| Topic: |
Religions > Bible |
| User: |
"Ananias917" |
| Date: |
27 Dec 2005 09:48:53 AM |
| Object: |
ERASING SCRIPTURE |
On Mon, 26 Dec 2005 11:20:15 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
I noted that while Jesus talked about coming in
the clouds, that He was using symbolic language,
to state that He was retuning in judgment
against the land.
I also noted that the Bible supports this and that
we can see that, when reading about when God
used Babylon to conquer Egypt, which is past.
"The burden of Egypt. Behold, the LORD rideth upon
a swift cloud, and shall come into Egypt: and the idols
of Egypt shall be moved at his presence, and the heart
of Egypt shall melt in the midst of it." - Isaiah 19:1
This obviously did not happen literally, although God
did indeed judge Egypt and it was conquered by Babylon.
So let us see what Glenn wrote below.
MAKING GOD’S WORD LIE
That is what YOU are doing Glenn, as I will prove
below.
Another trick question from "Pastor Dave" (aka Ananias917)
Why is it that the words of the Bible, are a "trick
question", whenever you can't support your doctrine?
All I did was quote the Bible and show the same words.
Is the Bible "a trick", Glenn???
See below.
quote:
"The burden of Egypt. Behold, the LORD rideth upon
a swift cloud, and shall come into Egypt: and the idols
of Egypt shall be moved at his presence, and the heart
of Egypt shall melt in the midst of it." - Isaiah 19:1
Why do you keep dodging this one, Glenn? Where
can I find it written down that God physically
appeared on this "swift cloud"?
end quote.
Why does Dave take what scripture he thinks proves his false doctrine in
a literal since, literally, and ridicule the rest?
Why does Dave take what scripture he thinks proves his false doctreine
in a metaphor, as a metaphor, and then ridicule the rest?
Why?
because it is only by a private interpretation of God's Word that the
Preterists can support their false Doctrine. "Knowing this first, that
no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation." 2 Peter
1:20.
-----
Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust
in him. Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be
found a liar. Pro. 30:5-6
For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of
this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto
him the plagues that are written in this book: And if any man shall take
away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away
his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the
things which are written in this book. Rev. 22:18-19
The King James Version, (Cambridge: Cambridge) 1769.
-----
There are some who are so ignorant of the Character of God that they say
the verses in Proverbs only meant "words of prophecy" and do not
actually apply to the collection of writings know as "the Old
Testament," and certainly not to the "New Testament." These same
ignorant souls insist that John's warning only applies to the book of
Revelation, and not the rest of the New Testament, and certainly not to
the rest of the Bible.
What these people do not know, since they do not know God, is that what
these verses in Proverbs and Revelation actually do is reveal the Nature
of God.
God has never uttered any Word which He guards any more or less than any
other. This does point to a Character trait of God which those who know
Him can see in every thing He has done, and can trust to see in every
thing He will do: That is, His love of Truth and His hatred of the Lie.
The separation between Truth and Lie is sharper than the division of
Life and Death, and those who cross that line are dead while they yet
breathe.
There may be more ways to add to or take away from God's word than I can
imagine.
Still, I would like to mention a few that I am aware of.
First is actually inserting or omitting words. This may have occurred
when the scribes were trans-scribing His word from one old manuscript to
a new parchment. The work of the scribes was carefully checked and
compared to prevent this kind of error. Since the early scribes and
priests lived under the punishment of death for transgression, it is
hard to conceive anyone committing this act of profanity with forethought.
Over the last several hundred to a 1900 years, the death penalty was
forgotten, and men began to take a little more liberty with the Word of
God. Still, the work of the translators and printers during the time the
King James translation must have felt some awe and fear when working
with His Word, for their work has proved to be extremely accurate.
Still, later translators have taken a greater liberty in their work, so
that many modern translations are no more accurate that the older
versions with which they find fault.
There were, unfortunately, about AD 325 or later, some few men who did
not fear God, and these men did the unthinkable act of profanity.
Since 1880, more men have taken their soul in their hand, and profaned
the Word of God by taking from it or inserting their own words into it.
So Glenn, your response to the word of God found
in Isaiah 19:1, is to tell us that someone inserted it
into the Bible?
Do you have any proof that this verse, or any words
of it, was "inserted" into the Bible?
Face it Glenn, you DO NOT believe God's word!
And thank you for proving what I said about you!
YOU ERASE FROM THE BIBLE, WHATEVER
DOESN'T SUIT YOUR PERSONAL DOCTRINE!
See below.
The second kind of "inserting or removing" I would like to mention is a
little more vague, perhaps, because the words still appear in the text,
but the meaning has been stolen. That is, the profane thief redefines
the word(s) to mean something other than was intended by the Holy
Spirit. As an example, "there was evening and morning, one day." This is
a literal day. But those who cannot accept the literal creation must
redefine the literal day into "epochs" in order to fit their lie into
His Word. This is profanity.
The third kind of "inserting or removing" I think important to recognize
is the use of His word out of context. That is, taking a verse away from
the Scripture where it is found, and by which its meaning can be seen,
and then using that verse in a foreign situation where its meaning can
be distorted. This distortion is actually removing the meaning, or
inserting some meaning into God's Word, and is an act of profanity.
It's meaning can be seen plainly. It speaks of God
riding in on a cloud in judgment against a land.
Jesus speaks of coming in the clouds in judgment
against a land. There is nothing different there.
"Behold, the LORD rideth upon a swift cloud..."
- Isaiah
"...and they shall see the Son of man coming
in the clouds" - Jesus Christ
And who was it who was really present in the OT, Glenn?
For example, who was it there with the people under
Moses, Glenn?
1 Corinthians 10:1-4
1) Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should
be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under
the cloud, and all passed through the sea;
2) And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud
and in the sea;
3) And did all eat the same spiritual meat;
4) And did all drink the same spiritual drink:
for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed
them: and that Rock was Christ.
Don't you believe that Christ was God walking Earth,
Glenn? That He was God manifested to us?
Doesn't it make sense that Christ would have used
the same language when he walked the Earth, that
we see in the OT?
And doesn't it make sense that ever since Christ
was present in that cloud with the people under
Moses, that He would have used clouds as a
symbolic representation of His presence in
judgment, especially since He judged the Egypt
while following the people under Moses?
Do you think it's just coincidence Glenn, that when
He used Babylon to judge Egypt the next time, that
He spoke of coming in a cloud?
Don't you think He was sending a specific message,
by using that specific language? Language that
would have struck terror into the heart of Egypt
(which is what Isaiah 19:1 says would happen),
who would have known about this "God in a cloud"
having destroyed their land the last time?
And don't you think a Jew would have gotten Jesus'
point, when He used that very same "cloud" language
regarding the coming judgment against Jerusalem?
That now, it is THEY who will have their hearts failing
them for fear (Luke 21:26), as God said about Egypt
(their hearts would melt), in Isaiah 19:1???
I guess that just MAKES TOO MUCH SENSE, Glenn!!!
And what did Jesus say to them and what did the chief
priest and Pharisees "know", after Jesus told them how
He was coming back in judgment against them, in their
generation, by using the parable of the land owner, who
came back and took vengeance on the people who killed
his son (not their descendants), in Matthew 21:33-41?
Matthew 21:42-45
42) Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never
read in the Scriptures, The stone which
the builders rejected, the same is become
the head of the corner: This is the Lord's
doing, and it is marvelous in our eyes?
43) Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom
of God shall be taken from you, and given
to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof.
44) And whosoever shall fall on this stone
shall be broken: but on whomsoever it shall
fall, it will grind him to powder.
45) And when the chief priests and Pharisees
had heard his parables, they perceived that
he spake of them.
They "knew" that Jesus was speaking OF THEM!
Not YOU, Glenn!
Not YOUR generation, Glenn!
The last act of profanity I would like to mention has to do with
"translation" or "interpretation" on-the-fly; that is while it is read
or quoted. It is an indisputable fact that much of the Word of God,
especially prophecy, is in the form of Metaphor, or may be Symbolic,
while much is literal. Yet Metaphor and Symbolic language has a meaning,
that meaning intended by God. The point is, that it is God who has
determined what He intended to be Metaphor--and what His intended
meaning is. It is God who has determined what He intended as
Symbolic--and what His intended meaning is. The act of profanity is to
treat what is meant to be symbolic as literal, or what is intended as
Metaphor to be symbolic--and thus without the meaning intended by God.
Then there is the profanity of taking scripture intended as metaphor and
insisting that it be taken literal, and that the literal definition
proves His Word False (see example at top). In this act of profanity the
meaning of His Word is stolen from His People, and His Word is used as a
tool of Satan to create a lie and deceive His People.
There are, or may be, different reasons for people to commit an act of
profanity with God’s Word. Of all the possible reasons someone may
profane the Word of God, the intent to deceive is the most terrible: and
to stand before God on That Day, guilty of profanity with His Word...
with intent to deceive His Children-
I just love the way that you take the phrases that I
use and try to use them against me, Glenn. It only
shows that you know you are guilty of them. :)
You are the one who has kept changing his doctrine
"on the fly". As everyone reading my messages knows,
I have not changed my doctrine AT ALL.
You can whine and moan all you want to Glenn,
but how is showing the same language about
a place being conquered, to take it out of its
proper context for comparison?
The truth is Glenn, YOU CANNOT ANSWER THIS!!!
And so, instead of admitting that, you tell us how
we need to erase a passage from God's word!
And the REALLY FUNNY part of this, is that while
you're telling us all about these "scribal errors" that
have added to the Bible, YOU QUOTE THE BIBLE!!!
Please!
And can you also tell us why you keep failing to
acknowledge that Jesus used the same language
in Matthew 24 & Luke 21, that God used about
when He sent Babylon in to destroy Jerusalem,
which is also in the past, which we know, since
Daniel's book starts with him noting that it
happened?
Isaiah 13:6-11
6) Howl ye; for the day of the LORD is at hand;
it shall come as a destruction from the Almighty.
7) Therefore shall all hands be faint, and every
man's heart shall melt:
8) And they shall be afraid: pangs and sorrows
shall take hold of them; they shall be in pain as
a woman that travaileth: they shall be amazed
one at another; their faces shall be as flames.
9) Behold, the day of the LORD cometh, cruel
both with wrath and fierce anger, to lay the land
desolate: and he shall destroy the sinners thereof
out of it.
10) For the stars of heaven and the constellations
thereof shall not give their light: the sun shall be
darkened in his going forth, and the moon shall
not cause her light to shine.
11) And I will punish the world for their evil, and the
wicked for their iniquity; and I will cause the
arrogance of the proud to cease, and will lay low the
haughtiness of the terrible.
Note that it is the SAME LANGUAGE that Jesus used,
regarding the destruction of the SAME PLACE, Glenn.
Are you going to try to tell me THIS ONE doesn't fit
for comparison either, Glenn?
It uses the same language.
Note that it is called the "Day of the Lord".
Note that it says that their hearts would melt.
Note that it says, "pangs and sorrows".
Note that it says that the sinners would be destroyed.
Note that it says that the Sun & Moon would go dark.
Etc., etc..
It uses the same language as Jesus did, in Matthew 24
and Luke 21,
So why do you keep ignoring that Glenn?
As I did in my other message, which you ignored,
let's break it down a bit and do a comparison,
using Isaiah, Matthew, Luke & Revelation.
Matthew 24, Mark 13 and Luke 21, are all parallel
accounts of Jesus' discourse. So let's put together
some examples and see what we come up with,
utilizing the Scriptures from Isaiah, just quoted
above and remember, that both are talking about
the destruction of Jerusalem. We'll also look at
a bit of Revelation...
#1) Isaiah 13:8 - Matthew 24:8; Luke 21:26
"And they shall be afraid: pangs and sorrows shall take
hold of them; they shall be in pain as a woman that
travaileth: they shall be amazed one at another; their
faces shall be as flames." - Isaiah 13:8
"All these are the beginning of sorrows."
- Matthew 24:8
"Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking
after those things which are coming on the earth: for
the powers of heaven shall be shaken." - Luke 21:26
"And she being with child cried, travailing in birth,
and pained to be delivered." - Revelation 12:2
#2) Isaiah 13:9 - Luke 21:20
"Behold, the day of the LORD cometh, cruel both with
wrath and fierce anger, to lay the land desolate: and
he shall destroy the sinners thereof out of it."
- Isaiah 13:9
"And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies,
then know that the desolation thereof is nigh."
- Luke 21:20
#3) Isaiah 13:10 - Matthew 24:29
"For the stars of heaven and the constellations thereof
shall not give their light: the sun shall be darkened
in his going forth, and the moon shall not cause her
light to shine." - Isaiah 13:10
"Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall
the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her
light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the
powers of the heavens shall be shaken:" - Matthew 24:29
#4) Isaiah 13:15 - Luke 21:23
"Every one that is found shall be thrust through;
and every one that is joined unto them shall fall
by the sword." - Isaiah 13:15
"But woe unto them that are with child, and to them
that give suck, in those days! For there shall be great
distress in the land, and wrath upon this people."
- Luke 21:23
#5) Isaiah 13:18 - Matthew 24:19
"Their bows also shall dash the young men to pieces;
and they shall have no pity on the fruit of the womb;
their eye shall not spare children." - Isaiah 13:18
"And woe unto them that are with child, and to them
that give suck in those days!" - Matthew 24:29
As I said, it is the SAME LANGUAGE!!!
And now, when we look at the following again,
we can see that Christ used the SAME LANGUAGE
that He did in the OT...
"Behold, the LORD rideth upon a swift cloud..."
- Isaiah
"...and they shall see the Son of man coming
in the clouds" - Jesus Christ
Glenn, you need to get down on your knees and ask
God for forgiveness!!!
You operate from VANITY! And it is that VANITY
which is preventing you from admitting the truth!
When someone seeks to remove the words of the Bible
and every time, claims that what the Bible says isn't
what it says and tries to erase the words in the Bible
that contradict their personal doctrine, then that
person is PURE EVIL!!!
It isn't love that erases God's word.
It isn't goodness that erases God's word.
It is evil that erases God's word!
And this is why in my messages, I quote Scripture
and you use an eraser on Scripture!
--
"And Ananias went his way, and entered into the house;
and putting his hands on him said, Brother Saul, the
Lord, even Jesus, that appeared unto thee in the way
as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest
receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost."
- Acts 9:17
Would a loving God send people to Hell?
http://godandscience.org/apologetics/hell.html
.
|
|
| User: "oldwetdog" |
|
| Title: Re: ERASING SCRIPTURE |
27 Dec 2005 10:38:51 AM |
|
|
Ananias917 wrote:
On Mon, 26 Dec 2005 11:20:15 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
I noted that while Jesus talked about coming in
the clouds, that He was using symbolic language,
to state that He was retuning in judgment
against the land.
Dave, in this post I will show that Preterism is a lie.
Yes, you noted that Jesus was using a metaphor, and I have no problem
with metaphor or sysbolic language when it is understood in the war God
intended.
What I object to, is you using symbolic language to mean that Jesus did
not really mean what He said, or that The End of this world is symbojlic
and occurred in AD 70.
The Law has Not passed away.
The Lord did NOT come in AD 70
Jesus was NOT taking to the Saints of His day
ALL has NOT been fulfilled.
Peter was not speaking "of the old system" he WAS talking about the
literal destruction of the substance of this universe -- The _Heavens_
and _earth_
First:
Another trick question from "Pastor Dave" (aka Ananias917)
quote:
"The burden of Egypt. Behold, the LORD rideth upon
a swift cloud, and shall come into Egypt: and the idols
of Egypt shall be moved at his presence, and the heart
of Egypt shall melt in the midst of it." - Isaiah 19:1
Why do you keep dodging this one, Glenn? Where
can I find it written down that God physically
appeared on this "swift cloud"?
end quote.
Why does Dave take what scripture he thinks proves his false doctrine in
a literal since, literally, and ridicule the rest?
Why does Dave take what scripture he thinks proves his false doctreine
in a metaphor, as a metaphor, and then ridicule the rest?
Why?
because it is only by a private interpretation of God's Word that the
Preterists can support their false Doctrine. "Knowing this first, that
no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation." 2 Peter
1:20.
There are some who are so ignorant of the Character of God that they say
the verses in Proverbs only meant "words of prophecy" and do not
actually apply to the collection of writings know as "the Old
Testament," and certainly not to the "New Testament." These same
ignorant souls insist that John's warning only applies to the book of
Revelation, and not the rest of the New Testament, and certainly not to
the rest of the Bible.
What these people do not know, since they do not know God, is that what
these verses in Proverbs and Revelation actually do is reveal the Nature
of God.
God has never uttered any Word which He guards any more or less than any
other. This does point to a Character trait of God which those who know
Him can see in every thing He has done, and can trust to see in every
thing He will do: That is, His love of Truth and His hatred of the Lie.
The separation between Truth and Lie is sharper than the division of
Life and Death, and those who cross that line are dead while they yet
breathe.
There may be more ways to add to or take away from God's word than I can
imagine.
Still, I would like to mention a few that I am aware of.
First is actually inserting or omitting words. This may have occurred
when the scribes were trans-scribing His word from one old manuscript to
a new parchment. The work of the scribes was carefully checked and
compared to prevent this kind of error. Since the early scribes and
priests lived under the punishment of death for transgression, it is
hard to conceive anyone committing this act of profanity with forethought.
Over the last several hundred to a 1900 years, the death penalty was
forgotten, and men began to take a little more liberty with the Word of
God. Still, the work of the translators and printers during the time the
King James translation must have felt some awe and fear when working
with His Word, for their work has proved to be extremely accurate.
Still, later translators have taken a greater liberty in their work, so
that many modern translations are no more accurate that the older
versions with which they find fault.
There were, unfortunately, about AD 325 or later, some few men who did
not fear God, and these men did the unthinkable act of profanity.
Since 1880, more men have taken their soul in their hand, and profaned
the Word of God by taking from it or inserting their own words into it.
The second kind of "inserting or removing" I would like to mention is a
little more vague, perhaps, because the words still appear in the text,
but the meaning has been stolen. That is, the profane thief redefines
the word(s) to mean something other than was intended by the Holy
Spirit. As an example, "there was evening and morning, one day." This is
a literal day. But those who cannot accept the literal creation must
redefine the literal day into "epochs" in order to fit their lie into
His Word. This is profanity.
The third kind of "inserting or removing" I think important to recognize
is the use of His word out of context. That is, taking a verse away from
the Scripture where it is found, and by which its meaning can be seen,
and then using that verse in a foreign situation where its meaning can
be distorted. This distortion is actually removing the meaning, or
inserting some meaning into God's Word, and is an act of profanity.
The last act of profanity I would like to mention has to do with
"translation" or "interpretation" on-the-fly; that is while it is read
or quoted. It is an indisputable fact that much of the Word of God,
especially prophecy, is in the form of Metaphor or may be Symbolic,
while much is literal. Yet Metaphor and Symbolic language has a meaning,
that meaning intended by God. The point is, that it is God who has
determined what He intended to be Metaphor--and what His intended
meaning is. It is God who has determined what He intended as
Symbolic--and what His intended meaning is. The act of profanity is to
treat what is meant to be symbolic as literal, or what is intended as
Metaphor to be symbolic--and thus without the meaning intended by God.
In this act of profanity the meaning of His Word is stolen from His
People, and His Word is used as a tool of Satan to create a lie and
deceive His People.
There are, or may be, different reasons for people to commit an act of
profanity with God’s Word: First may be lack of knowledge, but innocent
ignorance. Second may be an unintentional error, again innocent of
intent to deceive. But then intent becomes possible: which may only mean
self deception, or may mean intent to deceive others. Of all the
possible reasons someone may profane the Word of God, the intent to
deceive is the most terrible: and to stand before God on That Day,
guilty of profanity with His Word...with intent to deceive His Children-
Second:
Elements Dissolved
What I would like to do first is just read the scripture and get a clear
idea of the context: that is, the subject Peter is writing about. This
first reading is just to become familiar with the subject--not wrestle
with the meanings and definitions of the words. Then, 2 Peter 3:3-13 in
its simplest, plainest meaning:
3 Knowing this first, that there shall come in the last days scoffers,
walking after their own lusts,
4 And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers
fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the
creation.
5 For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the
heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the
water:
6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:
7 But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are
kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and
perdition of ungodly men.
8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with
the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count
slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should
perish, but that all should come to repentance.
10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the
which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements
shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are
therein shall be burned up.
11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of
persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein
the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall
melt with fervent heat?
13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a
new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.
It seems clear, in its most simple terms, that in this passage Peter is
talking about the passing away of the world, and that, according to His
promise, looking for the new heavens and new earth.
A few notes:
In verses 3 and 4, Peter warns about scoffers in the last days. The
scoffers he mentions may be those of his day who assumed the Lord would
come in the generation of the First Century Saints, but any scoffers in
these Last Days.
In verses 5 and 6, Peter states that they (scoffers) willingly remain
ignorant of the fact that the world, in the days of Noah, was destroyed
with water.
In verse 7, Peter states, "But the heavens and the earth, which are now,
by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day
of judgment and perdition of ungodly men." The World once having been
destroyed by water is--by the Word of God, being reserved unto fire
against THE DAY OF JUDGMENT.
In verse 8 and 9, Peter tells us to be patient because time is
meaningless to God, and He is "longsuffering" (patient) in the hope that
none should perish.
So far the subject of Peter's letter is "the end of the world" as it
occurred in Noah's time, and then warning about scoffers who are mislead
in "the last days."
Then in verse 10 Peter says the Lord will come, the heavens shall pass
away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat,
"the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up."
Comments:
The "world" was destroyed by flood; but the World remained, and 8 people
repopulated the world. It is easy, then, to see that words can be used
in literal or figurative ways. The "world" which was destroyed by flood
was the civilization of man, and their works and ways: while the World
(the Planet) remained. Peter then clearly uses the definitive meaning of
the term in saying "But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the
same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of
judgment." He does not say "world," but specifically "the heavens and
the earth" and tells us why it is reserved "unto fire:" it is held and
set aside "unto the day of judgment."
A word Study:
It has been said by someone else (certainly not me) that the word
"elements" appears twice in this text. And, that word is from the Greek,
as follows.
Quote:
Stoicheion = something orderly in arrangement, that is,
(by implication) a serial (basal, fundamental, initial)
constituent (literally), proposition (figuratively):
- element, principle, rudiment.
We should note that what is after the dash is not
definitions, but is what words this Greek word was
translated into, in the KJV. We should note that
it was translated into, "element", "principle" and
"rudiment". This does not speak of a planet thing.
End quote
I certainly have no problem with this definition of the word "element,"
or in using "rudiment" or "principle" as a synonym.
However, a "word study" can either lead to clarification of a scripture,
or sophistry and deception.
I would like you to consider the sophistry which follows. I will mark a
few statements with * for later consideration. My comments will be in
[brackets] until the conclusion.
-----
Quote:
The Koine Greek word that was translated into
the word, "elements" in what Peter wrote, is used
seven times in the New Testament. The primary
meaning of the word is, when in common usage
for a Jew, "elements (of learning), fundamental
principles or even letters of the alphabet, ABC's,
the very elements of the truth of God.".
[Note this statement: "The primary meaning of the word is, when in
common usage for a Jew..." The problem with this, is that this writer
has gone from "definition" to "usage," and inserted a definition not
included in his dictionary; nor does it allow for the fact that Peter
was not using the term "element" in the common usage of the Jews--since
they (or any humans) did not think of the "elemental" destruction of the
universe."]
From this definition we can see that the primary
use of the word in the context provided, would
mean the elements of religious training, or the
ceremonial precepts that are common to the
worship of the Jews or, in effect, their entire
religious system!
[Did you follow the process of arriving at this wrong conclusion? The
"context provided" was this writer's own, not the context (Peter's)
wherein he found the word. So he has removed the word from its original
context, and now redefined it by using another a definition from another
context.]
But is this an accurate assessment? Let's take a look
at the other uses of the word in the NT and see what
it shows. After all, Scripture interprets Scripture,
right? So as we saw earlier, the Greek word was
translated into three English words, which were,
again... "element(s)", "principle(s)", "rudiment(s)".
So let's see if this word was ever used as a way to
describe something physical, or if it was always
applied to a system that is not a physical one...
[Now this writer sets up the reader for a wrong conclusion by stating
that he is looking for a use that "is not a physical one..."]
"Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage
under the ELEMENTS of the world" - Galatians 4:3
Here, it is clear that Paul is speaking of the ways
of the world and not the planet itself.
[How Paul used the word here is fine with me...]
"But now, after that ye have known God, or rather
are known of God, how turn ye again to the weak
and beggarly ELEMENTS, whereunto ye desire
again to be in bondage?" - Galatians 4:9
["The elements" of the Law are its very foundation, the minute parts,
the "principles" and "rudiments" which makeup the Law. I have no problem
with how Paul uses the word.}
*
Thus in the above passage, Paul directly ties
the usage of that SAME WORD, to the old
Jewish religious system!
From a different letter, Hebrews, we see...
"For when for the time ye ought to be teachers,
ye have need that one teach you again which be
the first PRINCIPLES of the oracles of God; and
are become such as have need of milk, and not
of strong meat." - Hebrews 5:12
Here, the same Greek word is used to denote the basic
teachings of the Christian faith and ties directly to
what is stated above as the primary meaning of the
word, just as the other two verses note a system.
"Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy
and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the
RUDIMENTS of the world, and not after Christ."
- Colossians 2:8
[I have no problem with how Paul uses the word in this verse."]
*
Again, it obviously speaks of a system (this time,
of the world), not physical things.
"Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the
RUDIMENTS of the world, why, as though living
in the world, are ye subject to ordinances,"
- Colossians 2:20
*
Again, it is clear that Paul is talking about being
dead to the WORLDLY SYSTEM that is sinful
and not the physical world around us.
He speaks in that chapter, of circumcision and
ordinances.
And what else is clear?
Now if we combine the two passages from Colossians
above, we can see that Paul was talking about false
teachers in the church, who were trying to promote
their RELIGIOUS SYSTEM, which promoted THE LAW.
[Actually, I have no problem with how Paul uses the term, or what he is
teaching...]
Paul, in that chapter, clearly talks about the practice
of circumcision and not being under the ordinances
of THE LAW! So what are the "rudiments" he mentioned?
[Now this writer sets the stage for his wrong conclusion.]
*
So Paul clearly tied this word to the Jewish legal
religious system! And if we read that chapter,
we can easily see that Paul is discussing the system
under the Law of Moses and what our relationship
is to it (if any), as I said.
[Up to this point I have no problem with what Paul uses the word
"element" for or what he intends to teach by using it.]
Now, totaling these five passages, with the two
passages from Peter, for our total of seven passages,
we see that what is being discussed, is not the
physical heaven and earth, but the old system under
the Law.
[There is the final wrong conclusion. What was being discussed by Paul
was figurative--that is, "the old system under the Law." That usage by
Paul is not proof of Peter's usage or intended meaning.]
As stated, I marked several spots with *
a) Thus in the above passage, Paul directly ties
the usage of that SAME WORD, to the old
Jewish religious system!
b) Again, it obviously speaks of a system (this time,
of the world), not physical things.
c) Again, it is clear that Paul is talking about being
dead to the WORLDLY SYSTEM that is sinful
and not the physical world around us.
d)So Paul clearly tied this word to the Jewish legal
religious system! And if we read that chapter,
we can easily see that Paul is discussing the system
under the Law of Moses and what our relationship
is to it (if any), as I said.
-----
I have no problem with any of the statements individually; but the point
here, is that this writer has been preparing the reader for his wrong
conclusion: namely; that since Paul used the term in a way other than
literal and definitive, then Peter COULD NOT HAVE USED THE WORD IN A
LITERAL AND DIFINITIVE WAY (meaning the basic ingredients of the earth).
Since Paul used the word as a metaphor to mean "the old system under the
Law," then the FORCED wrong conclusion is that Peter must have intended
the same meaning REGARDLESS OF THE CONTEXT in which he used it.
*THIS IS SOPHISTRY*
This is "slight of hand," 'trickery;' it is a manipulation of the
meaning of words to steal the Truth from God's Children.
Conclusion:
So the world in Noah's day was destroyed by water, while the Heavens and
Earth in the Last Days will be destroyed by fire. Peter goes on to give
clear details on how complete this last destruction will be: the
"elements will melt in fervent heat." Now, the elements are the
"rudimentary" or the basic and primary parts of which the earth
consists. Peter is telling us, using more specific terms, that this
destruction of the last days will not be like that of the first
destruction. In that destruction by water, the World remained. But in
this destruction of the Last Days, even the Iron, Carbon, Hydrogen, and
Oxygen; the Electrons, Protons and Neutrons will also be destroyed.
Peter is telling us that the destruction of the Last Days would include
the very elemental physical properties of which this World consists.
-----
In the beginning God created this universe from nothing by His Word, and
by His Word He will return this universe to nothing from which it came.
Amen.
owd
http://www.xprt.net/~servitum/
-----
By peace he shall destroy many. Daniel
..
..
.
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| User: "Ananias917" |
|
| Title: Re: ERASING SCRIPTURE |
27 Dec 2005 01:21:11 PM |
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On Tue, 27 Dec 2005 08:38:51 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
Ananias917 wrote:
On Mon, 26 Dec 2005 11:20:15 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
I noted that while Jesus talked about coming in
the clouds, that He was using symbolic language,
to state that He was retuning in judgment
against the land.
Dave, in this post I will show that Preterism is a lie.
Son, you are a liar. Nothing will change that.
Yes, you noted that Jesus was using a metaphor, and I have no problem
with metaphor or sysbolic language when it is understood in the war God
intended.
You have a big problem with it. That is what you have
been arguing about. Are you that stupid that you think
that people haven't noticed you insisting it's all
physically literal, dumb *****?
You just posted a message that said that profane men
added the Scriptures I used to prove you to be in
error.
As for what you wrote below, I have responded to it in
three different threads.
You see, you're not smart enough to have any original
thoughts and the best that you can come up with, is to
respond with the same words in every post, even when
it isn't even relevant to the discussion of that
thread.
--
"And Ananias went his way, and entered into the house;
and putting his hands on him said, Brother Saul, the
Lord, even Jesus, that appeared unto thee in the way
as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest
receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost."
- Acts 9:17
Would a loving God send people to Hell?
http://godandscience.org/apologetics/hell.html
.
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| User: "AcesLucky" |
|
| Title: Re: ERASING SCRIPTURE |
27 Dec 2005 10:43:47 AM |
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Ananias917 wrote:
On Mon, 26 Dec 2005 11:20:15 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
I noted that while Jesus talked about coming in
the clouds, that He was using symbolic language,
to state that He was retuning in judgment
against the land.
Yea. Everything that turns out to be false becomes symbolic, not
literal. That's how the myth stays alive, and how otherwise intelligent
people can become unwitting idiots. Just change what was said to "mean"
something other than what was said.
Yea, scripture is best when written in riddles. Brilliant!
.
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| User: "Ian Zech" |
|
| Title: Re: ERASING SCRIPTURE |
27 Dec 2005 11:20:07 AM |
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"AcesLucky" <acesLucky@netscape.net> wrote in message
news:maesf.959$TI6.502@fed1read03...
Ananias917 wrote:
On Mon, 26 Dec 2005 11:20:15 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
I noted that while Jesus talked about coming in
the clouds, that He was using symbolic language,
to state that He was retuning in judgment
against the land.
Yea. Everything that turns out to be false becomes symbolic, not literal.
That's how the myth stays alive, and how otherwise intelligent people can
become unwitting idiots. Just change what was said to "mean" something
other than what was said.
Yea, scripture is best when written in riddles. Brilliant!
It also implies that Acts 1: 9-11 is an inspired story written 'so you may
believe', that Galileans actually did not see Jesus going up to Heaven with
their physical eyes. Which way is Heaven, 'Mr. Brilliant', up or down?
Acts 1:11 Who also said: Ye men of Galilee, why stand you looking up to
heaven? This Jesus who is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come as
you have seen him going into heaven.
All of you seers, sooth sayers and sacred fortune tellers on this newsgroup
are still under the cloud of ignorance. Your power can only come from the
devil, not from the Spirit. I'm sure Satan is also interested in the
restoration of the kingdom of Israel as you are.
.
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| User: "oldwetdog" |
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| Title: Re: ERASING SCRIPTURE |
27 Dec 2005 10:48:10 AM |
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AcesLucky wrote:
Ananias917 wrote:
On Mon, 26 Dec 2005 11:20:15 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
I noted that while Jesus talked about coming in
the clouds, that He was using symbolic language,
to state that He was retuning in judgment
against the land.
Yea. Everything that turns out to be false becomes symbolic, not
literal. That's how the myth stays alive, and how otherwise intelligent
people can become unwitting idiots. Just change what was said to "mean"
something other than what was said.
Yea, scripture is best when written in riddles. Brilliant!
Actually, PD likes to take anything litteral if he can use it to support
his false doctrine, Preterism.
On the other hand, he takes something as sympblic if he can use it to
support his false doctrine, Preterism.
PD does not care about the context in finds a word in, he just
"translates" it to mean something he wishes, so he can prove his false
doctrine, Preterism.
Preterism is a lie.
Consider Dave's treatment of the word "element" by Peter and Paul.
Elements Dissolved
What I would like to do first is just read the scripture and get a clear
idea of the context: that is, the subject Peter is writing about. This
first reading is just to become familiar with the subject--not wrestle
with the meanings and definitions of the words. Then, 2 Peter 3:3-13 in
its simplest, plainest meaning:
3 Knowing this first, that there shall come in the last days scoffers,
walking after their own lusts,
4 And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers
fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the
creation.
5 For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the
heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the
water:
6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:
7 But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are
kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and
perdition of ungodly men.
8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with
the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count
slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should
perish, but that all should come to repentance.
10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the
which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements
shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are
therein shall be burned up.
11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of
persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein
the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall
melt with fervent heat?
13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a
new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.
It seems clear, in its most simple terms, that in this passage Peter is
talking about the passing away of the world, and that, according to His
promise, looking for the new heavens and new earth.
A few notes:
In verses 3 and 4, Peter warns about scoffers in the last days. The
scoffers he mentions may be those of his day who assumed the Lord would
come in the generation of the First Century Saints, but any scoffers in
these Last Days.
In verses 5 and 6, Peter states that they (scoffers) willingly remain
ignorant of the fact that the world, in the days of Noah, was destroyed
with water.
In verse 7, Peter states, "But the heavens and the earth, which are now,
by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day
of judgment and perdition of ungodly men." The World once having been
destroyed by water is--by the Word of God, being reserved unto fire
against THE DAY OF JUDGMENT.
In verse 8 and 9, Peter tells us to be patient because time is
meaningless to God, and He is "longsuffering" (patient) in the hope that
none should perish.
So far the subject of Peter's letter is "the end of the world" as it
occurred in Noah's time, and then warning about scoffers who are mislead
in "the last days."
Then in verse 10 Peter says the Lord will come, the heavens shall pass
away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat,
"the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up."
Comments:
The "world" was destroyed by flood; but the World remained, and 8 people
repopulated the world. It is easy, then, to see that words can be used
in literal or figurative ways. The "world" which was destroyed by flood
was the civilization of man, and their works and ways: while the World
(the Planet) remained. Peter then clearly uses the definitive meaning of
the term in saying "But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the
same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of
judgment." He does not say "world," but specifically "the heavens and
the earth" and tells us why it is reserved "unto fire:" it is held and
set aside "unto the day of judgment."
A word Study:
It has been said by someone else (certainly not me) that the word
"elements" appears twice in this text. And, that word is from the Greek,
as follows.
Quote:
Stoicheion = something orderly in arrangement, that is,
(by implication) a serial (basal, fundamental, initial)
constituent (literally), proposition (figuratively):
- element, principle, rudiment.
We should note that what is after the dash is not
definitions, but is what words this Greek word was
translated into, in the KJV. We should note that
it was translated into, "element", "principle" and
"rudiment". This does not speak of a planet thing.
End quote
I certainly have no problem with this definition of the word "element,"
or in using "rudiment" or "principle" as a synonym.
However, a "word study" can either lead to clarification of a scripture,
or sophistry and deception.
I would like you to consider the sophistry which follows. I will mark a
few statements with * for later consideration. My comments will be in
[brackets] until the conclusion.
-----
Quote:
The Koine Greek word that was translated into
the word, "elements" in what Peter wrote, is used
seven times in the New Testament. The primary
meaning of the word is, when in common usage
for a Jew, "elements (of learning), fundamental
principles or even letters of the alphabet, ABC's,
the very elements of the truth of God.".
[Note this statement: "The primary meaning of the word is, when in
common usage for a Jew..." The problem with this, is that this writer
has gone from "definition" to "usage," and inserted a definition not
included in his dictionary; nor does it allow for the fact that Peter
was not using the term "element" in the common usage of the Jews--since
they (or any humans) did not think of the "elemental" destruction of the
universe."]
From this definition we can see that the primary
use of the word in the context provided, would
mean the elements of religious training, or the
ceremonial precepts that are common to the
worship of the Jews or, in effect, their entire
religious system!
[Did you follow the process of arriving at this wrong conclusion? The
"context provided" was this writer's own, not the context (Peter's)
wherein he found the word. So he has removed the word from its original
context, and now redefined it by using another a definition from another
context.]
But is this an accurate assessment? Let's take a look
at the other uses of the word in the NT and see what
it shows. After all, Scripture interprets Scripture,
right? So as we saw earlier, the Greek word was
translated into three English words, which were,
again... "element(s)", "principle(s)", "rudiment(s)".
So let's see if this word was ever used as a way to
describe something physical, or if it was always
applied to a system that is not a physical one...
[Now this writer sets up the reader for a wrong conclusion by stating
that he is looking for a use that "is not a physical one..."]
"Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage
under the ELEMENTS of the world" - Galatians 4:3
Here, it is clear that Paul is speaking of the ways
of the world and not the planet itself.
[How Paul used the word here is fine with me...]
"But now, after that ye have known God, or rather
are known of God, how turn ye again to the weak
and beggarly ELEMENTS, whereunto ye desire
again to be in bondage?" - Galatians 4:9
["The elements" of the Law are its very foundation, the minute parts,
the "principles" and "rudiments" which makeup the Law. I have no problem
with how Paul uses the word.}
*
Thus in the above passage, Paul directly ties
the usage of that SAME WORD, to the old
Jewish religious system!
From a different letter, Hebrews, we see...
"For when for the time ye ought to be teachers,
ye have need that one teach you again which be
the first PRINCIPLES of the oracles of God; and
are become such as have need of milk, and not
of strong meat." - Hebrews 5:12
Here, the same Greek word is used to denote the basic
teachings of the Christian faith and ties directly to
what is stated above as the primary meaning of the
word, just as the other two verses note a system.
"Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy
and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the
RUDIMENTS of the world, and not after Christ."
- Colossians 2:8
[I have no problem with how Paul uses the word in this verse."]
*
Again, it obviously speaks of a system (this time,
of the world), not physical things.
"Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the
RUDIMENTS of the world, why, as though living
in the world, are ye subject to ordinances,"
- Colossians 2:20
*
Again, it is clear that Paul is talking about being
dead to the WORLDLY SYSTEM that is sinful
and not the physical world around us.
He speaks in that chapter, of circumcision and
ordinances.
And what else is clear?
Now if we combine the two passages from Colossians
above, we can see that Paul was talking about false
teachers in the church, who were trying to promote
their RELIGIOUS SYSTEM, which promoted THE LAW.
[Actually, I have no problem with how Paul uses the term, or what he is
teaching...]
Paul, in that chapter, clearly talks about the practice
of circumcision and not being under the ordinances
of THE LAW! So what are the "rudiments" he mentioned?
[Now this writer sets the stage for his wrong conclusion.]
*
So Paul clearly tied this word to the Jewish legal
religious system! And if we read that chapter,
we can easily see that Paul is discussing the system
under the Law of Moses and what our relationship
is to it (if any), as I said.
[Up to this point I have no problem with what Paul uses the word
"element" for or what he intends to teach by using it.]
Now, totaling these five passages, with the two
passages from Peter, for our total of seven passages,
we see that what is being discussed, is not the
physical heaven and earth, but the old system under
the Law.
[There is the final wrong conclusion. What was being discussed by Paul
was figurative--that is, "the old system under the Law." That usage by
Paul is not proof of Peter's usage or intended meaning.]
As stated, I marked several spots with *
a) Thus in the above passage, Paul directly ties
the usage of that SAME WORD, to the old
Jewish religious system!
b) Again, it obviously speaks of a system (this time,
of the world), not physical things.
c) Again, it is clear that Paul is talking about being
dead to the WORLDLY SYSTEM that is sinful
and not the physical world around us.
d)So Paul clearly tied this word to the Jewish legal
religious system! And if we read that chapter,
we can easily see that Paul is discussing the system
under the Law of Moses and what our relationship
is to it (if any), as I said.
-----
I have no problem with any of the statements individually; but the point
here, is that this writer has been preparing the reader for his wrong
conclusion: namely; that since Paul used the term in a way other than
literal and definitive, then Peter COULD NOT HAVE USED THE WORD IN A
LITERAL AND DIFINITIVE WAY (meaning the basic ingredients of the earth).
Since Paul used the word as a metaphor to mean "the old system under the
Law," then the FORCED wrong conclusion is that Peter must have intended
the same meaning REGARDLESS OF THE CONTEXT in which he used it.
*THIS IS SOPHISTRY*
This is "slight of hand," 'trickery;' it is a manipulation of the
meaning of words to steal the Truth from God's Children.
Conclusion:
So the world in Noah's day was destroyed by water, while the Heavens and
Earth in the Last Days will be destroyed by fire. Peter goes on to give
clear details on how complete this last destruction will be: the
"elements will melt in fervent heat." Now, the elements are the
"rudimentary" or the basic and primary parts of which the earth
consists. Peter is telling us, using more specific terms, that this
destruction of the last days will not be like that of the first
destruction. In that destruction by water, the World remained. But in
this destruction of the Last Days, even the Iron, Carbon, Hydrogen, and
Oxygen; the Electrons, Protons and Neutrons will also be destroyed.
Peter is telling us that the destruction of the Last Days would include
the very elemental physical properties of which this World consists.
-----
In the beginning God created this universe from nothing by His Word, and
by His Word He will return this universe to nothing from which it came.
Amen.
owd
http://www.xprt.net/~servitum/
-----
By peace he shall destroy many. Daniel
..
.
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| User: "Ananias917" |
|
| Title: Re: ERASING SCRIPTURE |
27 Dec 2005 01:21:51 PM |
|
|
On Tue, 27 Dec 2005 08:48:10 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
Glenn, you are so desperate have someone believe you,
that you just posted to a God hater.
AcesLucky wrote:
Ananias917 wrote:
On Mon, 26 Dec 2005 11:20:15 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
I noted that while Jesus talked about coming in
the clouds, that He was using symbolic language,
to state that He was retuning in judgment
against the land.
Yea. Everything that turns out to be false becomes symbolic, not
literal. That's how the myth stays alive, and how otherwise intelligent
people can become unwitting idiots. Just change what was said to "mean"
something other than what was said.
Yea, scripture is best when written in riddles. Brilliant!
Actually, PD likes to take anything litteral if he can use it to support
his false doctrine, Preterism.
On the other hand, he takes something as sympblic if he can use it to
support his false doctrine, Preterism.
PD does not care about the context in finds a word in, he just
"translates" it to mean something he wishes, so he can prove his false
doctrine, Preterism.
Preterism is a lie.
Consider Dave's treatment of the word "element" by Peter and Paul.
Elements Dissolved
What I would like to do first is just read the scripture and get a clear
idea of the context: that is, the subject Peter is writing about. This
first reading is just to become familiar with the subject--not wrestle
with the meanings and definitions of the words. Then, 2 Peter 3:3-13 in
its simplest, plainest meaning:
3 Knowing this first, that there shall come in the last days scoffers,
walking after their own lusts,
4 And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers
fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the
creation.
5 For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the
heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the
water:
6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:
7 But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are
kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and
perdition of ungodly men.
8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with
the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count
slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should
perish, but that all should come to repentance.
10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the
which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements
shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are
therein shall be burned up.
11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of
persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein
the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall
melt with fervent heat?
13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a
new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.
It seems clear, in its most simple terms, that in this passage Peter is
talking about the passing away of the world, and that, according to His
promise, looking for the new heavens and new earth.
A few notes:
In verses 3 and 4, Peter warns about scoffers in the last days. The
scoffers he mentions may be those of his day who assumed the Lord would
come in the generation of the First Century Saints, but any scoffers in
these Last Days.
In verses 5 and 6, Peter states that they (scoffers) willingly remain
ignorant of the fact that the world, in the days of Noah, was destroyed
with water.
In verse 7, Peter states, "But the heavens and the earth, which are now,
by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day
of judgment and perdition of ungodly men." The World once having been
destroyed by water is--by the Word of God, being reserved unto fire
against THE DAY OF JUDGMENT.
In verse 8 and 9, Peter tells us to be patient because time is
meaningless to God, and He is "longsuffering" (patient) in the hope that
none should perish.
So far the subject of Peter's letter is "the end of the world" as it
occurred in Noah's time, and then warning about scoffers who are mislead
in "the last days."
Then in verse 10 Peter says the Lord will come, the heavens shall pass
away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat,
"the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up."
Comments:
The "world" was destroyed by flood; but the World remained, and 8 people
repopulated the world. It is easy, then, to see that words can be used
in literal or figurative ways. The "world" which was destroyed by flood
was the civilization of man, and their works and ways: while the World
(the Planet) remained. Peter then clearly uses the definitive meaning of
the term in saying "But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the
same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of
judgment." He does not say "world," but specifically "the heavens and
the earth" and tells us why it is reserved "unto fire:" it is held and
set aside "unto the day of judgment."
A word Study:
It has been said by someone else (certainly not me) that the word
"elements" appears twice in this text. And, that word is from the Greek,
as follows.
Quote:
Stoicheion = something orderly in arrangement, that is,
(by implication) a serial (basal, fundamental, initial)
constituent (literally), proposition (figuratively):
- element, principle, rudiment.
We should note that what is after the dash is not
definitions, but is what words this Greek word was
translated into, in the KJV. We should note that
it was translated into, "element", "principle" and
"rudiment". This does not speak of a planet thing.
End quote
I certainly have no problem with this definition of the word "element,"
or in using "rudiment" or "principle" as a synonym.
However, a "word study" can either lead to clarification of a scripture,
or sophistry and deception.
I would like you to consider the sophistry which follows. I will mark a
few statements with * for later consideration. My comments will be in
[brackets] until the conclusion.
-----
Quote:
The Koine Greek word that was translated into
the word, "elements" in what Peter wrote, is used
seven times in the New Testament. The primary
meaning of the word is, when in common usage
for a Jew, "elements (of learning), fundamental
principles or even letters of the alphabet, ABC's,
the very elements of the truth of God.".
[Note this statement: "The primary meaning of the word is, when in
common usage for a Jew..." The problem with this, is that this writer
has gone from "definition" to "usage," and inserted a definition not
included in his dictionary; nor does it allow for the fact that Peter
was not using the term "element" in the common usage of the Jews--since
they (or any humans) did not think of the "elemental" destruction of the
universe."]
From this definition we can see that the primary
use of the word in the context provided, would
mean the elements of religious training, or the
ceremonial precepts that are common to the
worship of the Jews or, in effect, their entire
religious system!
[Did you follow the process of arriving at this wrong conclusion? The
"context provided" was this writer's own, not the context (Peter's)
wherein he found the word. So he has removed the word from its original
context, and now redefined it by using another a definition from another
context.]
But is this an accurate assessment? Let's take a look
at the other uses of the word in the NT and see what
it shows. After all, Scripture interprets Scripture,
right? So as we saw earlier, the Greek word was
translated into three English words, which were,
again... "element(s)", "principle(s)", "rudiment(s)".
So let's see if this word was ever used as a way to
describe something physical, or if it was always
applied to a system that is not a physical one...
[Now this writer sets up the reader for a wrong conclusion by stating
that he is looking for a use that "is not a physical one..."]
"Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage
under the ELEMENTS of the world" - Galatians 4:3
Here, it is clear that Paul is speaking of the ways
of the world and not the planet itself.
[How Paul used the word here is fine with me...]
"But now, after that ye have known God, or rather
are known of God, how turn ye again to the weak
and beggarly ELEMENTS, whereunto ye desire
again to be in bondage?" - Galatians 4:9
["The elements" of the Law are its very foundation, the minute parts,
the "principles" and "rudiments" which makeup the Law. I have no problem
with how Paul uses the word.}
*
Thus in the above passage, Paul directly ties
the usage of that SAME WORD, to the old
Jewish religious system!
From a different letter, Hebrews, we see...
"For when for the time ye ought to be teachers,
ye have need that one teach you again which be
the first PRINCIPLES of the oracles of God; and
are become such as have need of milk, and not
of strong meat." - Hebrews 5:12
Here, the same Greek word is used to denote the basic
teachings of the Christian faith and ties directly to
what is stated above as the primary meaning of the
word, just as the other two verses note a system.
"Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy
and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the
RUDIMENTS of the world, and not after Christ."
- Colossians 2:8
[I have no problem with how Paul uses the word in this verse."]
*
Again, it obviously speaks of a system (this time,
of the world), not physical things.
"Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the
RUDIMENTS of the world, why, as though living
in the world, are ye subject to ordinances,"
- Colossians 2:20
*
Again, it is clear that Paul is talking about being
dead to the WORLDLY SYSTEM that is sinful
and not the physical world around us.
He speaks in that chapter, of circumcision and
ordinances.
And what else is clear?
Now if we combine the two passages from Colossians
above, we can see that Paul was talking about false
teachers in the church, who were trying to promote
their RELIGIOUS SYSTEM, which promoted THE LAW.
[Actually, I have no problem with how Paul uses the term, or what he is
teaching...]
Paul, in that chapter, clearly talks about the practice
of circumcision and not being under the ordinances
of THE LAW! So what are the "rudiments" he mentioned?
[Now this writer sets the stage for his wrong conclusion.]
*
So Paul clearly tied this word to the Jewish legal
religious system! And if we read that chapter,
we can easily see that Paul is discussing the system
under the Law of Moses and what our relationship
is to it (if any), as I said.
[Up to this point I have no problem with what Paul uses the word
"element" for or what he intends to teach by using it.]
Now, totaling these five passages, with the two
passages from Peter, for our total of seven passages,
we see that what is being discussed, is not the
physical heaven and earth, but the old system under
the Law.
[There is the final wrong conclusion. What was being discussed by Paul
was figurative--that is, "the old system under the Law." That usage by
Paul is not proof of Peter's usage or intended meaning.]
As stated, I marked several spots with *
a) Thus in the above passage, Paul directly ties
the usage of that SAME WORD, to the old
Jewish religious system!
b) Again, it obviously speaks of a system (this time,
of the world), not physical things.
c) Again, it is clear that Paul is talking about being
dead to the WORLDLY SYSTEM that is sinful
and not the physical world around us.
d)So Paul clearly tied this word to the Jewish legal
religious system! And if we read that chapter,
we can easily see that Paul is discussing the system
under the Law of Moses and what our relationship
is to it (if any), as I said.
-----
I have no problem with any of the statements individually; but the point
here, is that this writer has been preparing the reader for his wrong
conclusion: namely; that since Paul used the term in a way other than
literal and definitive, then Peter COULD NOT HAVE USED THE WORD IN A
LITERAL AND DIFINITIVE WAY (meaning the basic ingredients of the earth).
Since Paul used the word as a metaphor to mean "the old system under the
Law," then the FORCED wrong conclusion is that Peter must have intended
the same meaning REGARDLESS OF THE CONTEXT in which he used it.
*THIS IS SOPHISTRY*
This is "slight of hand," 'trickery;' it is a manipulation of the
meaning of words to steal the Truth from God's Children.
Conclusion:
So the world in Noah's day was destroyed by water, while the Heavens and
Earth in the Last Days will be destroyed by fire. Peter goes on to give
clear details on how complete this last destruction will be: the
"elements will melt in fervent heat." Now, the elements are the
"rudimentary" or the basic and primary parts of which the earth
consists. Peter is telling us, using more specific terms, that this
destruction of the last days will not be like that of the first
destruction. In that destruction by water, the World remained. But in
this destruction of the Last Days, even the Iron, Carbon, Hydrogen, and
Oxygen; the Electrons, Protons and Neutrons will also be destroyed.
Peter is telling us that the destruction of the Last Days would include
the very elemental physical properties of which this World consists.
-----
In the beginning God created this universe from nothing by His Word, and
by His Word He will return this universe to nothing from which it came.
Amen.
owd
http://www.xprt.net/~servitum/
-----
By peace he shall destroy many. Daniel
.
--
"And Ananias went his way, and entered into the house;
and putting his hands on him said, Brother Saul, the
Lord, even Jesus, that appeared unto thee in the way
as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest
receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost."
- Acts 9:17
Would a loving God send people to Hell?
http://godandscience.org/apologetics/hell.html
.
|
|
|
| User: "oldwetdog" |
|
| Title: Re: ERASING SCRIPTURE |
27 Dec 2005 03:37:37 PM |
|
|
Ananias917 wrote:
On Tue, 27 Dec 2005 08:48:10 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
Preterism is a lie.
Consider Dave's treatment of the word "element" by Peter and Paul.
Elements Dissolved
What I would like to do first is just read the scripture and get a clear
idea of the context: that is, the subject Peter is writing about. This
first reading is just to become familiar with the subject--not wrestle
with the meanings and definitions of the words. Then, 2 Peter 3:3-13 in
its simplest, plainest meaning:
3 Knowing this first, that there shall come in the last days scoffers,
walking after their own lusts,
4 And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers
fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the
creation.
5 For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the
heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the
water:
6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:
7 But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are
kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and
perdition of ungodly men.
8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with
the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count
slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should
perish, but that all should come to repentance.
10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the
which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements
shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are
therein shall be burned up.
11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of
persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein
the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall
melt with fervent heat?
13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a
new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.
It seems clear, in its most simple terms, that in this passage Peter is
talking about the passing away of the world, and that, according to His
promise, looking for the new heavens and new earth.
A few notes:
In verses 3 and 4, Peter warns about scoffers in the last days. The
scoffers he mentions may be those of his day who assumed the Lord would
come in the generation of the First Century Saints, but any scoffers in
these Last Days.
In verses 5 and 6, Peter states that they (scoffers) willingly remain
ignorant of the fact that the world, in the days of Noah, was destroyed
with water.
In verse 7, Peter states, "But the heavens and the earth, which are now,
by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day
of judgment and perdition of ungodly men." The World once having been
destroyed by water is--by the Word of God, being reserved unto fire
against THE DAY OF JUDGMENT.
In verse 8 and 9, Peter tells us to be patient because time is
meaningless to God, and He is "longsuffering" (patient) in the hope that
none should perish.
So far the subject of Peter's letter is "the end of the world" as it
occurred in Noah's time, and then warning about scoffers who are mislead
in "the last days."
Then in verse 10 Peter says the Lord will come, the heavens shall pass
away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat,
"the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up."
Comments:
The "world" was destroyed by flood; but the World remained, and 8 people
repopulated the world. It is easy, then, to see that words can be used
in literal or figurative ways. The "world" which was destroyed by flood
was the civilization of man, and their works and ways: while the World
(the Planet) remained. Peter then clearly uses the definitive meaning of
the term in saying "But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the
same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of
judgment." He does not say "world," but specifically "the heavens and
the earth" and tells us why it is reserved "unto fire:" it is held and
set aside "unto the day of judgment."
A word Study:
It has been said by someone else (certainly not me) that the word
"elements" appears twice in this text. And, that word is from the Greek,
as follows.
Quote:
Stoicheion = something orderly in arrangement, that is,
(by implication) a serial (basal, fundamental, initial)
constituent (literally), proposition (figuratively):
- element, principle, rudiment.
We should note that what is after the dash is not
definitions, but is what words this Greek word was
translated into, in the KJV. We should note that
it was translated into, "element", "principle" and
"rudiment". This does not speak of a planet thing.
End quote
I certainly have no problem with this definition of the word "element,"
or in using "rudiment" or "principle" as a synonym.
However, a "word study" can either lead to clarification of a scripture,
or sophistry and deception.
I would like you to consider the sophistry which follows. I will mark a
few statements with * for later consideration. My comments will be in
[brackets] until the conclusion.
-----
Quote:
The Koine Greek word that was translated into
the word, "elements" in what Peter wrote, is used
seven times in the New Testament. The primary
meaning of the word is, when in common usage
for a Jew, "elements (of learning), fundamental
principles or even letters of the alphabet, ABC's,
the very elements of the truth of God.".
[Note this statement: "The primary meaning of the word is, when in
common usage for a Jew..." The problem with this, is that this writer
has gone from "definition" to "usage," and inserted a definition not
included in his dictionary; nor does it allow for the fact that Peter
was not using the term "element" in the common usage of the Jews--since
they (or any humans) did not think of the "elemental" destruction of the
universe."]
From this definition we can see that the primary
use of the word in the context provided, would
mean the elements of religious training, or the
ceremonial precepts that are common to the
worship of the Jews or, in effect, their entire
religious system!
[Did you follow the process of arriving at this wrong conclusion? The
"context provided" was this writer's own, not the context (Peter's)
wherein he found the word. So he has removed the word from its original
context, and now redefined it by using another a definition from another
context.]
But is this an accurate assessment? Let's take a look
at the other uses of the word in the NT and see what
it shows. After all, Scripture interprets Scripture,
right? So as we saw earlier, the Greek word was
translated into three English words, which were,
again... "element(s)", "principle(s)", "rudiment(s)".
So let's see if this word was ever used as a way to
describe something physical, or if it was always
applied to a system that is not a physical one...
[Now this writer sets up the reader for a wrong conclusion by stating
that he is looking for a use that "is not a physical one..."]
"Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage
under the ELEMENTS of the world" - Galatians 4:3
Here, it is clear that Paul is speaking of the ways
of the world and not the planet itself.
[How Paul used the word here is fine with me...]
"But now, after that ye have known God, or rather
are known of God, how turn ye again to the weak
and beggarly ELEMENTS, whereunto ye desire
again to be in bondage?" - Galatians 4:9
["The elements" of the Law are its very foundation, the minute parts,
the "principles" and "rudiments" which makeup the Law. I have no problem
with how Paul uses the word.}
*
Thus in the above passage, Paul directly ties
the usage of that SAME WORD, to the old
Jewish religious system!
From a different letter, Hebrews, we see...
"For when for the time ye ought to be teachers,
ye have need that one teach you again which be
the first PRINCIPLES of the oracles of God; and
are become such as have need of milk, and not
of strong meat." - Hebrews 5:12
Here, the same Greek word is used to denote the basic
teachings of the Christian faith and ties directly to
what is stated above as the primary meaning of the
word, just as the other two verses note a system.
"Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy
and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the
RUDIMENTS of the world, and not after Christ."
- Colossians 2:8
[I have no problem with how Paul uses the word in this verse."]
*
Again, it obviously speaks of a system (this time,
of the world), not physical things.
"Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the
RUDIMENTS of the world, why, as though living
in the world, are ye subject to ordinances,"
- Colossians 2:20
*
Again, it is clear that Paul is talking about being
dead to the WORLDLY SYSTEM that is sinful
and not the physical world around us.
He speaks in that chapter, of circumcision and
ordinances.
And what else is clear?
Now if we combine the two passages from Colossians
above, we can see that Paul was talking about false
teachers in the church, who were trying to promote
their RELIGIOUS SYSTEM, which promoted THE LAW.
[Actually, I have no problem with how Paul uses the term, or what he is
teaching...]
Paul, in that chapter, clearly talks about the practice
of circumcision and not being under the ordinances
of THE LAW! So what are the "rudiments" he mentioned?
[Now this writer sets the stage for his wrong conclusion.]
*
So Paul clearly tied this word to the Jewish legal
religious system! And if we read that chapter,
we can easily see that Paul is discussing the system
under the Law of Moses and what our relationship
is to it (if any), as I said.
[Up to this point I have no problem with what Paul uses the word
"element" for or what he intends to teach by using it.]
Now, totaling these five passages, with the two
passages from Peter, for our total of seven passages,
we see that what is being discussed, is not the
physical heaven and earth, but the old system under
the Law.
[There is the final wrong conclusion. What was being discussed by Paul
was figurative--that is, "the old system under the Law." That usage by
Paul is not proof of Peter's usage or intended meaning.]
As stated, I marked several spots with *
a) Thus in the above passage, Paul directly ties
the usage of that SAME WORD, to the old
Jewish religious system!
b) Again, it obviously speaks of a system (this time,
of the world), not physical things.
c) Again, it is clear that Paul is talking about being
dead to the WORLDLY SYSTEM that is sinful
and not the physical world around us.
d)So Paul clearly tied this word to the Jewish legal
religious system! And if we read that chapter,
we can easily see that Paul is discussing the system
under the Law of Moses and what our relationship
is to it (if any), as I said.
-----
I have no problem with any of the statements individually; but the point
here, is that this writer has been preparing the reader for his wrong
conclusion: namely; that since Paul used the term in a way other than
literal and definitive, then Peter COULD NOT HAVE USED THE WORD IN A
LITERAL AND DIFINITIVE WAY (meaning the basic ingredients of the earth).
Since Paul used the word as a metaphor to mean "the old system under the
Law," then the FORCED wrong conclusion is that Peter must have intended
the same meaning REGARDLESS OF THE CONTEXT in which he used it.
*THIS IS SOPHISTRY*
This is "slight of hand," 'trickery;' it is a manipulation of the
meaning of words to steal the Truth from God's Children.
Conclusion:
So the world in Noah's day was destroyed by water, while the Heavens and
Earth in the Last Days will be destroyed by fire. Peter goes on to give
clear details on how complete this last destruction will be: the
"elements will melt in fervent heat." Now, the elements are the
"rudimentary" or the basic and primary parts of which the earth
consists. Peter is telling us, using more specific terms, that this
destruction of the last days will not be like that of the first
destruction. In that destruction by water, the World remained. But in
this destruction of the Last Days, even the Iron, Carbon, Hydrogen, and
Oxygen; the Electrons, Protons and Neutrons will also be destroyed.
Peter is telling us that the destruction of the Last Days would include
the very elemental physical properties of which this World consists.
-----
In the beginning God created this universe from nothing by His Word, and
by His Word He will return this universe to nothing from which it came.
Amen.
owd
http://www.xprt.net/~servitum/
-----
By peace he shall destroy many. Daniel
..
.
|
|
|
| User: "Ananias917" |
|
| Title: Re: ERASING SCRIPTURE |
27 Dec 2005 07:33:16 PM |
|
|
On Tue, 27 Dec 2005 13:37:37 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
Ananias917 wrote:
On Tue, 27 Dec 2005 08:48:10 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
Preterism is a lie.
Consider Dave's treatment of the word "element" by Peter and Paul.
Nowhere below, did you bother to address any of the
points I made, so pretending that you have studied
it and are able to refute it, is pathetic at best.
See below.
Elements Dissolved
What I would like to do first is just read the scripture and get a clear
idea of the context: that is, the subject Peter is writing about. This
first reading is just to become familiar with the subject--not wrestle
with the meanings and definitions of the words. Then, 2 Peter 3:3-13 in
its simplest, plainest meaning:
3 Knowing this first, that there shall come in the last days scoffers,
walking after their own lusts,
4 And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers
fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the
creation.
5 For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the
heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the
water:
6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:
7 But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are
kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and
perdition of ungodly men.
8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with
the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count
slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should
perish, but that all should come to repentance.
10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the
which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements
shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are
therein shall be burned up.
11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of
persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein
the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall
melt with fervent heat?
13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a
new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.
It seems clear, in its most simple terms, that in this passage Peter is
talking about the passing away of the world, and that, according to His
promise, looking for the new heavens and new earth.
A few notes:
In verses 3 and 4, Peter warns about scoffers in the last days. The
scoffers he mentions may be those of his day who assumed the Lord would
come in the generation of the First Century Saints, but any scoffers in
these Last Days.
And yet, you claimed that the writers of the NT were
wrong in their belief that Jesus was going to return
in their generation. Now you're here saying Peter
is correcting those who said He would return in
the first century.
So which is it, Glenn? You can't have it both ways.
And we both know in another thread, you did say
that.
Of course, then you were dumb enough to quote it
back to me, while asking for proof that you said it,
TWICE BTW, IN THE SAME THREAD!!!
Or maybe you're saying that Peter was also correcting
Paul? that would be odd, considering that Peter said
that Paul's writings are Scripture.
And btw Glenn, that is NOT what he said.
You just ADDED to Scripture.
Please quote the passage in which Peter says that they
were saying, "the first century".
What is especially funny, is that you people use this
very passage to try to prove that we are in the last
days, because we're experiencing the scoffing, so
obviously, those who first experienced it, are in
the last days.
You just confirmed that, by saying, "these last days",
referring to our time now.
Then, when I show that Peter was responding about it
in the first century, you won't admit that it shows
that they were in the last days. Even though the NT
says that they were in the last days.
Hebrews 1:1-2
1) God who at sundry times and in divers manners
spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
2) Hath IN THESE LAST DAYS spoken unto us by
his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things,
by whom also he made the worlds;
But wait, that's right, you said that the writers
of the NT were wrong about that.
Of course, you hypocritically quote the NT, trying
to prove that they show your generation to be the
last days.
So which is it, Glenn?
In verses 5 and 6, Peter states that they (scoffers) willingly remain
ignorant of the fact that the world, in the days of Noah, was destroyed
with water.
In verse 7, Peter states, "But the heavens and the earth, which are now,
by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day
of judgment and perdition of ungodly men." The World once having been
destroyed by water is--by the Word of God, being reserved unto fire
against THE DAY OF JUDGMENT.
In verse 8 and 9, Peter tells us to be patient because time is
meaningless to God, and He is "longsuffering" (patient) in the hope that
none should perish.
So far the subject of Peter's letter is "the end of the world" as it
occurred in Noah's time, and then warning about scoffers who are mislead
in "the last days."
Peter's point was not the destruction of the world.
His point was about their attitude of ignorance,
right up to the point that destruction came.
Or did you not get that whole "scoffing" thing?
What you have proved, was that Peter was stating
that their scoffing, which was occurring then,
was ironic proof that THEY were in the last days
THEN. But you don't care about truth. You only
care about what YOU label as, "the Truth", which
is your claim that it's a fact, without any doubt
whatsoever, that Jesus is returning within this
generation today.
GLENN: "Jesus IS returning in the life time of
THIS generation!"
See below.
Then in verse 10 Peter says the Lord will come, the heavens shall pass
away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat,
"the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up."
Comments:
The "world" was destroyed by flood; but the World remained, and 8 people
repopulated the world. It is easy, then, to see that words can be used
in literal or figurative ways. The "world" which was destroyed by flood
was the civilization of man, and their works and ways: while the World
(the Planet) remained. Peter then clearly uses the definitive meaning of
the term in saying "But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the
same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of
judgment." He does not say "world," but specifically "the heavens and
the earth" and tells us why it is reserved "unto fire:" it is held and
set aside "unto the day of judgment."
A word Study:
It has been said by someone else (certainly not me) that the word
"elements" appears twice in this text. And, that word is from the Greek,
as follows.
Quote:
Stoicheion = something orderly in arrangement, that is,
(by implication) a serial (basal, fundamental, initial)
constituent (literally), proposition (figuratively):
- element, principle, rudiment.
We should note that what is after the dash is not
definitions, but is what words this Greek word was
translated into, in the KJV. We should note that
it was translated into, "element", "principle" and
"rudiment". This does not speak of a planet thing.
End quote
I certainly have no problem with this definition of the word "element,"
or in using "rudiment" or "principle" as a synonym.
However, a "word study" can either lead to clarification of a scripture,
or sophistry and deception.
I would like you to consider the sophistry which follows. I will mark a
few statements with * for later consideration. My comments will be in
[brackets] until the conclusion.
And where have you dealt with what I said?
Thus far, all you have said is, "If Glenn doesn't
say it, then it's sophistry".
You have just claimed that it is evil to study what
the actual words of the NT are.
<snip>
Your response did not deal with anything I said.
You simply quoted my words, to try to convince
people that you gave it a good study and then
inserted your comment below it, that to study
the Bible is evil, just as you claimed above and
you did so, because the conclusions that the
words actually show, do not match your claims
that Jesus is returning in this generation.
You also had no problem taking the words of
the writer of Hebrews ("in these last days")
and claiming that he said it about this century,
thereby CHANGING his words.
You also had no problem claiming that Peter
was saying, "first century", thereby ADDING
to his words.
Had you done an honest study of what I wrote,
I would have considered any points you made.
I will not however, treat lies and changing,
deleting and adding of words in/to the Bible,
as if it's an honest attempt to respond.
You are a liar.
You are a deceiver.
You hate God, because He isn't what you want Him to be.
You change the Bible.
You claim that it is evil, whenever it doesn't match
your claims, just as you did when you claimed that
Isaiah 19:1 was added to by "profane men", when
I proved that it showed Jesus coming in the clouds,
was a symbolic statement of His presence in
judgment.
Now go ahead and ask me to give you a link, so that
when I do, you can snip it in your response and ask
why I haven't provided the link, AS YOU ALWAYS DO!
<chuckle>
We know what your "Truth" is, since you have defined
it for us and told us what it is. It is your claim...
GLENN: "Jesus IS returning in the life time of
THIS generation!"
--
"And Ananias went his way, and entered into the house;
and putting his hands on him said, Brother Saul, the
Lord, even Jesus, that appeared unto thee in the way
as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest
receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost."
- Acts 9:17
Would a loving God send people to Hell?
http://godandscience.org/apologetics/hell.html
.
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| User: "Ananias917" |
|
| Title: Re: ERASING SCRIPTURE |
27 Dec 2005 07:09:33 PM |
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On Tue, 27 Dec 2005 13:37:37 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
Ananias917 wrote:
On Tue, 27 Dec 2005 08:48:10 -0800, oldwetdog
<oldwetdog@hotmail.com> spake thusly:
Preterism is a lie.
Thank you for snipping all of my words, proving
yourself to be afraid.
Consider Dave's treatment of the word "element" by Peter and Paul.
You haven't.
--
"And Ananias went his way, and entered into the house;
and putting his hands on him said, Brother Saul, the
Lord, even Jesus, that appeared unto thee in the way
as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest
receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost."
- Acts 9:17
Would a loving God send people to Hell?
http://godandscience.org/apologetics/hell.html
.
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