisible Pink Unicorn (peace be on Her Horn) is invisible; we know
this by empirical evidence. The IPU (PBOHH) is pink; we know this by
faith. The IPU (PBOHH) is a unicorn; we know this because our Holy
Scriptures tell us it is so. The IPU (PBOHH) exists; we know this because
the universe exists. The IPU (PBOHH) loves us; we know this because people
have believed for centuries that unicorns are symbols for sex.
None are so blind as those who refuse to see.
--
Gregory Gadow for Washington State House
Independent, District 43
http://www.gregory-gadow.info
.
User: "Joe"

Title: Re: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology 04 Jun 2004 01:32:00 PM
On Fri, 04 Jun 2004 10:08:01 -0700, Gregory Gadow <techbear@serv.net>
wrote:

Blasphemer!

The Invisible Pink Unicorn (peace be on Her Horn) is invisible; we know
this by empirical evidence. The IPU (PBOHH) is pink; we know this by
faith. The IPU (PBOHH) is a unicorn; we know this because our Holy
Scriptures tell us it is so. The IPU (PBOHH) exists; we know this because
the universe exists. The IPU (PBOHH) loves us; we know this because people
have believed for centuries that unicorns are symbols for sex.

And do you know the square roots (both of them) of -1?

None are so blind as those who refuse to see.

.
User: "SkArcher"

Title: Re: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology 04 Jun 2004 01:54:54 PM
On Fri, 04 Jun 2004 13:32:00 -0500, <Joe> wrote:

On Fri, 04 Jun 2004 10:08:01 -0700, Gregory Gadow <techbear@serv.net>
wrote:

Blasphemer!

The Invisible Pink Unicorn (peace be on Her Horn) is invisible; we know
this by empirical evidence. The IPU (PBOHH) is pink; we know this by
faith. The IPU (PBOHH) is a unicorn; we know this because our Holy
Scriptures tell us it is so. The IPU (PBOHH) exists; we know this
because
the universe exists. The IPU (PBOHH) loves us; we know this because
people
have believed for centuries that unicorns are symbols for sex.


And do you know the square roots (both of them) of -1?

None are so blind as those who refuse to see.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invisible_pink_unicorn
It has some great pictures too ;)
--
SkArcher - A.A#590
Passion is inversely proportional to the amount of real information
available. - Benford's law of controversy.
.
User: "Puck Greenman"

Title: Re: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology 04 Jun 2004 04:42:05 PM
On Fri, 04 Jun 2004 19:54:54 +0100, SkArcher
<SkArcher@Viking.Breakfast.Spam> wrote:


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invisible_pink_unicorn

It has some great pictures too ;)

That San Juan picture is a bit worrying; She doesn't look her usual
Pink, self.
Are you sure she wasn't using a stand in?
Puck Greenman

#162

BAAWA Knight.

Blesed is the self righteous xtian,
for his is the sure and certain knowledge
that no matter what load of tripe he
comes out with:
God told him to say it.
.
User: "Another Apostate"

Title: Re: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology 04 Jun 2004 04:46:14 PM
"Puck Greenman" <puck@pooks.hill.fey> wrote in message
news:42r1c09i001pklfhekvqo1e7t5n69rtgbn@4ax.com...

On Fri, 04 Jun 2004 19:54:54 +0100, SkArcher
<SkArcher@Viking.Breakfast.Spam> wrote:


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invisible_pink_unicorn

It has some great pictures too ;)


That San Juan picture is a bit worrying; She doesn't look her usual
Pink, self.

Are you sure she wasn't using a stand in?

The infidels will believe when they step in the invisible pink doo doo she
leaves behind.
--
Another Apostate
A.A. #2182
EAC Director of Covert Operations and Black Helicopter Pilot
"If you are ethical only because you believe in God, you are buying your
ticket to heaven or trying to tear up your ticket to hell. In either case,
you are just being a shrewd profiteer, nothing else. The idea of being
ethical is to be ethical for no reason except that that is the way to be if
you want the world to run smoothly. I think that people who say virtue is
its own reward or honesty is the best policy have the right idea."
-Isaac Asimov
.
User: "Spooked "

Title: Re: What is it with this IPU stuff? IPU does not exist, but PU does! A Humorous trip into the world of ontology 04 Jun 2004 05:12:32 PM
"Another Apostate" <AnotherApo@hotmail.com> wrote:

"Puck Greenman" <puck@pooks.hill.fey> wrote in message
news:42r1c09i001pklfhekvqo1e7t5n69rtgbn@4ax.com...

On Fri, 04 Jun 2004 19:54:54 +0100, SkArcher
<SkArcher@Viking.Breakfast.Spam> wrote:


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invisible_pink_unicorn

It has some great pictures too ;)


That San Juan picture is a bit worrying; She doesn't look her usual
Pink, self.

Are you sure she wasn't using a stand in?



The infidels will believe when they step in the invisible pink doo doo she
leaves behind.

Yes well, the infidels won't see the ***** they're in until it's too
late. The sky plow will run them over and they will be trodden down
by IPU.
.