| Topic: |
Religions > Bible |
| User: |
"James" |
| Date: |
29 May 2006 06:46:09 PM |
| Object: |
Re: Biblical Questions / Ideas |
"RCMax" <rodney4u@hotmail.com>
Re: Biblical Questions / Ideas
I understand that some of these questions may not be answerable, but I
would greatly appreciate any answers (or speculation) to the questions
that are:
Adam and Eve (the Tree of Knowledge)
===========================================
If Eve ate of the Tree first and then persuaded Adam to do the same,
why didn't Eve become ashamed of her nakedness first?
Hello,
Any answer I give will only be speculation, since the Bible does not
directly answer your question.
Perhaps it was because at first, Eve was "thoroughly deceived" into
eating the forbidden fruit. (2 Ti 2:14) This might have delayed that
feeling of nakedness until she became aware of how she was deceived.
(Likely by Adam when he ate, who "was not deceived") At that point,
then "the eyes of both of them became opened and they began to realize
that they were naked." (Ge 3:7)
If the snake was under the influence of the devil, why did God punish
the snake and all of its descendants if it was only an animal being
controlled by another being?
Good question. Again, I know of no direct Bible answer. Obviously,
when God was speaking to the snake, God was really directing His
remarks to the intelligent being who was using the snake, Satan the
Devil. God was telling Satan of his upcoming debasement, as well as
setting up the first Bible prophecy. (Ge 3:15) But why punish the poor
literal snake? Notice this comment:
"But for the symbolic application of this judgment upon the wicked
spirit creature who became Satan to have any force there must be a
fulfillment of it in the literal serpent, which has come to symbolize
Satan." (1964 Watchtower)
Also, the literal snakes of today seem to do just fine, slithering
around on the ground. They don't appear to be in agony over any
missing legs etc, they might have once had. If slithering slows them
down a bit, I for one am glad that they don't have legs.
Pre-Adamite Theory (see: http://www.creationdays.dk/larkin/1.html )
===========================================
Eve and then Adam were influenced to sin by the devil posing as a
snake.
The devil rebelled against God in an effort to take God's place above
creation. What influenced the devil to begin this sin? What initiated
the cycle of events leading to the decision to rebel against God?
Probably as a result of the mechanism behind the birth of a sin,
mentioned at Jas 1:14,15,
"14 but each person is tempted when he is lured and enticed by his own
desire. 15 Then desire when it has conceived gives birth to sin; and
sin when it is full-grown brings forth death." (RSV)
Thus Satan at one time must have entertained the idea to be worshipped
etc. But instead of kicking that bad idea out of his mind, he kept
thinking about until it cause him to act on it, thus bringing about
his "sin", and eventually will come his "death". (Re 20:14)
If the universe, and the rest of creation were created and controlled
by God how could a lesser being (or 2/3 of the angels) hope to
successfully revolt and replace God? If such a scenario were
successful, what would happen to God?
I have thought of that also on occasion. Since they were up in Heaven
and knew the infinite powers of God, it appears to me that it would
have been suicide to take Him on. But when you look into the Bible you
will see that they never challenge God's power, but rather God's way
of governing, or His truthfulness, or His morality etc.
And since they know that, unlike themselves, God is fair and righteous
in all things (De 32:4), perhaps they felt that if they could prove
their points, that God would have to agree with them, and then let
them have their way. Unless they were all mad, they must have felt
that they at least had a chance to make things go their way. Just my
two cents on that issue.
If the 2/3 of the angels were defeated, why weren't they killed off
or nullified in some manner that leaves no trace of them behind?
Is there more to this story that is not indicated?
God was challenged about several things. One was that humans only
worshipped God because He gave them things and made them prosperous
etc. But if humans had to suffer, then they would not worship God. The
book of Job records that challenge.
Now if God immediately killed off all those who challenged Him, no one
would ever really know if they were right or not. Also, if God didn't
give them enough time to prove their points, they could accuse God of
prematurely ending the challenge so as to make Him appear right. That
is one reason why God permits wickedness and suffering to continue to
our day. But according to Scripture, we are nearing the end of those
challenges. Satan and his demon friends have been proven to be the
liars they are. And their judgments are right around the corner.
Revelations
===========================================
As a final punishment, the devil and his followers are thrown into the
Lake of Fire to be tormented for all eternity in the 'Second
Death'. Would it not be possible to eradicate them from existence
once and for all instead? Are they not capable of non-existance?
That is exactly what is to be done to them. (non-existence) If you are
a loving father, do you torture your disobedient children, esp with
fire? How would you like people accusing you of doing so? Neither does
God. Notice carefully that "lake of fire" you are referring to. Re
20:14,
"Then death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. The lake of
fire is the second death." (NIV)
Notice that an abstract idea, "death" is tossed into it. Also "hades"
(hell itself) is tossed into it. Thus the "lake of fire" is symbolic
and not meant to be taken literally. And that same verse even defines
what the lake of fire symbolizes. It says it symbolizes, as you
mentioned, the "second death". (DEATH, not a LIFE of torture.)
The apostle John also make a statement dousing the 'hellfire' flames.
1 Jo 2:17,
"The world and its desires pass away, but the man who does the will of
God lives forever." (NIV)
Notice the reward for doing the will of God. Those people get to 'live
forever'. Now if that 'hellfire' place was literal, those people are
also 'living forever' there, just not under the best of conditions.
But that would contradict the apostle John's words of truth at 1 Jo
2:17.
We could also make a statement of truth by reversing part of that
verse. 'The world and its desires pass away, but the man who does not
do the will of God, will not live forever." (NIV)
Yes, the Bible contrasts LIFE and DEATH, not 'life of bliss' and 'life
of torture'.
I hope you are now starting to realize that the God of the Bible is a
God of love, not of the false claims of men, a god of torture. (1 Jo
4:8)
So then what does it mean when as you stated, Satan will be "tortured"
forever in that "lake of fire"? (Re 20:10) How can he be tortured if
he is non-existent?
Notice in those verses that not everything in it is literal. The
"Devil" is certainly literal, but the "beast" is certainly symbolic,
etc. Also, even "death" and "Hades" (hell) will eventually end up in
there, and those things certainly cannot experience conscious torment.
(Re 20:14) Therefore, one must ask how the word "torture" is supposed
to be understood since things symbolic are also 'tortured'.
Notice this comment from this Bible magazine:
"However, some may ask: 'Why does Revelation 20, verse 10, say that
the Devil will be tormented in the lake of fire?' If, as we have seen,
the lake of fire is symbolic, then, logically, the torment is also.
In Bible times, jailers often cruelly tortured their prisoners, hence
they were called "tormentors." In one of his illustrations, Jesus
spoke of a cruel slave as being 'delivered to the jailers' (Greek,
ba·sa·ni·stes', which actually means "tormentors" and is so rendered
in several translations). (Matthew 18:34) So when Revelation speaks of
the Devil and others as being "tormented . . . forever" in the lake of
fire, it means that they will be "jailed" to all eternity in the
second death of complete destruction. The Devil, the death inherited
from Adam, and the unrepentant wicked all are spoken of as being
destroyed eternally-"jailed" in the lake of fire.-Compare Hebrews
2:14; 1 Corinthians 15:26; Psalm 37:38." (1986 Awake!, 4/22, p. 27.)
Try to keep at least one thing in mind on this "torture' verse: How
can symbolic things be literally tortured?
General
===========================================
Who was Cain's wife? Was she his sister?
Perhaps. Cain married someone in his immediate family, like his sister
or niece, etc. Ge 5:4,
"And the days of Adam after his fathering Seth came to be eight
hundred years. Meanwhile he became father to sons and daughters."
(NWT)
Was God advocating incest? No. (more on this if you want)
Sincerely, James
***********************************
Want a FREE home Bible study?
Have Jehovah's Witnesses questions?
Go to the authorized source:
http://www.watchtower.org
***********************************
.
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| User: "Ronald More-More Moshki" |
|
| Title: Re: Biblical Questions / Ideas |
30 May 2006 11:03:44 PM |
|
|
James wrote:
"RCMax" <rodney4u@hotmail.com>
Re: Biblical Questions / Ideas
I understand that some of these questions may not be answerable, but I
would greatly appreciate any answers (or speculation) to the questions
that are:
Adam and Eve (the Tree of Knowledge)
===========================================
If Eve ate of the Tree first and then persuaded Adam to do the same,
why didn't Eve become ashamed of her nakedness first?
Hello,
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Hello-------------the story is dumb, real dumb and you've proved
you know it by asking the usual, common sense questions which
have no rational answer.
.
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