| Topic: |
Religions > Bible |
| User: |
"Amminadab" |
| Date: |
26 Feb 2004 06:12:46 PM |
| Object: |
All Scripture? |
<<...and the Bible is final authority (2 Tim. 3:16,17).>>
I am constantly amazed at how this passage is used to legitimize the Bible.
The leap of logic is unbelievable and certainly demonstrates a willing
blindness.
Let's look at the verse:
"All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking,
correcting and training in righteousness, so that the man of God may be
thoroughly equipped for every good work."
"All Scripture" Let us start with the first word (All), did Paul mean all or
just some? Does "All" include Buddhist Scripture? Muslim? How about the Book
of Mormon? The Vedas? Taoist Scripture? Did Paul mean all or just some?
Paul was a Pharisee, did he just mean Jewish Scripture? Then why does the
Bible not contain the Books of Enoch? The Psalms of Solomon? The Dead Sea
Scrolls? Did Paul mean all or just some?
The New Testament did not exist when Paul wrote this verse(and he was not
writing scripture, he was just writing a letter), did he mean to include
"scripture yet to be included"? Would this include The Gospel of Thomas? The
Apocryphon of James? The Gospel According to Mary? A Course In Miracles?
Let's now jump to the end of the verse :
"so that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work."
Would it not be prudent for a man of God to truly use "All Scripture" in
order to be "thoroughly equipped"?
Many of these are available at my website.
Faith is not blind!,
Amminadab
--
Awakening The Open Mind
http://amminadab.com/discussion/
.
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| User: "Libertarius" |
|
| Title: Re: All Scripture? -- THE BIG LIE! |
26 Feb 2004 08:28:25 PM |
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===>It is the single basis for the BIG LIE, i.e. that
that book of compiled Hebrew and Greek WRITINGS
(Latin SCRIPTURA, originally Greeh GRAPHE) is
"The WOrd of God"!
It is the hook by which preachers catch unsuspecting,
ignorant fish. Once you accept that LIE, all they need to
do is to show the selected verses by which to "prove"
that their doctrines are consistent with that "Word of God". -- L.
Amminadab wrote:
<<...and the Bible is final authority (2 Tim. 3:16,17).>>
I am constantly amazed at how this passage is used to legitimize the Bible.
The leap of logic is unbelievable and certainly demonstrates a willing
blindness.
Let's look at the verse:
"All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking,
correcting and training in righteousness, so that the man of God may be
thoroughly equipped for every good work."
"All Scripture" Let us start with the first word (All), did Paul mean all or
just some? Does "All" include Buddhist Scripture? Muslim? How about the Book
of Mormon? The Vedas? Taoist Scripture? Did Paul mean all or just some?
Paul was a Pharisee, did he just mean Jewish Scripture? Then why does the
Bible not contain the Books of Enoch? The Psalms of Solomon? The Dead Sea
Scrolls? Did Paul mean all or just some?
The New Testament did not exist when Paul wrote this verse(and he was not
writing scripture, he was just writing a letter), did he mean to include
"scripture yet to be included"? Would this include The Gospel of Thomas? The
Apocryphon of James? The Gospel According to Mary? A Course In Miracles?
Let's now jump to the end of the verse :
"so that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work."
Would it not be prudent for a man of God to truly use "All Scripture" in
order to be "thoroughly equipped"?
Many of these are available at my website.
Faith is not blind!,
Amminadab
--
Awakening The Open Mind
http://amminadab.com/discussion/
.
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