It looks to me as if only the gospel of John refers to Jesus as the Lamb
of God (Jn 1.29,36) or refers to him as the Passover Lamb (Jn 19.36).
Therefore, it seems to follow that the idea that Jesus is the Passover
Lamb represents a minority christian view.
If Jesus was not considered to be the Lamb of God in the synoptic
gospels, what was he considered to be? Interestingly, all the synoptic
gospels refer to the Barabbas incident. Barabbas may mean bar Abbas, or, son
of the father. This leads to an interesting interpretation of that incident.
The interpretation is that Jesus was the sacrificial ram, and that
Barabbas represented Isaac, the son of the father (Abraham.)
In other words, Jesus is being represented as a sacrifice in place of
or on behalf of all the future descendants of Abraham.
But since the synoptic gospels call down vituperation on the Jews, it may
be that this sacrifice refers to the alleged spiritual descendents of
Abraham. This is a Pauline idea (Rom 4.3,11,13). Since Paul wrote his
epistles before the four gospels were composed, 'Barabbas' may represent a
Pauline concept.
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