| Topic: |
Religions > Bible |
| User: |
"gaedhealic" |
| Date: |
01 Apr 2007 01:35:16 PM |
| Object: |
CHUCK STAMFORD PROVES JESUS SPOKE OF TWO EVENTS |
Chuck Stamford Proves Jesus Spoke of Two Events
In another thread, ( http://tinyurl.com/35c4ue – a must read), Chuck
Stamford proved that Mat 25:15-21 is not a fulfillment of Luke 21:20-24.
Because the Destruction of the Temple as described by Luke is not the
fulfillment of the prophecy described by Matthew, then the only logical
conclusion is that Jesus has described two different events which must
be witnessed, and experienced, by two different generations.
Chuck's proof is too long for me to quote here. He makes the point -
forcefully - that the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple, and the
murder of a million residents of that City, were NOT the fulfillment of
Jesus words: "For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since
the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be."
Chuck has proved two things in his post, one explicitly and one implicitly:
First and most obvious is that the tribulation caused by Germany in WW2
was worse than the event caused by the Romans and therefore the
destruction of Jerusalem in AD70 was not the fulfillment of Mat 24:15-21.
The second, (however subtly,) is that the Holocaust was not the
fulfillment that great Tribulation either! In other words, Chuck has
proved that the fulfillment of Mat 24:15-21 is yet in our future!
Chuck's proof brings up several points:
First: The Holocaust was not the fulfillment of Jesus prophecy in Luke
21:20-24 OR Mat 24:15-21.
Second: In the Olivet Discourse, Jesus was describing TWO EVENTS. (This
is implicit, if not obvious, in his proof.)
Third: There is a difference between "Explicit" and "Implicit" Prophecy.
IMPLICIT AND EXPLICIT
"Explicit" prophecy is an event being named or described specifically.
Example: "The prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the
sanctuary." Dan 9:27.
On the other hand, it is "Implicit" that the 'prince to come' will bring
an army. That army is not explicitly described. That some event must
occur to causes 'the prince' to come with his army is also implicit,
since it is not named or described.
Luke 21:24 also contains Explicit and Implicit Prophecy. "Jerusalem
shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles
be fulfilled." That Jerusalem will be conquered and ruled is explicit.
However, that the Jews will one day re-take, occupy and Rule Jerusalem
is not actually stated -- it is implied in "until the time of the
Gentiles be fulfilled." It is Implicit in the "until" that when the time
of the Gentiles is fulfilled they will no longer 'trod down' the city.
In other words, that the Jews will retake and govern the City - and THAT
is the sign that the "times of the Gentiles" is fulfilled.
TWO EVENTS - TWO GENERATIONS
In Luke's account, Jesus has stated that the City will be destroyed.
This is a repeat of Daniel's Prophecy in 9:26. Both are explicit.
Jesus words as recorded in Matthew also contain explicit and implicit
prophecy. "Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains: Let
him which is on the housetop not come down to take any thing out of his
house..." This is explicit prophecy describing the Tribulation caused by
the Abomination entering the city and standing in the temple. (Whether
this "standing in the temple" is literal or metaphor will be discussed
in another post -- the tribulation is literal in either case.)
The implicit prophecy in this statement is that the Jews have returned
to Jerusalem and Judea! In order for this prophecy to be fulfilled, the
"time of the Gentiles" must have ended!
Due to the sequence described and implied - explicit and implicit - The
city and temple is destroyed in one generation (AD70), and then retaken
by another generation (CE 1967), then AFTER being retaken, the residents
must flee from the Abomination.
GREAT TRIBULATION
The first reason the Holocaust was not the fulfillment of Mat 24:15-21
is that it did not occur in Jerusalem. Before this prophecy could have
been fulfilled, the "time of the Gentiles" must be fulfilled. The
Holocaust occurred in 1940-45, the Jews returned to rule the city in
1967, and no Jews fled Jerusalem or Judea because of the Holocaust.
The second reason the Holocaust was not the fulfillment of Mat 24:15-21
is that the other prophecy made as part of that sequence of events was
not, and has not yet, (all) been fulfilled. That sequence is included in
verse 7-8 (the Beginning of Sorrows, now fulfilled), The Affliction in
9-13, The Great Tribulation in 15-21, and the immediate consequences as
described in verses 29-31.
The third reason the Holocaust was not the fulfillment of Mat 24:15-21
is that Verse 14 is an implicit prophecy that these events would include
and encompass the entire world. There are, in fact, many explicit
prophecies that state the coming of the Lord will be a worldwide event.
That the Abomination and tribulation is a "world event" is also both
explicit and implicit in Daniel, Revelation and other prophecy.
Thanks Chuck
Chuck Stamford has proved that Jesus was speaking of two different
Generations, and two different events concerning Jerusalem and the
Abomination.
The first event was the destruction of Jerusalem in AD70 by the Romans.
The Generation which witnessed that event was the same generation who
heard Him speak on the Mount of Olives.
The second event is the Abomination of Desolation spoken of by the
Prophet Daniel - which will occur after the reformation of a world
ruling empire - ruled by Satan, and just 3 1/2 years before the return
of the Lord and end of this world.
For more on this subject, see:
http://www.xprt.net/~servitum/main/about/olivet.html
owd
--
gaedhealic
-+-
http://www.xprt.net/~servitum
-----
Many receive advice, only the wise profit by it. Syrus
..
The way of a fool is right in his own eyes: but he that hearkeneth unto
counsel is wise. Pro 12:15
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"April 1st: National Atheist's Day."
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