Explaining The Trinity To Jehovah's Witnesses



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Topic: Religions > Bible
User: "Carl"
Date: 24 Jun 2007 03:39:02 PM
Object: Explaining The Trinity To Jehovah's Witnesses
The following is an article directed at Christians who encounter members of
the Watchtower Bible And Tract Society commonly referred to as "Jehovah's
Witnesses." They deny several essential doctrines of the Christian faith,
one of which is the Trinity. Jay Hess addresses how to explain the Biblical
doctrine of the Trinity to Jehovah's Witnesses.
May God bless,
Carl
my website -- http://www.nettally.com/saints/
my blog -- http://www.anniemayhem.com/cgi-bin/wordpress/
---
Explaining the Trinity to JWs
by Jay Hess
Introduction
Occasionally the doctrine of the Trinity is described as a
"mystery" and as "incomprehensible". To many thinking persons
these terms imply that the doctrine is illogical and
unbelievable. But any doctrine that is held by so many should be
logical, easy to understand and easy to explain. It should not
require one to be a language scholar or even to wrestle with
language issues. Any appeal to language considerations should be
only to add clarity to the message that is already present. Did
the fishermen and shepherds in first century Palestine need to
acquaint themselves with obscure language issues in order to
understand the doctrinal basics? I do not think so. True, they
were already familiar with the original language in which the
text was written but I doubt they had to concern themselves with
fine points of grammar.
Further, a doctrine that is considered to be fundamental to the
Christian faith should not have to stand on isolated verses here
and there that only give hints. It should be clearer than that.
We should be able to find extended passages that demonstrate the
point.
If a doctrine is to be held with conviction, then it should be
able to respond to Scriptural challenges logically and simply and
not have to repeatedly resort to statements like "it is a
mystery" or "God is beyond our comprehension". While it is true,
of course, that there are things that are true of God that are
beyond our comprehension - I still cannot conceive of what `from
eternity' means - but, at the very least, those doctrines that
we choose to hold firmly should not appear contradictory.
For example, 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 shows that after his reign,
Christ will be eternally submissive to his Father. How does this
fit into the Trinity doctrine? 1 Corinthians 11:3 teaches that
the head of Christ is God, and without any temporal
qualification. Does this not imply that Christ is eternally
submissive? Is that how we conceive of Jesus as being God? Since
Revelation 3:12 shows that the Father is the God of Jesus, how do
we answer the series of questions: `Does God have a God? If Jesus
is God and Jesus has a God, then does that not mean God has a
God? How many Gods are there?' How can Jesus be God and at the
same time be a servant (Acts 4:27)? And what about Hebrews 5:8,
which implies that Jesus had to come to earth to learn obedience.
Why would God have to learn anything? 1 Corinthians 8:6 seems to
say that the Father is the one to call God while Jesus is
distinguished as Lord. - All these issues should be explainable.
Finally, it is preferable that doctrines be based on the most
straightforward reading of a Biblical text without reading
something into a text. If the straight reading of a text seems
difficult to reconcile with other texts, this is not a sound
reason to immediately assume it cannot mean what it says. If this
sounds hard to do, just think of this as an `experiment' where
we will just accept the texts for what they say and see if, in
the end, we have something that is easy to understand or whether
we have an incomprehensible mystery.
There will be two presentations in this booklet, one using the
first part of the book of Hebrews and another using the Gospel of
John chapter 5. Both of these passages assume that the reader is
familiar with Jewish beliefs. So as the discussion proceeds it
will be necessary to refer to Old Testament texts. Because a JW
will only accept the New World Translation and because non-JWs
often do not realize the significance of the differences between
the NWT and other Bibles, this presentation will quote mainly
from the NWT.
The Deity of Christ
Would you consider the belief that Jesus is the "Christ" to be a
fundamental belief? Would you say that this belief was clearly
taught by Jesus?
Generally Jesus did not openly claim that he was the Christ (John
10:24,25,37,38; Luke 22:67) but wanted to be recognized based on
his teachings and his works (John 5:36; 14:10,11). Only rarely
did he admit to being the Christ (John 4:25,26). He normally did
not want others to proclaim that he was the Christ (Matthew
16:20; Luke 4:41). A few recognized him as the Christ (John 1:41;
7:31; 11:26,27; Matthew 16:13-16; 27:17,22), but most had
misconceptions about what to expect of the Christ and did not
recognize him (John 7:27,40-43; 12:34; Luke 23:39).
Why do some people today believe Jesus is the Christ?
The claims Jesus made imply that he was the Christ.
The works Jesus did imply that he was the Christ.
Persons close to Jesus professed him to be the Christ.
Why do some people doubt Jesus is the Christ?
Jesus did not actually claim to be the Christ.
Some misunderstand the implications of the title, leading
to false expectations.
I believe that the same is true for Jesus' Deity. Although his
claims and works show him to be God and some persons close to him
even professed him to be God, because he never actually claimed
to be God and because some misunderstand the implications of the
title, many today are unable to believe that he is God. So in the
examination that follows, ask yourself, do the claims and works
of Jesus imply that he is God? Do the scriptures actually call
him "God"? If you doubt that Jesus is God, could it be that the
title "God" causes you to expect things about Jesus that are not
actually taught in Scripture?
If a first-century Jew were curious about who Jesus was and
wanted a description of this new Christian religion in terms that
would utilize Jewish beliefs and heritage, what ONE book of the
Bible should he read? The book "to the Hebrews".
Hebrews 1: . . .
"1 God, who long ago spoke on many occasions and in
many ways to our forefathers by means of the prophets,
2 has at the end of these days spoken to us by means of
a Son, . . ."
The Hebrew Scriptures were revealed somewhat through angels but
mostly through imperfect human agents. Now we are introduced to
someone called the "Son". Who is he? Can he be described in terms
already familiar to the Jewish believer? Will the Son be
described as a human, a prophet, as an angel or what?
Hebrews 1:2
". . . whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom
he made the systems of things."
Notice that this says the Son made the systems of things. This is
plural and emphasizes that he made everything in the universe.
This is echoed in ...:
John 1:3 "All things came into existence through him, and apart
from him not even one thing came into existence."
So through this Son, God (as mentioned in Hebrews 1:1) made the
universe. Nothing that was made came into existence without him.
This would probably cause a devout Jew a little puzzlement. Was
there anyone in the Hebrew scriptures that was revealed to have
shared in making the universe? Who could this be? Angels, also
called sons of God (Job 1:6; 2:1; Psalm 29:1; 89:5-7), cannot do
what God can do, they did not participate in making the universe,
they were part of the creation:
Deuteronomy 3:24 "O Sovereign Lord Jehovah, you yourself have
started to make your servant see your greatness and your strong
arm, for who is a god in the heavens or on the earth that does
deeds like yours and mighty performances like yours?"
Psalm 71:19 "Your righteousness, O God, is up to the height; As
respects the great things that you have done, O God, who is like
you?"
Psalm 86:8 "There is none like you among the gods, O Jehovah,
Neither are there any works like yours."
Psalm 86:10 "For you are great and are doing wondrous things; You
are God, you alone."
Isaiah 44:24 "This is what Jehovah has said, your Repurchaser and
the Former of you from the belly: `I, Jehovah, am doing
everything, stretching out the heavens by myself, laying out the
earth. Who was with me?' "
Isaiah 45:18 "For this is what Jehovah has said, the Creator of
the heavens, He the true God, the Former of the earth and the
Maker of it, He the One who firmly established it, who did not
create it simply for nothing, who formed it even to be inhabited:
`I am Jehovah, and there is no one else."
Isaiah 45: 21,22 ". . . Who has caused this to be heard from a
long time ago? Who has reported it from that very time? Is it not
I, Jehovah, besides whom there is no other God; a righteous God
and a Savior, there being none excepting me? Turn to me and be
saved, all you at the ends of the earth; for I am God, and there
is no one else."
So how many Gods made the universe? One or two? Notice what
Jesus' Jewish disciples thought . . .
Acts 4:24 "Upon hearing this they with one accord raised their
voices to God and said: "Sovereign Lord, you are the One who made
the heaven and the earth and the sea and all the things in them."
Acts 17:24 "The God that made the world and all the things in it,
being, as this One is, Lord of heaven and earth."
Only ONE God made the universe! Who? If God made the universe by
himself and no other God can do what He can do, who is this Son
that was used to make the universe? Will the rest of the book to
the Hebrews answer this? Will it name someone that has already
been revealed in the Hebrew Scriptures as this Son that made the
universe?
continuing with Hebrews 1:3 ". . .He is the reflection of [his]
glory . . ."
So this "Son" is the reflection (other translations say
"radiance") of God's glory! This too is a puzzlement. For the
Hebrew Scriptures say:
Isaiah 42:8 "I am Jehovah. That is my name; and to no one
else shall I give my own glory, neither my praise to graven
images."
Isaiah 48:11 "For my own sake, for my own sake I shall act, for
how could one let oneself be profaned? And to no one else shall I
give my own glory." (Compare Matthew 16:27; Mark 8:38; John
16:14,15; 17:5; Revelation 5:13,14)
So who is it that is the reflection and radiance of the glory of
God himself? Is it really true that God will not share his glory
with another? Since we are in Isaiah for the moment, consider
another passage where Isaiah saw Jehovah's glory. As you read it,
ask yourself "Are Isaiah 42:8 and 48:11 true here? Is God's glory
being shared with another God? How many glories are mentioned
here?" . . .
Isaiah 6:1,2 ". . . I, however, got to see Jehovah, sitting on a
throne lofty and lifted up, and his skirts were filling the
temple. Seraphs were standing above him. "
Isaiah 6:3 "And this one called to that one and said: "Holy,
holy, holy is Jehovah of armies. The fullness of all the earth is
his glory.""
Isaiah 6:5 "And I proceeded to say: "Woe to me! For I am as good
as brought to silence, because a man unclean in lips I am, and in
among a people unclean in lips I am dwelling; for my eyes have
seen the King, Jehovah of armies, himself!""
Isaiah 6:8-10 "And I began to hear the voice of Jehovah saying:
"Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?" And I proceeded to
say: "Here I am! Send me." And he went on to say: "Go, and you
must say to this people, `Hear again and again, O men, but do not
understand; and see again and again, but do not get any
knowledge.' Make the heart of this people unreceptive, and make
their very ears unresponsive, and paste their very eyes together,
that they may not see with their eyes and with their ears they
may not hear, and that their own heart may not understand and
that they may not actually turn back and get healing for
themselves." "
Well, how many glories did you see? Did you see the glory of
anyone else described here? Did Jehovah share his glory with
anyone else? Now compare . . .
John 12:36,37: ". . . Jesus spoke these things and went off and
hid from them. But although he had performed so many signs before
them, they were not putting faith in him,"
John 12:39-43 "The reason why they were not able to believe is
that again Isaiah said: "He has blinded their eyes and he has
made their hearts hard, that they should not see with their eyes
and get the thought with their hearts and turn around and I
should heal them." Isaiah said these things because he saw his
glory, and he spoke about him. All the same, many even of the
rulers actually put faith in him, but because of the Pharisees
they would not confess [him], in order not to be expelled from
the synagogue; for they loved the glory of men more than even the
glory of God."
From the context it is clear that this is referring to Jesus, the
Son of God, the one that many would not believe. Yet John quotes
Isaiah 6:10 (in John 12:40) and says that Isaiah saw the glory of
the Son of God! So how many glories did Isaiah see? Since Isaiah
heard Jehovah say "who will go for us?", does this imply that
there was another separate glory present but not mentioned? Or
does this imply only that there was another person present but
only ONE glory shared by both? Is Isaiah 42:8 and 48:11
contradicting Isaiah 6:1-10? So whose glory did Isaiah see -
Jesus' or Jehovah's? Did he see the glory of one God or two? Does
verse 43 answer the question when it refers to "the glory of
God"? Actually the answer is simple and easy to understand but
that will have to wait until later . . .
continuing with Hebrews 1:3 . . .
". . . and the exact representation of his very being,"
As a side reference, this thought is echoed in . . .
Philippians 2:6 "who, although he was existing in God's form,
.. . ." (Although translations differ over how the end of this
verse should be translated they agree on the first part saying
that Jesus, while in heaven, existed in God's form.)
John 14:9 "Jesus said to him: "Have I been with you men so long a
time, and yet, Philip, you have not come to know me? He that has
seen me has seen the Father [also]. . . ."
Jesus has God's appearance, he looks exactly like God even in his
"very being". But who looks like God? Do angels look like God? Is
there another God that looks exactly like God? Here is another
puzzle for the Hebrew trying to understand who the Son is in
terms of the Hebrew Scriptures:
Psalm 89:6-9 "For who in the skies can be compared to Jehovah?
Who can resemble Jehovah among the sons of God? God is to be held
in awe among the intimate group of holy ones; He is grand and
fear-inspiring over all who are round about him. O Jehovah God of
armies, Who is vigorous like you, O Jah? And your faithfulness is
all around you. You are ruling over the swelling of the sea; When
it raises up its waves you yourself calm them." - [What would a
Jew that was familiar with this verse think of the account in
Matthew 8:24-27 (Mark 4:35-41; Luke 8:22-25)?]
Note that this implies that the "sons of God" of verse 6 are the
ones who are around him in verse 7. So even the angels that are
around Jehovah, these sons of God, cannot compare nor do they
even resemble Him. Then WHO is the Son that is the reflection of
God's glory "and the exact representation of his very being"?
1 Kings 8:23 "and he went on to say: `O Jehovah the God of
Israel, there is no God like you in the heavens above or on the
earth beneath, keeping the covenant and the loving-kindness
toward your servants who are walking before you with all their
heart' " (2 Chronicles 6:14 reads the same.)
Isaiah 46:5 "To whom will you people liken me or make [me]
equal or compare me that we may resemble each other? . . ."
Isaiah 46:9 "Remember the first things of a long time ago, that I
am the Divine One and there is no other God, nor anyone like me."
(Other verses that also say there is no God like Jehovah, are:
Exodus 8:10; 9:14; 15:11; Deuteronomy 33:26; 1 Samuel 2:2; 2
Samuel 7:22; 1 Chronicles 17:20; Psalm 113:5; Isaiah 40:18,25;
44:6-8; Jeremiah 10:6; Micah 7:18.)
Would a Jew familiar with these texts conclude that the Son, the
one who is "the exact representation of his very being" must be
an angel or a second and distinct God? Just who is this book to
the Hebrews, chapter 1 verse 3, describing here?
continuing with Hebrews 1:3
". . . and he sustains all things by the word of his power;"
Again, as we saw in verse 2, the Son can do what God can. But who
can do the works of God? WHO sustains the universe? Not the
angels:
Psalm 148:1-6 "Praise Jah, you people! Praise Jehovah from the
heavens, Praise him in the heights. Praise him, all you his
angels. Praise him, all you his army. Praise him, you sun and
moon. Praise him, all you stars of light. Praise him, you heavens
of the heavens, And you waters that are above the heavens. Let
them praise the name of Jehovah; For he himself commanded, and
they were created. And he keeps them standing forever, to time
indefinite. A regulation he has given, and it will not pass
away."
So how is it that the Son sustains the universe?
continuing with Hebrews 1:3 . . .
". . . and after he had made a purification for our sins
he sat down on the right hand of the Majesty in lofty
places."
How would a first-century Jew react to this claim that the Son
removed his sins? The same situation occurred at Mark 2:1-12
(Luke 5:18-26) where Jesus showed he had the authority to forgive
sins before his death (Mark 2:10; Luke 5:24). The Jews replied
(Mark 2:7) "He is blaspheming. Who can forgive sins except one,
God?" or (Luke 5:21) "Who is this that is speaking blasphemies?
Who can forgive sins except God alone?" There reaction to saying
that someone, other than God, removed sin was blasphemy! So what
would a Hebrew, reading this book written to the Hebrews,
conclude as to the identity of the Son of God? Would he say `Of
course, the Son must be a second God (or an angel) that made the
universe, does everything God does, looks exactly like God, has
the glory of God, sustains the universe and forgives sins.'?
Up to this point the Son has been compared to God. Would you say
that the comparisons show the Son to be different, somewhat
similar or exactly like God? Well, now we will see how the Son is
compared to angels. Will we find that the writer of Hebrews
identifies the Son with some special angel that was revealed in
the Hebrew Scriptures? Will we see a parallel between the Son and
any angel mentioned in the New Testament, such as Revelation
20:1? No. From this point on we will see the Son contrasted with
angels and shown to be VERY different. If the Son is to be
identified with some Old Testament angel, this is THE place to
show it so that our Jewish reader of this book to the Hebrews
will understand who the Son is in familiar terms.
"Hebrews 1:4 So he has become better than the angels, to
the extent that he has inherited a name more excellent
than theirs."
For clarity compare this rendering from the New Revised Standard
Version
"4 having become as much superior to angels as the
name he has inherited is more excellent than theirs."
This is echoed in . . .
1 Peter 3:22 "He is at God's right hand, for he went his way to
heaven; and angels and authorities and powers were made subject
to him."
We learn from Hebrews 2:9,17 that the Son had to take on the
nature of humans and become, temporarily, lower than angels. But
at his resurrection he was exalted to heaven, and received a
position superior to that of angels (compare John 17:5) and
received another superior name, the "only-begotten Son" that had
its fullest meaning after his resurrection (Romans 1:3,4; Acts
13:33).
"Hebrews 1:5 For example, to which one of the angels did
he ever say: "You are my son; I, today, I have become
your father"? And again: "I myself shall become his
father, and he himself will become my son"?"
There are two Old Testament references here, the first is from
Psalm 2:7, the second is from 2 Samuel 7:14 (that these apply to
Jesus, the Son, compare Acts 13:33 and Hebrews 5:5). Following
the line of reasoning here, we see this is a rhetorical question,
that is, the answer is supposed to be obvious to the informed
reader. God never said these things to any angel.
"Hebrews 1:6 But when he again brings his Firstborn into
the inhabited earth, he says: "And let all God's angels
do obeisance to him." "
This is similar to Psalm 148:2 (quoted above) where the angels
praise God. It could be considered somewhat like Daniel 7:14
where all people are to serve the "son of man". It is possibly a
quotation from Psalm 97:7, which is very close when viewed in the
Greek Septuagint (abbreviated LXX, the Greek Old Testament used
by early Christians and some Jews). But it is closest to
Deuteronomy 32:43 which reads (only in the LXX!):
"Rejoice, ye heavens, with him, and let all the angels of
God worship him; rejoice ye Gentiles, with his people, and
let all the sons of God strengthen themselves in him; for he
will avenge the blood of his sons, and he will render ven-
geance, and recompense justice to his enemies, and will re-
ward them that hate him; and the Lord shall purge the land
of his people."
So here is the point: The Old Testament, either Psalm 97:7 (LXX)
or Deuteronomy 32:43 (LXX), has the angels giving homage to God.
This is, of course, because God is so much higher than angels.
But in Hebrews 1:6 the writer quotes this very same passage and
applies it to the relationship between the angels and the Son.
Again, this contrasts angels from the Son, it does not compare
them as being equal or even similar.
Further note the issue of propriety of rendering this homage to
the Son. The Hebrew word that appears in Psalm 97:7 also appears
in these two verses in Exodus:
Exodus 20:3-5 (from the Ten Commandments): "You must not have any
other gods against my face. You must not make for yourself a
carved image or a form like anything that is in the heavens above
or that is on the earth underneath or that is in the waters under
the earth. You must not bow down to them nor be induced to serve
them, because I Jehovah your God am a God exacting exclusive
devotion, . . ."
Exodus 34:14 "For you must not prostrate yourself to another god,
because Jehovah, whose name is Jealous, he is a jealous God"
How can this form of honor, which is not supposed to be given to
any other God, be given to the Son? What do you think is the
point that the writer of Hebrews is trying to make? Here in
Hebrews 1:6 he is writing to Jews and describing just who the Son
is in terms of the Jewish Scriptures. He selects an Old Testament
passage that describes the angels bowing to Jehovah. A Jew would
of course know the Law that it is wrong to give this to any other
God. So what would a Jew conclude from reading this? Do you
really think he would conclude: `Since the Son receives homage
from angels, he must be a second God, or an angel'?
Is Hebrews 1:6 the only place that shows Jesus receiving homage?
No, the same Greek word that appears in Hebrews 1:6 also appears
in Matthew 28:9 and Revelation 5:14.
Matthew 28:9 "And, look! Jesus met them and said: "Good day!"
They approached and caught him by his feet and did obeisance to
him."
Revelation 5:13,14 "And every creature that is in heaven and on
earth and underneath the earth and on the sea, and all the things
in them, I heard saying: "To the One sitting on the throne and to
the Lamb be the blessing and the honor and the glory and the
might forever and ever." And the four living creatures went
saying: "Amen!" and the elders fell down and worshiped."
In Revelation 5:13 we see every living creature giving "glory" to
both the Father and the Son. But Isaiah 42:8; 48:11 says Jehovah
will not share his glory with anyone else. Is this a
contradiction? Why is there no distinction made between what is
being given to the One on the throne (the Father) and what is
given to the Lamb (Jesus)? Also of interest, is that in this
context where every living creature is giving these praises to
both the Father and Son without distinction, the elders
"worshiped". Who is being worshiped? Is it significant that this
is the same Greek word that is translated "obeisance" in Hebrews
1:6 and Matthew 28:9 and there given to Jesus?
Continuing with Hebrews 1:7-9 . . .
"Also, with reference to the angels he says: "And he makes his
angels spirits, and his public servants a flame of fire." But
with reference to the Son: "God is your throne forever and ever,
and [the] scepter of your kingdom is the scepter of uprightness.
You loved righteousness, and you hated lawlessness. That is why
God, your God, anointed you with [the] oil of exultation more
than your partners." "
Again, here is another contrast between angels and the Son.
Angels are public servants but the Son is King. So where is the
admission that the Son is also an angel?
Verse 9 says that God is "your" God, that is, the Son's God. What
does this imply? It shows that the Son is not the same person as
the one who anointed him and he does not have the same position
as that one. So who is he? The answer is simple as we will see
later . . .
But what about the term "partners" in verse 9? Does that not
imply that the Son has partners and therefore he came from that
class of beings and is one of them? No. This cannot be justified
anymore than saying that because God has intimate association
with angels (see Psalm 89:6,7 quoted above) that therefore he is
one of them. Also note that the same Greek word for "partner"
appears in Hebrews 6:4 where it discusses humans that at one time
had been partners with God's Holy Spirit but had fallen away.
This certainly does not mean that these humans were from the same
class of being as the Holy Spirit. So, no, this verse does not
imply that the Son is of the same class of being as his partners.
(It is also interesting to think how a person can have the Holy
Spirit as a partner. If the Holy Spirit is only an impersonal
force, how could `it' be a partner? Would you conclude that the
Son's partners in verse 9 were all impersonal forces?)
"Hebrews 1:10-12 And: "You at [the] beginning, O Lord, laid the
foundations of the earth itself, and the heavens are [the] works
of your hands. They themselves will perish, but you yourself are
to remain continually; and just like an outer garment they will
all grow old, and you will wrap them up just as a cloak, as an
outer garment; and they will be changed, but you are the same,
and your years will never run out." "
What would a Jew conclude from this? Another puzzlement. For this
are quotations from Psalm 102:
Psalm 102:1 "O Jehovah, do hear my prayer . . ."
Psalm 102:24 "I proceeded to say: "O my God, . . .
Psalm 102:25-27 "Long ago you laid the foundations of the earth
itself, And the heavens are the work of your hands. They
themselves will perish, but you yourself will keep standing; And
just like a garment they will all of them wear out. Just like
clothing you will replace them, and they will finish their turn.
But you are the same, and your own years will not be completed."
"
Here is a passage from the old testament that is addressed to
Jehovah, "my God", and gives Him credit for making the universe.
But in the book of Hebrews, when the writer wants to communicate
to a Hebrew clearly who the Son is, does he choose passages that
originally apply to angels or an archangel? No. He chooses
passages that are addressed to Jehovah God that describe actions
that are believed to apply ONLY to Him (Isaiah 44:24) and then to
applies them to the Son! What will this Jew think when he reads
further into the book of Hebrews . . .
Hebrews 3:4 "Of course, every house is constructed by someone,
but he that constructed all things is God."
So how will this Jew answer the question: `According to this book
who constructed the universe?' Hebrews 1:2 says that the Son made
all the systems of things. Hebrews 1:10-12 quotes a verse
addressed to Jehovah and applies it to the Son to show that the
Son made all things. Next Hebrews 3:4 says God made all things.
So what is the message here? The purpose of this part of Hebrews
is to teach a Jew just who Jesus is. If Jesus were Michael or
some other angel why does this book not simply say that? Why does
this book repeatedly take attributes that belong to God and apply
them to the Son?
Hebrews 1:13,14 "But with reference to which one of the angels
has he ever said: "Sit at my right hand, until I place your
enemies as a stool for your feet"? Are they not all spirits for
public service, sent forth to minister for those who are going to
inherit salvation?"
Here is another reference to an Old Testament verse, Psalm 110:1.
Then another rhetorical question is asked, "to which one of the
angels has he ever said?" And again the answer is `None'. Verse
14 affirms this by showing that while the Son is at the right
hand of God and his enemies will be a stool for his feet, ALL
angels are just ministers for public service (similar to verses 7
and 8). If ALL angels are ministers and here contrasted with the
Son, how could the Son be an angel?
So to summarize so far, the Son is repeatedly shown to be
different from angels (Hebrews 1:4,5,6,7,8,13,14) and is shown to
be like God in the essential attributes (Hebrews 1:2,3,6,10-12).
Will we find something in Hebrews chapter 2 that will identify
this Son as an angel or archangel?
Hebrews 2:1-4 "That is why it is necessary for us to pay more
than the usual attention to the things heard by us, that we may
never drift away. For if the word spoken through angels proved to
be firm, and every transgression and disobedient act received a
retribution in harmony with justice; how shall we escape if we
have neglected a salvation of such greatness in that it began to
be spoken through [our] Lord and was verified for us by those who
heard him, while God joined in bearing witness with signs as well
as portents and various powerful works and with distributions of
holy spirit according to his will?"
And what is the point here? Since a Jew realizes that the Old
Testament words that were spoken by angels is absolutely firm and
reliable, then all the words spoken by the "Lord" (the Son) must
be even stronger and we need to pay even MORE attention to them.
Here is another contrast between the words spoken by angels (or
even an archangel) and the words spoken by the Lord.
Now as we read the next verse, first ask yourself this question
`If the resurrected Son, the one who is waiting for the earth to
be placed under his feet, is the archangel described in
Revelation 12:7 (Michael) or the angel of Revelation 20:1 (with
the chain to capture Satan), then could it be stated correctly
that one day the earth will be in subjection to an angel?'
Hebrews 2:5 "For it is not to angels that he has subjected the
inhabited earth to come, about which we are speaking."
So is there any way that the Son could be an angel or archangel?
Is that what a first-century Hebrew would have concluded from
reading all this?
Hebrews 2:6-9 "But a certain witness has given proof somewhere,
saying: "What is man that you keep him in mind, or [the] son of
man that you take care of him? You made him a little lower than
angels; with glory and honor you crowned him, and appointed him
over the works of your hands. All things you subjected under his
feet." For in that he subjected all things to him [God] left
nothing that is not subject to him. Now, though, we do not yet
see all things in subjection to him; but we behold Jesus, who has
been made a little lower than angels, crowned with glory and
honor for having suffered death, that he by God's undeserved
kindness might taste death for every [man]."
In quoting Psalm 8:5,6 we see Jesus, although temporarily made
less than angels, is crowned with honor and glory and all things
will eventually be in subjection to him. But remember, the earth
will NEVER be made subject to angels.
Hebrews 2:10 "For it was fitting for the one for whose sake all
things are and through whom all things are, in bringing many sons
to glory, to make the Chief Agent of their salvation perfect
through sufferings."
Read this carefully. Who is it that `made the Chief Agent perfect
through sufferings'? Since Jesus is the Chief Agent, the one who
made him perfect (the Greek means `complete') must be God.
Likewise God is the one that brings many sons to glory. Then we
must conclude that God is the "one for whose sake all things are
and through whom all things are". Sound familiar? Paul writing
his letter to the Colossians, speaks of Jesus saying:
Colossians 1:16 "because by means of him all [other] things were
created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and
the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or
lordships or governments or authorities. All [other] things have
been created through him and for him" (Note that the word "other"
is marked in the NWT to indicate that it is not in the Greek
text.)
So who is this "Son"? He cannot be an angel but could he be a
second God? Jesus is called "God" in . . .
John 1:18 (by John) "No man has seen God at any time; the
only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father
is the one that has explained him."
John 20:28 (by the apostle Thomas) "In answer Thomas said to
him: "My Lord and my God!""
Isaiah 9:6 "For there has been a child born to us, there has been
a son given to us; and the princely rule will come to be upon his
shoulder. And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty
God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace." - This is the same title
given to Jehovah in the next chapter of Isaiah 10:20,21.
Does this mean there are two Gods?
We have already seen a few verses in the Bible that clearly state
that there is only one God that fully qualifies to be called
"God" (see the quotations above: Psalm 86:10; Isaiah 45:21,22;
Isaiah 46:9). Now consider a couple in the New Testament:
Mark 12:28-32 "Now one of the scribes that had come up and heard
them disputing, knowing that he had answered them in a fine way,
asked him: "Which commandment is first of all?" Jesus answered:
"The first is, 'Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah,
and you must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with
your whole soul and with your whole mind and with your whole
strength.' The second is this, 'You must love your neighbor as
yourself.' There is no other commandment greater than these." The
scribe said to him: "Teacher, you well said in line with truth,
'He is One, and there is no other than He'"
1 Timothy 1:17 Now to the King of eternity, incorruptible,
invisible, [the] only God, be honor and glory forever and ever.
Amen"
This verse, which opens 1 Timothy is addressed to God and
describes him as the only God, incorruptible, invisible. But then
the book closes with this statement describing Jesus (See Insight
Vol 2 p. 254, 678, 1018) . . .
1 Timothy 6:14-16 "that you observe the commandment in a spotless
and irreprehensible way until the manifestation of our Lord Jesus
Christ. This [manifestation] the happy and only Potentate will
show in its own appointed times, [he] the King of those who rule
as kings and Lord of those who rule as lords, the one alone
having immortality, who dwells in unapproachable light, whom not
one of men has seen or can see. To him be honor and might
everlasting. Amen"
So Paul opens his letter to Timothy describing the only God as
King, as eternal, as incorruptible (similar meaning to immortal),
as invisible, deserving honor and glory, and ending with "Amen".
Then Paul closes his letter with a description of Jesus as King,
the one alone having immortality, who cannot be seen, deserving
of honor and might and ending with "Amen". Does Paul claim that
both God and Jesus have the same essential attributes? How many
Gods does Paul believe have these attributes?
Other verses that affirm there is only one God are: Deuteronomy
4:35,39; 32:39; 2 Samuel 7:22; 22:32 1 Kings 8:60; 2 Kings
19:15,19; 1 Chronicles 17:20; Isaiah 37:16,20; 45:5,14,18; Joel
2:27; and in the New Testament: John 5:44; Romans 3:30; 16:27; 1
Timothy 2:5; James 2:19; Jude 1:25.
Nowhere in the Bible do we see the teaching that there are two
Gods with similar attributes, both participating in making the
universe. To the contrary, when the Bible speaks of the true God
it repeatedly says there is only one God, there is no other God
that can compare. Yet Hebrews chapter 1 does compare someone to
God. Someone that is not an angel, is called "God", is NOT a
second God and yet considers God to be his God. Does this sound
like a puzzle?
Some would try to resolve this by saying that there are many gods
in Scripture. We saw a reference to such in Psalm 86:8. Does this
mean that we have misunderstood the many verses that say there is
only ONE God? And then does that imply Jesus could be one of
those other gods? If so then all those verses that say there is
only ONE God will have to be explained. And then we would be left
with the idea that Jesus is another God that has the same
attributes as his Father. We would have two equal Gods. Is there
any scripture that says this? NO! Then how do we explain Psalm
86:8 (or 2 Corinthians 4:4; Psalm 82:1,6) that suggests that
there are other gods?
Galatians 4:8 "Nevertheless, when you did not know God, then it
was that you slaved for those who by nature are not gods."
So there are other gods but they are not by "nature" gods (see
Galatians 2:15 and 2 Peter 1:4 which translate the same Greek
word as "nature"). They are "gods" in name only. There is only
ONE God that is by nature God. Now, based on all the scriptures
that compare the Father with his Son (such as Hebrews 1:3;
Philippians 2:6; 1 Timothy 1:17; 6:14-16) would you say that the
Son does or does not have the same nature attributes as the
Father?
Now we will consider Jesus' own words, his own claims as to who
he is in John chapter 5.
Verses 1 through 15 describe how Jesus heals a man on the
Sabbath. Next . . .
John 5:16-18 "So on this account the Jews went persecuting Jesus,
because he was doing these things during Sabbath. But he answered
them: "My Father has kept working until now, and I keep working."
On this account, indeed, the Jews began seeking all the more to
kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath but he was
also calling God his own Father, making himself equal to God."
In the Old Testament God was not normally called "Father". He was
normally addressed as "Jehovah" or "God". To address the Creator
as "Father" implied a close relationship that Jews found
presumptuous. Calling God "My Father" really made the
relationship intimate and implied to the Jews that Jesus was
claiming EQUALITY with God, and this was blasphemy. He also said
that he kept working, even on the Sabbath. That was a claim to
breaking God's Law.
Well, did Jesus deny either of these accusations?
John 5:19 "Therefore, in answer, Jesus went on to say to them:
"Most truly I say to you, The Son cannot do a single thing of his
own initiative, but only what he beholds the Father doing. For
whatever things that One does, these things the Son also does in
like manner."
Nowhere does Jesus deny either of the two charges. Instead Jesus
replies in verse 19 by saying that he works just like the Father
and does ONLY what the Father does. He cannot do anything
independently of the Father (unlike the angels that can act
independently - Jude 1:6). When Jesus works, he is only doing
what the Father approves so it cannot be a violation of God's
Law. (Matthew 12:1-8 shows that some works are exempt of the
Sabbath law.) Is this a denial of working on the Sabbath? No.
When Jesus said he does whatever his Father does, is that a
denial of claiming equality to God?
John 5:20 "For the Father has affection for the Son and shows him
all the things he himself does, and he will show him works
greater than these, in order that you may marvel."
In verse 20 Jesus said the Father shows him everything that the
he does and in verse 19 he said that he does everything the
Father shows him, exactly as the Father does it. So Jesus does
EVERYTHING the Father does. This is really not too surprising as
this echoes Hebrews 1:2,3. What is interesting is that the Jews
had just accused Jesus of breaking the Sabbath law and of making
himself equal to God. And how does Jesus respond? Does he deny
it? No, instead he next claims to do everything the Father does,
just as he does them. But these Jews know that NO ONE can do the
works that God can (Psalm 86:8)! So do you think the Jews
interpreted Jesus' words to mean he was denying or confirming
their accusations?
The first part of verse 19 says that Jesus does NOTHING on his
own (literally "from himself"). This sounds like Jesus is saying
he is not equal to his Father who can do things on His own. But
the point here is that Jesus cannot act "from himself", he can
only act from his Father. To act "from himself" would mean that
he was independent of his Father and therefore could not be truly
equal to his Father. Jesus is answering the accusations by
claiming perfect harmony with his Father.
The Father is the source of all decisions. Yes, this is a
difference between the Father and Son who cannot act "from
himself" by making the final decisions. The Father has the role
of being the source of all decisions and the Son is the perfect
agent of those decisions. This necessarily implies that Jesus
must be ONE with the Father (John 10:30) because Jesus can do
NOTHING "from himself", he can only carry out the Father's will
and he does it perfectly. This proves that Jesus and the Father
act as a SINGLE entity, a single BEING, the One true God.
Continuing, let us see what else Jesus says in response to the
accusation that he claims equality with his Father.
John 5:21 "For just as the Father raises the dead up and makes
them alive, so the Son also makes those alive whom he wants to."
Verse 21 shows that it is not just that the Father acts through
the Son, as though he were a mindless puppet. No, the Son has
initiative for he can make alive whoever he wants to, but as we
saw above, he cannot do it independently of the Father's will.
Together they have only ONE will, and the Son's wishes are always
in harmony with the Father's. When Jesus wishes to do something,
he knows FIRST what the Father's will is so Jesus' wishes will
also be the Father's wishes.
How would a Jew react to this claim of Jesus that he could make
people alive just as God does?
God said . . .
Deuteronomy 32:39 "SEE now that I-I am he And there are no gods
together with me. I put to death, and I make alive. I have
severely wounded, and I-I will heal, And there is no one
snatching out of my hand."
But Jesus said . . .
John 10:28 "And I give them everlasting life, and they will by no
means ever be destroyed, and no one will snatch them out of my
hand. . . . "
John 10:30,31 "I and the Father are one. Once more the Jews
lifted up stones to stone him. . . . "
John 10:33 "The Jews answered him: "We are stoning you, not for a
fine work, but for blasphemy"
These Jews were very familiar with the Old Testament. Jesus'
claims were shocking. These Jews concluded that he must be
speaking falsehoods, lies, blasphemies. We will see later that
other Jews concluded that Jesus was out of his mind, a lunatic.
But a few Jews, like John and Thomas, concluded that Jesus was
God.
Would a Jew that was familiar with Deuteronomy 32:39 conclude
that Jesus was claiming to be a second God or an angel that was
with the Father? Impossible. Then who is this Jesus that claims
to give life just as his Father does and to claim that no one can
snatch anyone out of his hand? This claim is more than just a
claim to being "one with God in purpose".
John 5:22 "For the Father judges no one at all, but he has
committed all the judging to the Son,"
Does this mean Jesus is not equal to the Father because Jesus
does something that the Father does not? No for verse 30 shows
that even though Jesus is the one who is judge of all, he is
carrying out the Father's will exactly.
John 5:23 "in order that all may honor the Son just as they honor
the Father. He that does not honor the Son does not honor the
Father who sent him."
The Greek word in verse 23 meaning "just as" also appears in
verse 30 and shows that Jesus judges exactly as the Father would
and is therefore to be honored EXACTLY as the Father is honored.
(Compare the August 1, 1991 Watchtower page 9 and Revelation Its
Grand Climax page 36, which both say that Jehovah is to be
honored more than Jesus.)
John 5:26,27 ". . . For just as the Father has life in himself,
so he has granted also to the Son to have life in himself. And he
has given him authority to do judging, because Son of man he is.
.. . . "
John 5:30 "I cannot do a single thing of my own initiative; just
as I hear, I judge; and the judgment that I render is righteous,
because I seek, not my own will, but the will of him that sent
me."
Does this mean that because the Father grants authority to Jesus
to judge and give life that therefore he cannot be equal? No, it
only proves that the Father is the source of all decisions and
authority and the Son receives that authority.
Is this authority to judge and give life all that the Father
gives to the Son?
John 16:15 "All the things that the Father has are mine. . . ."
The fact that the Father is the Source of all but Jesus receives
all proves that they operate as a composite Being, one entity,
one will, one God.
John 5:31-33 "If I alone bear witness about myself, my witness is
not true. There is another that bears witness about me, and I
know that the witness which he bears about me is true. You have
dispatched men to John, and he has borne witness to the truth. .
.. . "
John 5:36-38 "But I have the witness greater than that of John,
for the very works that my Father assigned me to accomplish, the
works themselves that I am doing, bear witness about me that the
Father dispatched me. Also, the Father who sent me has himself
borne witness about me. You have neither heard his voice at any
time nor seen his figure; and you do not have his word remaining
in you, because the very one whom he dispatched you do not
believe."
Since Jesus shows that there is another that bears witness,
someone that they have never seen (compare John 14:9), does that
not mean that there are TWO Gods here, not one? No, this shows
that there are two PERSONS (compare John 8:17,18), not two Gods.
Because Jesus is in perfect subjection to the Father for all
eternity, they are one entity, one God.
But some feel very confidant that they have studied the
Scriptures and they already have the truth and have concluded
that Jesus can only be an angel, another god that was with God
and yet a very inferior god. They do not honor Jesus just as they
honor the Father. To them Jesus says . . .
John 5:39-44 "You are searching the Scriptures, because you think
that by means of them you will have everlasting life; and these
are the very ones that bear witness about me. And yet you do not
want to come to me that you may have life. I do not accept glory
from men, but I well know that you do not have the love of God in
you. I have come in the name of my Father, but you do not receive
me; if someone else arrived in his own name, you would receive
that one. How can you believe, when you are accepting glory from
one another and you are not seeking the glory that is from
the only God?"
Jesus cannot be a second God, there is only one, there is no
other.
After considering all this evidence, what would a first-century
Jew conclude about Jesus? He would have to affirm the Jewish
Scriptures that say there is only ONE God and there is no other
(Deuteronomy 32:39). So there are only three possibilities:
Jesus had a demon and was out of his mind, he was a Lunatic
(Mark 3:21,22; John 8:51,52; 10:19,20).
Jesus was a Liar, a blasphemer, and deceived people (John
7:12; Matthew 9:2,3; 26:64,65; Mark 2:6,7; 14:61-64;
Luke 5:20,21; John 10:30-33).
Jesus was "My Lord and My God" (John 20:28).
Which do you think he was?
How can two persons with the same nature be one entity? Does this
all sound like a mystery to you? Consider a similar "mystery"...
Mark 10:6-8 "However, from [the] beginning of creation 'He made
them male and female. On this account a man will leave his father
and mother, and the two will be one flesh'; so that they are no
longer two, but one flesh."
Adam and Eve had the same nature but because one was the
decision-maker and the other was to be in perfect subjection (1
Corinthians 11:3), they were only one flesh (Genesis 2:24). If
Eve were to choose her own way (which she later did) that would
make two decision-makers and thus they would no longer be acting
as one entity. To act as one entity there can only be one
decision-maker, the other must be the submissive agent.
Imagine that Adam and Eve had remained sinless and had a child,
called Cain. Suppose we asked Cain `Who is your boss?' Cain would
reason that since Eve was in perfect submission and one flesh
with Adam, both his parents were his boss. He would say `My boss
is Adam and Eve.' If we asked `Then how many bosses do you have?'
He would reason that since Adam and Eve were ONE flesh, the
authority was `one', so he would say `One boss.' But since Adam
and Eve were two persons, does that not mean there were two
bosses, a `big' boss and a `little' boss? No, for Adam and Eve
were to be in perfect unity with perfect communication, acting as
one entity with one decision-maker, one will. No, there was only
one boss, Adam and Eve.
Next suppose we asked Eve. `Do you have a boss?' She would reason
that since she was in perfect submission, and Adam was her head,
she would say `Yes' she had a boss, Adam. Then how many human
bosses are there in the Garden of Eden, one or two? The answer is
`one'. But if Eve is a boss and she has a boss, does that not
mean that one plus one is two bosses? No, if Eve were not ONE
flesh with Adam, if she acted on her own initiative, then yes
there would be two bosses and poor Cain would get confused. But
Eve was not to act on her own initiative and she was ONE flesh
with her head, Adam. So, no, one boss plus one completely
submissive boss equals one boss.
Further, just because Eve was to be submissive, that does not
mean she was inferior. She was not a monkey nor was she to be a
separate independent human. She had the same nature as her head,
they were both humanity, but they each had a different role.
The same is true for the Father and the Son. They are both Deity,
they have the same essential attributes of immortality, having
the authority to judge and give life, they are both credited with
making the universe, their glory is one. But the Father and Son
are two persons and when Jehovah, the One True God, speaks, he
speaks for "us" (Isaiah 6:1-10). They each have a different role,
One is the source of all authority and decisions, the other is
the perfect agent or servant (Acts 4:27) that carries out the one
will better than any angel could.
This explains why Jesus does not know those things that are for
the Father to decide and so must receive that knowledge from Him
(Mark 13:32; John 6:38; 7:16; 8:26,28,29,40,42; 12:49,50;
14:10,24,31). It explains why Jesus is in perfect submission to
his Father as his head (1 Corinthians 11:3; 15:28). It explains
how the Father could be greater than Jesus (John 14:28). It
explains how Jesus could be God and yet have a God (Hebrews 1:9;
Ephesians 1:17; John 20:17; Revelation 3:12).
This view makes it easy to understand . . .
Hebrews 5:8 "Although he was a Son, he learned obedience from the
things he suffered."
If Jesus had been an angel in heaven prior to coming to earth, he
would have already known obedience. But this verse said he
learned obedience by coming to earth. Why did Jesus have to learn
obedience? If he were God would he not already know? No. All
creatures know and experience obedience. God is the only one that
does not know obedience because he cannot experience it, he can
only observe it. Likewise, Jesus does not know sin because he
cannot experience it, he can only observe it (2 Corinthians
5:21). So although Jesus was submissive and had observed
obedience in angels, he had never experienced obedience until he
accepted the consequences of sin, the sin of others (Philippians
2:8).
This also makes it simple to understand John 1:1.
John 1:1 "In the Beginning was the Word, and the Word was with
God, and the Word was God." - NAS
You may have wondered when reading this and asked `How can the
Word be with God and be God at the same time?' Consider this
re-wording that puts the verse in terms of Adam and Eve in the
Garden of Eden.
`In the garden was the Woman, and the Woman was with
the Human and the Woman was Human.'
Do you see the meaning here? The first occurrence of `human'
refers to a specific person but the second occurrence of `human'
refers to their common nature, not to a specific person.
Likewise, John 1:1 is teaching that in the beginning the Word was
with the person that is normally thought of as "God', namely the
Father, the Decision-maker. The last portion of the verse adds
that the Word had the essential nature of being God. No big
mystery here.
What about . . .
John 17:3 "This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge
of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth,
Jesus Christ."
Does this not teach that the Father is the ONLY one that can be
called the "true God"? If that were so then what does that make
Jesus? Is he another God? Since he has all the essential
attributes of God (Hebrews 1; John 5; 1 Timothy 6:16), no one has
those attributes except God, and there is only one God, who is
Jesus?
Actually, if this verse was intended to say that only the Father
was the true God, Jesus would have said `you alone are the true
God' (compare 2 Kings 19:15,19; Isaiah 37:16). Is this what this
verse means? If so then how does this harmonize with 1 John . . .
1 John 1:1,2 "That which was from [the] beginning, which we have
heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have viewed
attentively and our hands felt, concerning the word of life,
(yes, the life was made manifest, and we have seen and are
bearing witness and reporting to you the everlasting life which
was with the Father and was made manifest to us,) . . . "
1 John 5:11 "And this is the witness given, that God gave us
everlasting life, and this life is in his Son."
1 John 5:20 "But we know that the Son of God has come, and he has
given us intellectual capacity that we may gain the knowledge of
the true one. And we are in union with the true one, by means of
his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and life everlasting."
According to this the "word of life", "the everlasting life", is
Jesus and this "life everlasting" is also the "true God". So what
is the meaning of John 17:3 that harmonizes with everything we
have seen so far? As Jesus said, the Father is the only true God,
but, as 1 John 5:20 shows, the Son too is the only true God. How
can this be?
Consider again the illustration of Adam and Eve. They were to be
viewed as ONE flesh, indeed, at the beginning they were the ONLY
true human flesh in the garden of Eden. So it could be said of
Adam the he was the only true human flesh in Eden. The same could
be said of Eve. But it could not be said that Adam alone was the
only true human flesh, for there was another person that was ONE
with him that was also human flesh. Likewise, the Father and Son
are ONE (John 10:30) and this composite unity is the ONLY true
God in the universe. The Father is the only true God and the Son
is the only true God. There is only ONE God, there is no other
(Mark 12:32).
Next consider . . .
1 Corinthians 8:6
1 Corinthians 8:5,6 "For even though there are those who are
called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are
many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the
Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is
one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we
through him."
Paul says there are those who are "called" gods. He did not say
they truly were "gods" - they are "gods" in name only. So how
many Gods do Christians have, one or two? Paul answers - "one".
There is no way to conclude that the Father and Son constitute
two Gods. But is Jesus included or distinguished from this one
God?
If someone comes to this passage already believing that "God" and
"Lord" have significantly different meanings and that God is only
one person, then this verse could be viewed as supporting the
belief that the one God cannot be the one Lord. One would see
this text as really saying: "there is actually to us one God [who
is only] the Father . . . and one Lord [who is only] Jesus". The
reference to Jesus as being "Lord" would be viewed as a contrast
rather than a parallel. The supporting phrases saying that all
things are from the Father and `for him' would be perceived as
making a definite distinction from the statement about all things
being "through" Jesus. But is that Paul's intent here, does he
believe that "God" and "Lord" are contrasting titles or does he
use them interchangeably? Likewise, does Paul intend to imply a
distinction between the phrases "for him" and "through him" or
does he use these interchangeably?
In the previous chapter, in verse 17, Paul uses the title "Lord"
and "God" in the same sentence. But as can be seen by examining
the Kingdom Interlinear the New World Translation removes the
title "Lord" and inserts the word "Jehovah". So compare this in
the Revised Standard Version:
1 Corinthians 7:17 "Only, let every one lead the life which the
Lord has assigned to him, and in which God has called him. This
is my rule in all the churches." - RSV
Do you get the feeling that Paul is making a distinction between
the two titles? According to the NWT both titles here refer to
"Jehovah", he is "Lord" and "God". This is not to imply that Paul
never makes a distinction, but if Paul does use the titles in
parallel, then can this not also be the case in 1 Corinthians
8:6? Consider how Paul uses these titles in other letters:
Romans 14:6 "He who observes the day, observes it in honor of the
Lord. He also who eats, eats in honor of the Lord, since he gives
thanks to God; while he who abstains, abstains in honor of the
Lord and gives thanks to God." - RSV
Romans 14:10,11 "Why do you pass judgment on your brother? Or
you, why do you despise your brother? For we shall all stand
before the judgment seat of God; for it is written, "As I live,
says the Lord, every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall
give praise to God." " - RSV
Again, according to the NWT the titles "Lord" and "God" refer to
"Jehovah" in this passage. Paul is using them to refer to the
same one.
Romans 10:9-13 "because, if you confess with your lips that Jesus
is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the
dead, you will be saved. For man believes with his heart and so
is justified, and he confesses with his lips and so is saved. The
scripture says, "No one who believes in him will be put to
shame." For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the
same Lord is Lord of all and bestows his riches upon all who call
upon him. For, "every one who calls upon the name of the Lord
["Jehovah" - NWT] will be saved." " - RSV
Who is the Lord that a believer calls upon in verse 9? Who is the
"Lord of all" that the believer calls upon in verse 12? So who is
the "Lord" that the believer calls upon in verse 13? Would you
say that in all these passages Paul consistently applies the
title "Lord" to Jesus to distinguish him from "God" as supposed
in 1 Corinthians 8:6?
Outside of Paul's writings what do we find? Matthew 11:25 says
that the Father is Lord of all. Acts 17:24 says the same thing.
But Acts 10:36 says Jesus is Lord of all.
So what did Paul mean when he said that "actually to us . . .
there is one Lord, Jesus Christ"? Did he mean to distinguish this
one Lord from the one God? Can you say that in the passages we
examined Paul consistently did distinguish between the one Lord
and the one God?
What about the statements in 1 Corinthians 8:6 about things being
"for" someone or "through" someone? Do these not prove that there
is a definite and intentional distinction being made between
"God" and "Lord"?
In 1 Corinthians Paul said things were "for" the Father but
"through" Jesus. Above, in Colossians 1:16, we saw where Paul
said this about Jesus: "All [other] things have been created
through him and for him". Yet Hebrews 2:10 said about God: "for
whose sake all things are and through whom all things are".
Combining all three we have that all things are "through" the
Father (Hebrews 2:10) and all things are "through" the Son
(Colossians 1:16; 1 Corinthians 8:6); all things are "for" the
Father (1 Corinthians 8:6; Hebrews 2:10) and all things are "for"
the Son (Colossians 1:16).
So if the intent of Paul's statement in 1 Corinthians 8:6 was to
show a clear distinction between the Father and Son as regards
whether creation is "through him" or "for him", as if these
distinctions were truly significant differences, then Paul is
inconsistent between what he said in Colossians and 1
Corinthians. It is also inconsistent with Hebrews 2:10. But there
is no inconsistency between Paul's statements nor with Hebrews
2:10 if we take the view that Paul was not trying to make
distinctions between differences but rather parallels between
similarities.
The result would be that while there are many "gods" and many
"lords" in name only, for Christians there is only one God, only
one Lord. All things are from this one God, through him and for
him. All things are from this one Lord, through him and for him.
This one God is the Father, this one God is Jesus. This one Lord
is also the Father, this one Lord is also Jesus. There are some
distinctions in roles between these two persons, one is the
Decision-Maker, the other is the Mediator, but they are one
nature, one `spiritual flesh'. They are both truly God, not just
God in name only.
There is another person that we have not discussed that is
included in the composite unity of the one true God. . . .
The Person of the Holy Spirit
Before Jesus' death he said to his disciples that he was going
away and . . .
John 14:16,17 ". . . and I will request the Father and he will
give you another ("allos") helper to be with you forever, the
spirit of the truth, . . ."
If someone was helping you and then said he had to go but he
would send another helper to be with you. Would you be surprised
if no one returned. When Jesus left and promised to send
"another" helper, that meant another somebody like himself, a
person. The Greek word for "another" in this verse is "allos" and
means another of the same kind. In Greek there is a word,
"heteros", that means another of a different kind. If Jesus had
meant that he would send another helper that was not a person
like him, but an impersonal force, we would see the Greek word
"heteros" here. You can compare these two Greek words for
yourself in . . .
Galatians 1:6,7 "I marvel that you are being so quickly removed
from the One who called you with Christ's undeserved kindness
over to another ("heteros" - of a different kind) sort of good
news. But it is not another ("allos" - of a similar kind); only
there are certain ones who are causing you trouble and wanting to
pervert the good news about the Christ."
Paul is saying that these Galatians had gone over to another
different good news that was NOT another good news of a similar
kind. So in John 14:16 when Jesus said that he would send
"another" helper, this implies that the helper that Jesus would
send, the Holy Spirit, would be another ("allos") helper, a
person like Jesus.
Consider what Jesus said about himself . . .
John 12:49 ". . . because I have not spoken out of my own
impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a
commandment as to what to tell and what to speak."
When Jesus said that he did not speak of his "own impulse", did
you conclude that therefore Jesus was not a person and incapable
of thinking on his own, as if he were some kind of mindless
puppet? Or when Jesus said that the Father had told him what to
say did you immediately think that maybe Jesus was some kind of
supernatural parrot, only able to repeat what was heard? But
Jesus said the very same thing soon after this . . .
John 16:13-15 "However, when that one arrives, the spirit of the
truth, he will guide you into all the truth, for he will not
speak of his own impulse, but what things he hears he will speak,
and he will declare to you the things coming. That one will
glorify me, because he will receive from what is mine and will
declare it to you. All the things that the Father has are mine.
That is why I said he receives from what is mine and declares
[it] to you."
Do you see that what Jesus said about himself is the same as what
he said about the "spirit of the truth"? Does this not imply that
the Spirit has the capacity to speak on "his own" but Jesus was
informing his disciples beforehand that the Spirit would not be
acting on his own just as Jesus would not? When Jesus said that
he could not do anything on his own (John 5:19) that did not
imply that he was a non-person. Likewise when Jesus said the same
thing for the Spirit that does not imply that the Spirit is an
impersonal force.
If the "spirit of the truth" is only a mindless active force
under God's control, like some supernatural puppet, and Jesus'
disciples knew this, why would Jesus bother to stress to them
that the "spirit" would not be speaking on "his own impulse"?
Would they not already know this? What was the point? If someone
that was about to die came to you and said in seriousness `This
is important, when you see a puppet, you must remember that it is
not really talking on his own.' Would you not wonder why this
point was being made at such a time as this? In fact, would it
not almost be humorous for someone say this?
When Jesus said that the Spirit speaks what he hears. Does that
not imply that the Spirit is capable of hearing something that
comes from a separate person? If the Spirit were only a force
that transmits information from God, why did Jesus not simply say
this? Why did he say that the Spirit hears and speaks as if it
were a person? Why, at such an important time as this, does Jesus
suddenly communicate in metaphors?
If the Spirit is part of the Father, would it not always have
everything the Father has? Then why does the Spirit need to
receive things from Jesus? Why would Jesus bother to explain that
once he receives everything from the Father then the Spirit can
take from what Jesus has? Does this not imply that the Spirit,
like Jesus, is a submissive person that receives everything from
the Father (or the Son once he has everything from the Father)?
Romans 8:22,23 "For we know that all creation keeps on groaning
together and being in pain together until now. Not only that, but
we ourselves also who have the firstfruits, namely, the spirit,
yes, we ourselves groan within ourselves, while we are earnestly
waiting for adoption as sons, the release from our bodies by
ransom."
Romans 8:26,27 "In like manner the spirit also joins in with help
for our weakness; for the [problem of] what we should pray for as
we need to we do not know, but the spirit itself pleads for us
with groaning unuttered. Yet he who searches the hearts knows
what the meaning of the spirit is, because it is pleading in
accord with God for holy ones.
Romans 8:34 "Who is he that will condemn? Christ Jesus is the one
who died, yes, rather the one who was raised up from the dead,
who is on the right hand of God, who also pleads for us."
Who is it that is groaning here? In verse 22 it is "all
creation". In verse 23 it is "we" Christians. In verse 34 it is
Jesus. But in verse 26 it says that "in like manner" the spirit
pleads before God. How can the spirit plead "in like manner",
like Christians, like Jesus, if it is only an impersonal active
force? Also, if the "spirit" is really a part of the Father, why
is the spirit pleading before the Father? Does this not show that
the spirit is somehow separate from the Father?
1 Corinthians 12:11 "But all these operations the one and the
same spirit performs, making a distribution to each one
respectively just as it wills."
For the spirit to "will" how the gifts are to be distributed to
individuals, that means the spirit has an attribute that only a
person has.
Revelation 22:17 "And the spirit and the bride keep on saying:
"Come!" And let anyone hearing say: "Come!" And let anyone
thirsting come; let anyone that wishes take life's water free."
In John's vision he sees a bride. This bride represents something
other than a single person but in this vision it is a person.
In Revelation 16:7 the altar in heaven speaks. So although an
altar is not a person, it is a thing that can be seen in a vision
and it is given some personal attributes. But what about the
spirit that speaks just like the bride? What did John see in the
vision? If it is not a person then what did he see? Does this not
imply that he saw something, some object, that could be made to
appear to speak? If John was really here seeing the Father, why
did he not say so? If he did not see the Father, then could it
not be said that in the Revelation vision John saw the Father,
the Son and the Spirit as three separate objects?
In summary, the Spirit is a person with personal attributes that
is separate from the Father who can plead, just like Jesus can,
before the Father. He can "will" that certain gifts be
distributed. He receives everything from the Father and then
speaks what he hears. Like Jesus, he is eternally submissive to
the Father and is therefore ONE with the Father and NOT a
separate God. Thus while there are three persons only one of them
is the Decision-maker. So together, in unity, they are one God
with one will, one glory. This is the Tri-unity.
.

User: "Sarah Kanary"

Title: Re: Explaining The Trinity To Jehovah's Witnesses 27 Jun 2007 05:27:18 PM

There will be two presentations in this booklet, one using the
first part of the book of Hebrews and another using the Gospel of
John chapter 5. Both of these passages assume that the reader is
familiar with Jewish beliefs. So as the discussion proceeds it
will be necessary to refer to Old Testament texts. Because a JW
will only accept the New World Translation

Please submit your proof that JWs only accept the NWT. Absolute
statements
require absolute proof; if such proof is lacking, you are repeating
unsubstantiated rumors and are creating straw men.

and because non-JWs
often do not realize the significance of the differences between
the NWT and other Bibles, this presentation will quote mainly
from the NWT.

The Deity of Christ

Would you consider the belief that Jesus is the "Christ" to be a
fundamental belief? Would you say that this belief was clearly
taught by Jesus?

Yes, for it is clearly and explicitly repeated many times. Nowhere,
however, is the Trinity mentioned even one single time.


Generally Jesus did not openly claim that he was the Christ (John
10:24,25,37,38; Luke 22:67) but wanted to be recognized based on
his teachings and his works (John 5:36; 14:10,11). Only rarely
did he admit to being the Christ (John 4:25,26). He normally did
not want others to proclaim that he was the Christ (Matthew
16:20; Luke 4:41). A few recognized him as the Christ (John 1:41;
7:31; 11:26,27; Matthew 16:13-16; 27:17,22), but most had
misconceptions about what to expect of the Christ and did not
recognize him (John 7:27,40-43; 12:34; Luke 23:39).

So this comparison must end here, for Christ *did* openly confess that
he
was the Christ. (John 4:25, 26)


Why do some people today believe Jesus is the Christ?

Because Scripture openly proclaims it, repeatedly in *those exact
words*.

The claims Jesus made imply that he was the Christ.

There was no "implication" involved, Scripture states it plainly and
succinctly.

The works Jesus did imply that he was the Christ.
Persons close to Jesus professed him to be the Christ.

Scripture calls him 'Christ', in *those exact words*:
John 20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is
the
Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through
his
name.
Mat 1:1 The book of the generation of Jesus Christ, the son of David,
the
son of Abraham.
Mat 16:16 And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the
Son
of the living God.
Mar 1:1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God;
Luk 9:20 He said unto them, But whom say ye that I am? Peter
answering
said, The Christ of God.
Joh 6:69 And we believe and are sure that thou art that Christ, the
Son of
the living God.
Joh 17:3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only
true
God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
Act 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that
God
hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and
Christ.
At Luke 2:11, angels from heaven proclaimed Jesus to be the Christ:
"For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Savior, which is
Christ the Lord."


Why do some people doubt Jesus is the Christ?
Jesus did not actually claim to be the Christ.

Yes, he did, in those exact words:
"The woman saith unto him, I know that Messiah cometh, which is called
Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things. Jesus saith unto
her, I
that speak unto thee am he." John 4:25, 26
It is puzzling that you cited this verse earlier, but ignore it now
when
making the claim that "Jesus didn't actually claim to be the Christ."
He
DID claim to be Christ.

Some misunderstand the implications of the title, leading
to false expectations.

Correct. And those Jews who misunderstood the implications thought
that
Jesus was going to overthrow the Romans and restore earthly Israel
right
then. But their hopes were disappointed.


I believe that the same is true for Jesus' Deity. Although his
claims and works show him to be God and some persons close to him
even professed him to be God,

That is an assumed conclusion, which is then used to arrive at a
conclusion.
Circular.

because he never actually claimed
to be God and because some misunderstand the implications of the
title, many today are unable to believe that he is God.

The above scriptures very plainly and explicitly proclaim Jesus to be
the
Christ, in those exact words: by Christ himself, by those who were
close to
him, and also the holy angels from heaven.
It seems that you are comparing watermelons to grapes. Abundant,
succinct
statements *specifically* proclaim Jesus to be the Christ. That type
of
evidence is distinctly lacking when it comes to the claim that he is
God.

So in the
examination that follows, ask yourself, do the claims and works
of Jesus imply that he is God? Do the scriptures actually call
him "God"? If you doubt that Jesus is God, could it be that the
title "God" causes you to expect things about Jesus that are not
actually taught in Scripture?

If a first-century Jew were curious about who Jesus was and
wanted a description of this new Christian religion in terms that
would utilize Jewish beliefs and heritage, what ONE book of the
Bible should he read? The book "to the Hebrews".

The entire "NT" for it was written by Christian Jews and abundantly
quoted
pre-existing Scripture, or the "OT".


Hebrews 1: . . .
"1 God, who long ago spoke on many occasions and in
many ways to our forefathers by means of the prophets,
2 has at the end of these days spoken to us by means of
a Son, . . ."

The Hebrew Scriptures were revealed somewhat through angels but
mostly through imperfect human agents.

ALL Scripture is inspired of God. (2 Tim. 3:16, 17) When Paul wrote
this,
the "NT" hadn't all been written yet.

Now we are introduced to
someone called the "Son". Who is he? Can he be described in terms
already familiar to the Jewish believer? Will the Son be
described as a human, a prophet, as an angel or what?

First of all, what does the term "son" mean? How would Jews view this
term?
How is it consistently used in Scripture?
It was never debated in Scripture anywhere. A son was/is the younger
offspring of an older, pre-existing father.


Hebrews 1:2
". . . whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom
he made the systems of things."

Notice that this says the Son made the systems of things. This is
plural and emphasizes that he made everything in the universe.

This is echoed in ...:

John 1:3 "All things came into existence through him, and apart
from him not even one thing came into existence."

So through this Son, God (as mentioned in Hebrews 1:1) made the
universe. Nothing that was made came into existence without him.

Absolutely correct! THROUGH this Son, God created all things. Jews
knew
that sons were younger offspring from an older father. Not hard to
understand. Fathers often directed their sons, especially their
firstborn
to carry out their father's orders.
Just like Solomon 'built' the temple, and Nebuchadnezzar 'built' many
of the
structures in Babylon, yet neither of them lifted one single brick.
They
directed others in fulfilling the work, yet they were the *source* of
the
project. Alone.

This would probably cause a devout Jew a little puzzlement. Was
there anyone in the Hebrew scriptures that was revealed to have
shared in making the universe? Who could this be?

Devout Jews familiar with the Hebrew Scriptures or the LXX would have
no
problems with this, for they would know:
"The LORD *created* me at the beginning of his work, the first of his
acts
of old. Ages ago I was set up, at the first, before the beginning of
the
earth. When there were no depths I was brought forth, when there were
no
springs abounding with water. Before the mountains had been shaped,
before
the hills, I was brought forth; before he had made the earth with its
fields, or the first of the dust of the world. When he established the
heavens, I was there, when he drew a circle on the face of the deep,
when he
made firm the skies above, when he established the fountains of the
deep,
when he assigned to the sea its limit, so that the waters might not
transgress his command, when he marked out the foundations of the
earth,
then I was beside him, like a master workman; and I was daily his
delight,
rejoicing before him always" Pro 8:22-30 RSV
The LXX, commonly used by the first-century church, said
"ektisen"(created)
at Prov. 8:22.

Angels, also
called sons of God (Job 1:6; 2:1; Psalm 29:1; 89:5-7), cannot do
what God can do, they did not participate in making the universe,
they were part of the creation:

Deuteronomy 3:24 "O Sovereign Lord Jehovah, you yourself have
started to make your servant see your greatness and your strong
arm, for who is a god in the heavens or on the earth that does
deeds like yours and mighty performances like yours?"

Psalm 71:19 "Your righteousness, O God, is up to the height; As
respects the great things that you have done, O God, who is like
you?"

Psalm 86:8 "There is none like you among the gods, O Jehovah,
Neither are there any works like yours."

Psalm 86:10 "For you are great and are doing wondrous things; You
are God, you alone."

Isaiah 44:24 "This is what Jehovah has said, your Repurchaser and
the Former of you from the belly: `I, Jehovah, am doing
everything, stretching out the heavens by myself, laying out the
earth. Who was with me?' "

Isaiah 45:18 "For this is what Jehovah has said, the Creator of
the heavens, He the true God, the Former of the earth and the
Maker of it, He the One who firmly established it, who did not
create it simply for nothing, who formed it even to be inhabited:
`I am Jehovah, and there is no one else."

Isaiah 45: 21,22 ". . . Who has caused this to be heard from a
long time ago? Who has reported it from that very time? Is it not
I, Jehovah, besides whom there is no other God; a righteous God
and a Savior, there being none excepting me? Turn to me and be
saved, all you at the ends of the earth; for I am God, and there
is no one else."

So how many Gods made the universe? One or two? Notice what
Jesus' Jewish disciples thought . . .

Acts 4:24 "Upon hearing this they with one accord raised their
voices to God and said: "Sovereign Lord, you are the One who made
the heaven and the earth and the sea and all the things in them."

Please continue on in that prayer:
Act 4:27 RSV "for truly in this city there were gathered together
against
thy holy *servant* Jesus..."
Act 4:30 RSV "while thou stretchest out thy hand to heal, and signs
and
wonders are performed through the name of thy holy *servant* Jesus."
What say you? Is a *servant* of God......God?

Acts 17:24 "The God that made the world and all the things in it,
being, as this One is, Lord of heaven and earth."

Only ONE God made the universe! Who? If God made the universe by
himself and no other God can do what He can do, who is this Son
that was used to make the universe? Will the rest of the book to
the Hebrews answer this? Will it name someone that has already
been revealed in the Hebrew Scriptures as this Son that made the
universe?

continuing with Hebrews 1:3 ". . .He is the reflection of [his]
glory . . ."

So this "Son" is the reflection (other translations say
"radiance") of God's glory! This too is a puzzlement.

How? A reflection magnifies the original glory; it does not detract
from
it. Scripture kindly explains:
2Co 3:18 "And we, who with unveiled faces *all reflect the Lord's
glory*,
are
being transformed into his likeness with ever-increasing glory, which
comes
from the Lord, who is the Spirit."
Nothing puzzling about the fact that the more Christians imitate God,
the
more they reflect His glory and thus intensify it. None of that makes
Christians God.

For the
Hebrew Scriptures say:

Isaiah 42:8 "I am Jehovah. That is my name; and to no one
else shall I give my own glory, neither my praise to graven
images."

Isaiah 48:11 "For my own sake, for my own sake I shall act, for
how could one let oneself be profaned? And to no one else shall I
give my own glory." (Compare Matthew 16:27; Mark 8:38; John
16:14,15; 17:5; Revelation 5:13,14)

How is any of this a "puzzlement"? Reflecting God's glory isn't
"sharing"
it, it is magnifying it.
If you read the context of these verses in Isaiah, God is comparing
Himself
to the false, lifeless idol gods of the nations, who had no saving
power.
NOT to the ones upon whom He Himself bestowed the title 'elohim' or
'theos'.


So who is it that is the reflection and radiance of the glory of
God himself? Is it really true that God will not share his glory
with another? Since we are in Isaiah for the moment, consider
another passage where Isaiah saw Jehovah's glory. As you read it,
ask yourself "Are Isaiah 42:8 and 48:11 true here? Is God's glory
being shared with another God? How many glories are mentioned
here?" . . .

Is this really that confusing to you? That's surprising, for
Scripture
gives quite a simple answer:
Mat 16:27 For the Son of man is to come with his angels in the glory
of his
Father, and then he will repay every man for what he has done.
Luk 2:9 And an angel of the Lord appeared to them, and the glory of
the
Lord shone around them, and they were filled with fear.
So angels also share in reflecting God's glory, to His praise.


Isaiah 6:1,2 ". . . I, however, got to see Jehovah, sitting on a
throne lofty and lifted up, and his skirts were filling the
temple. Seraphs were standing above him. "

Isaiah 6:3 "And this one called to that one and said: "Holy,
holy, holy is Jehovah of armies. The fullness of all the earth is
his glory.""

Isaiah 6:5 "And I proceeded to say: "Woe to me! For I am as good
as brought to silence, because a man unclean in lips I am, and in
among a people unclean in lips I am dwelling; for my eyes have
seen the King, Jehovah of armies, himself!""

Isaiah 6:8-10 "And I began to hear the voice of Jehovah saying:
"Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?" And I proceeded to
say: "Here I am! Send me." And he went on to say: "Go, and you
must say to this people, `Hear again and again, O men, but do not
understand; and see again and again, but do not get any
knowledge.' Make the heart of this people unreceptive, and make
their very ears unresponsive, and paste their very eyes together,
that they may not see with their eyes and with their ears they
may not hear, and that their own heart may not understand and
that they may not actually turn back and get healing for
themselves." "

Well, how many glories did you see? Did you see the glory of
anyone else described here? Did Jehovah share his glory with
anyone else?

Of course not. There is only God's glory, reflected and magnified by
those
who praise Him. Of course the only one who has ever done that to the
fullest degree possible is the Lord Jesus Christ, the SON of God. So
only
Christ is an exact image, or copy, of God.

Now compare . . .

John 12:36,37: ". . . Jesus spoke these things and went off and
hid from them. But although he had performed so many signs before
them, they were not putting faith in him,"

John 12:39-43 "The reason why they were not able to believe is
that again Isaiah said: "He has blinded their eyes and he has
made their hearts hard, that they should not see with their eyes
and get the thought with their hearts and turn around and I
should heal them." Isaiah said these things because he saw his
glory, and he spoke about him. All the same, many even of the
rulers actually put faith in him, but because of the Pharisees
they would not confess [him], in order not to be expelled from
the synagogue; for they loved the glory of men more than even the
glory of God."

From the context it is clear that this is referring to Jesus, the
Son of God, the one that many would not believe. Yet John quotes
Isaiah 6:10 (in John 12:40) and says that Isaiah saw the glory of
the Son of God! So how many glories did Isaiah see? Since Isaiah
heard Jehovah say "who will go for us?", does this imply that
there was another separate glory present but not mentioned? Or
does this imply only that there was another person present but
only ONE glory shared by both? Is Isaiah 42:8 and 48:11
contradicting Isaiah 6:1-10? So whose glory did Isaiah see -
Jesus' or Jehovah's? Did he see the glory of one God or two? Does
verse 43 answer the question when it refers to "the glory of
God"? Actually the answer is simple and easy to understand but
that will have to wait until later . . .

Why? The quite simple answer is that when God sent His Son to earth
as His
representative, how people responded to His Son was the same as
responding
to God Himself. Jesus illustrates this way:
Mat 25:40 And the King will answer them, 'Truly, I say to you, as you
did
it to one of the least of these my brethren, you did it to me.'
Luk 10:16 "He who hears you hears me, and he who rejects you rejects
me,
and he who rejects me rejects him who sent me."
Rejecting God's appointed representatives is the same as rejecting
God.
None of that means they share glory with God or ARE God.

continuing with Hebrews 1:3 . . .
". . . and the exact representation of his very being,"

As a side reference, this thought is echoed in . . .

Philippians 2:6 "who, although he was existing in God's form,
. . ." (Although translations differ over how the end of this
verse should be translated they agree on the first part saying
that Jesus, while in heaven, existed in God's form.)

John 14:9 "Jesus said to him: "Have I been with you men so long a
time, and yet, Philip, you have not come to know me? He that has
seen me has seen the Father [also]. . . ."

Jesus has God's appearance, he looks exactly like God even in his
"very being". But who looks like God? Do angels look like God? Is
there another God that looks exactly like God?

Was Jesus discussing his appearance? Let him answer: Look at that
verse
again.
"Have I been with you men so long a time, and yet, Philip, *you have
not
come to know me*?"
Jesus was speaking of his personality, his teachings, which perfectly
reflected that of his Father, as the apostle Paul explained:
1Co 2:16 "For who has known the mind of the Lord so as to instruct
him?"
But we have the mind of Christ." So it can truly be said that of all
of
God's servants, even of all His sons, if you have seen Christ, you
have seen
the Father. Not hard to understand.

Here is another
puzzle for the Hebrew trying to understand who the Son is in
terms of the Hebrew Scriptures:

Psalm 89:6-9 "For who in the skies can be compared to Jehovah?
Who can resemble Jehovah among the sons of God? God is to be held
in awe among the intimate group of holy ones; He is grand and
fear-inspiring over all who are round about him. O Jehovah God of
armies, Who is vigorous like you, O Jah? And your faithfulness is
all around you. You are ruling over the swelling of the sea; When
it raises up its waves you yourself calm them." - [What would a
Jew that was familiar with this verse think of the account in
Matthew 8:24-27 (Mark 4:35-41; Luke 8:22-25)?]

Note that this implies that the "sons of God" of verse 6 are the
ones who are around him in verse 7. So even the angels that are
around Jehovah, these sons of God, cannot compare nor do they
even resemble Him. Then WHO is the Son that is the reflection of
God's glory "and the exact representation of his very being"?

1 Kings 8:23 "and he went on to say: `O Jehovah the God of
Israel, there is no God like you in the heavens above or on the
earth beneath, keeping the covenant and the loving-kindness
toward your servants who are walking before you with all their
heart' " (2 Chronicles 6:14 reads the same.)

Isaiah 46:5 "To whom will you people liken me or make [me]
equal or compare me that we may resemble each other? . . ."

Isaiah 46:9 "Remember the first things of a long time ago, that I
am the Divine One and there is no other God, nor anyone like me."

(Other verses that also say there is no God like Jehovah, are:
Exodus 8:10; 9:14; 15:11; Deuteronomy 33:26; 1 Samuel 2:2; 2
Samuel 7:22; 1 Chronicles 17:20; Psalm 113:5; Isaiah 40:18,25;
44:6-8; Jeremiah 10:6; Micah 7:18.)

Would a Jew familiar with these texts conclude that the Son, the
one who is "the exact representation of his very being" must be
an angel or a second and distinct God? Just who is this book to
the Hebrews, chapter 1 verse 3, describing here?

continuing with Hebrews 1:3
". . . and he sustains all things by the word of his power;"

Again, as we saw in verse 2, the Son can do what God can. But who
can do the works of God? WHO sustains the universe? Not the
angels:

Psalm 148:1-6 "Praise Jah, you people! Praise Jehovah from the
heavens, Praise him in the heights. Praise him, all you his
angels. Praise him, all you his army. Praise him, you sun and
moon. Praise him, all you stars of light. Praise him, you heavens
of the heavens, And you waters that are above the heavens. Let
them praise the name of Jehovah; For he himself commanded, and
they were created. And he keeps them standing forever, to time
indefinite. A regulation he has given, and it will not pass
away."

So how is it that the Son sustains the universe?

continuing with Hebrews 1:3 . . .
". . . and after he had made a purification for our sins
he sat down on the right hand of the Majesty in lofty
places."

How would a first-century Jew react to this claim that the Son
removed his sins? The same situation occurred at Mark 2:1-12
(Luke 5:18-26) where Jesus showed he had the authority to forgive
sins before his death (Mark 2:10; Luke 5:24). The Jews replied
(Mark 2:7) "He is blaspheming. Who can forgive sins except one,
God?" or (Luke 5:21) "Who is this that is speaking blasphemies?
Who can forgive sins except God alone?" There reaction to saying
that someone, other than God, removed sin was blasphemy!

These were the reactions of Jesus' *enemies*. Are they, therefore,
an
accurate measure of truth??? Why not concentrate instead on the
reaction of
*believers*?
Mat 9:8 "Now when the multitudes saw it, they marveled and glorified
God,
*who had given such power to men*."
I have observed that much of Trinitarian arguments are based on what
is said
by Christ's *enemies* not his answers to them or what his followers
say.

So what
would a Hebrew, reading this book written to the Hebrews,
conclude as to the identity of the Son of God? Would he say `Of
course, the Son must be a second God (or an angel) that made the
universe, does everything God does, looks exactly like God, has
the glory of God, sustains the universe and forgives sins.'?

Of course not. There is no 'second God'. Or 'second person' of God.
There
are many examples in the Hebrew Scriptures of men and angels who were
addressed as "God" because they were His appointed representatives.
None of
that made them God or 'second' Gods, simply His acting mouthpiece at
the
time. Of course, now, He speaks by means of His Son, His Firstborn.
Not
hard for Jews to understand.


Up to this point the Son has been compared to God. Would you say
that the comparisons show the Son to be different, somewhat
similar or exactly like God? Well, now we will see how the Son is
compared to angels. Will we find that the writer of Hebrews
identifies the Son with some special angel that was revealed in
the Hebrew Scriptures? Will we see a parallel between the Son and
any angel mentioned in the New Testament, such as Revelation
20:1? No. From this point on we will see the Son contrasted with
angels and shown to be VERY different. If the Son is to be
identified with some Old Testament angel, this is THE place to
show it so that our Jewish reader of this book to the Hebrews
will understand who the Son is in familiar terms.

"Hebrews 1:4 So he has become better than the angels, to
the extent that he has inherited a name more excellent
than theirs."

For clarity compare this rendering from the New Revised Standard
Version

"4 having become as much superior to angels as the
name he has inherited is more excellent than theirs."

This makes it quite clear: Jesus has *become* superior. The whole
point of
the first chapter of Hebrews is that Jesus Christ is exalted above
the
angels. It wouldn't be necessary to mention this if he was God,
because of
course, God doesn't need exalted, He is already higher than His
creation.


This is echoed in . . .
1 Peter 3:22 "He is at God's right hand, for he went his way to
heaven; and angels and authorities and powers were made subject
to him."

We learn from Hebrews 2:9,17 that the Son had to take on the
nature of humans and become, temporarily, lower than angels. But
at his resurrection he was exalted to heaven, and received a
position superior to that of angels (compare John 17:5) and
received another superior name, the "only-begotten Son" that had
its fullest meaning after his resurrection (Romans 1:3,4; Acts
13:33).

And of course, someone else had to exalt him, he had to *receive*
another
superior name, and 'only-begotten Son' as well as 'firstborn' were
familiar
terms to Jews. Not hard to understand.


"Hebrews 1:5 For example, to which one of the angels did
he ever say: "You are my son; I, today, I have become
your father"? And again: "I myself shall become his
father, and he himself will become my son"?"

There are two Old Testament references here, the first is from
Psalm 2:7, the second is from 2 Samuel 7:14 (that these apply to
Jesus, the Son, compare Acts 13:33 and Hebrews 5:5).

2 Samuel 7:14 was originally applied to Solomon. Does the clear
references
to it also applying to Jesus Christ mean that Solomon is Christ?

Following
the line of reasoning here, we see this is a rhetorical question,
that is, the answer is supposed to be obvious to the informed
reader. God never said these things to any angel.

"Hebrews 1:6 But when he again brings his Firstborn into
the inhabited earth, he says: "And let all God's angels
do obeisance to him." "

This is similar to Psalm 148:2 (quoted above) where the angels
praise God. It could be considered somewhat like Daniel 7:14
where all people are to serve the "son of man". It is possibly a
quotation from Psalm 97:7, which is very close when viewed in the
Greek Septuagint (abbreviated LXX, the Greek Old Testament used
by early Christians and some Jews). But it is closest to
Deuteronomy 32:43 which reads (only in the LXX!):

"Rejoice, ye heavens, with him, and let all the angels of
God worship him; rejoice ye Gentiles, with his people, and
let all the sons of God strengthen themselves in him; for he
will avenge the blood of his sons, and he will render ven-
geance, and recompense justice to his enemies, and will re-
ward them that hate him; and the Lord shall purge the land
of his people."

So here is the point: The Old Testament, either Psalm 97:7 (LXX)
or Deuteronomy 32:43 (LXX), has the angels giving homage to God.
This is, of course, because God is so much higher than angels.
But in Hebrews 1:6 the writer quotes this very same passage and
applies it to the relationship between the angels and the Son.
Again, this contrasts angels from the Son, it does not compare
them as being equal or even similar.

Gal 4:14 NKJ "...you received me *as an angel of God, even as
Christ
Jesus*."
What are your comments on this verse?

Further note the issue of propriety of rendering this homage to
the Son. The Hebrew word that appears in Psalm 97:7 also appears
in these two verses in Exodus:

Exodus 20:3-5 (from the Ten Commandments): "You must not have any
other gods against my face. You must not make for yourself a
carved image or a form like anything that is in the heavens above
or that is on the earth underneath or that is in the waters under
the earth. You must not bow down to them nor be induced to serve
them, because I Jehovah your God am a God exacting exclusive
devotion, . . ."

Exodus 34:14 "For you must not prostrate yourself to another god,
because Jehovah, whose name is Jealous, he is a jealous God"

How can this form of honor, which is not supposed to be given to
any other God, be given to the Son? What do you think is the
point that the writer of Hebrews is trying to make? Here in
Hebrews 1:6 he is writing to Jews and describing just who the Son
is in terms of the Jewish Scriptures. He selects an Old Testament
passage that describes the angels bowing to Jehovah. A Jew would
of course know the Law that it is wrong to give this to any other
God. So what would a Jew conclude from reading this? Do you
really think he would conclude: `Since the Son receives homage
from angels, he must be a second God, or an angel'?

Of course not. Since the Hebrew word 'elohim' and the Greek word
'theos'
have much broader meanings than the restrictive English word 'god',
they
would know exactly what was meant, since many others in the Hebrew
Scriptures received homage and were bowed down to. There are several
words
in Hebrew and Greek that can be translated as 'worship'. Most of them
are
also used to describe acts OTHER than worship.


Is Hebrews 1:6 the only place that shows Jesus receiving homage?
No, the same Greek word that appears in Hebrews 1:6 also appears
in Matthew 28:9 and Revelation 5:14.

Matthew 28:9 "And, look! Jesus met them and said: "Good day!"
They approached and caught him by his feet and did obeisance to
him."

Revelation 5:13,14 "And every creature that is in heaven and on
earth and underneath the earth and on the sea, and all the things
in them, I heard saying: "To the One sitting on the throne and to
the Lamb be the blessing and the honor and the glory and the
might forever and ever." And the four living creatures went
saying: "Amen!" and the elders fell down and worshiped."

In Revelation 5:13 we see every living creature giving "glory" to
both the Father and the Son. But Isaiah 42:8; 48:11 says Jehovah
will not share his glory with anyone else. Is this a
contradiction? Why is there no distinction made between what is
being given to the One on the throne (the Father) and what is
given to the Lamb (Jesus)? Also of interest, is that in this
context where every living creature is giving these praises to
both the Father and Son without distinction, the elders
"worshiped". Who is being worshiped? Is it significant that this
is the same Greek word that is translated "obeisance" in Hebrews
1:6 and Matthew 28:9 and there given to Jesus?

Not as much as might be thought, when you look at a sampling of others
to
whom it is applied:
Rev 3:9 NKJ "Indeed I will make those of the synagogue of Satan, who
say
they are Jews and are not, but lie--indeed I will make them come and
*worship* before your feet, and to know that I have loved you." To
whom was
this addressed? To the angel of the church in Philadelphia.
Gen 23:7 Breton's LXX "And Abraam rose up and did obeisance to the
people
of the land, to the sons of Chet." The same Greek word is translated
'worship' in some Bibles at Heb. 1:6 and Matt. 28:9.
1Ch 29:20 And David said to all the congregation, Now bless the LORD
your
God. And all the congregation blessed the LORD God of their fathers,
and
bowed down their heads, and *worshiped* the LORD, and the king.

Continuing with Hebrews 1:7-9 . . .
"Also, with reference to the angels he says: "And he makes his
angels spirits, and his public servants a flame of fire." But
with reference to the Son: "God is your throne forever and ever,
and [the] scepter of your kingdom is the scepter of uprightness.
You loved righteousness, and you hated lawlessness. That is why
God, your God, anointed you with [the] oil of exultation more
than your partners."

Why does the Son have to be exalted above his "partners"?


Again, here is another contrast between angels and the Son.
Angels are public servants but the Son is King. So where is the
admission that the Son is also an angel?

He was exalted above them. Why would this explanation be necessary if
he
was God?


Verse 9 says that God is "your" God, that is, the Son's God. What
does this imply? It shows that the Son is not the same person as
the one who anointed him and he does not have the same position
as that one. So who is he? The answer is simple as we will see
later . . .

It can be seen quite clearly now: The Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of
God.
The scripture speaks of "your" God. Since Jews understood what a son
was,
and that God's Son is included in His worshipers ("your" God), they
would
understand that Christ was exalted above God's other sons, as any
firstborn.
Not hard to understand.


But what about the term "partners" in verse 9? Does that not
imply that the Son has partners and therefore he came from that
class of beings and is one of them? No. This cannot be justified
anymore than saying that because God has intimate association
with angels (see Psalm 89:6,7 quoted above) that therefore he is
one of them.

Psalms 89:6, 7 says nothing about God being 'partners' with the angels
or
that He needs to be 'exalted above' them.

Also note that the same Greek word for "partner"
appears in Hebrews 6:4 where it discusses humans that at one time
had been partners with God's Holy Spirit but had fallen away.

Hebrews 6:4 says nothing about anyone being exalted above the holy
spirit,
person or not. It does, however, speak of being partakers OF holy
spirit.

This certainly does not mean that these humans were from the same
class of being as the Holy Spirit. So, no, this verse does not
imply that the Son is of the same class of being as his partners.

Where in any of these scriptures is anyone spoken of as being
*exalted
above* holy spirit?


"Hebrews 1:10-12 And: "You at [the] beginning, O Lord, laid the
foundations of the earth itself, and the heavens are [the] works
of your hands. They themselves will perish, but you yourself are
to remain continually; and just like an outer garment they will
all grow old, and you will wrap them up just as a cloak, as an
outer garment; and they will be changed, but you are the same,
and your years will never run out." "

What would a Jew conclude from this? Another puzzlement.

Not to a Jew familiar with Prov. 8:22-30 in the LXX.

For this
are quotations from Psalm 102:

Psalm 102:1 "O Jehovah, do hear my prayer . . ."

Psalm 102:24 "I proceeded to say: "O my God, . . .

Psalm 102:25-27 "Long ago you l