| Topic: |
Religions > Bible |
| User: |
"Diana Burgess" |
| Date: |
01 Apr 2004 06:52:07 AM |
| Object: |
Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
===>Funny question.
Since when are dates attached to books?
Well then how can anyone prove when Daniel was written?
I also wonder why if a person is going to write a history book and then
claim it as prophecy that they would not get it right according to known
history.Seems rather silly to make such obvious mistakes does it
not......unless of course the history was changed by thoses that had a
vested interest in not being exposed by the prophecy. Or were trying to
exalt themselves....take your pick.
===>Neither. The fact is, the author was no historian, was
only relying on his limited understanding of times past.
Nor does he appear to have thought ot of any relevance.
His purpose was to encourage the revolt against the
Greeks.
Where is the proof that makes it fact?
Anyway I dont really care if you think I am a biblicist or bibliolater.
I see the bible as a book with just as many lies in it as there are
truths
to expose the lie.
The bible was put together by peoples who had a vested interest in what
was
read.
===>On that I agree with you completely. I would only add that
it was also WRITTEN "by peoples who had a vested interest in what was
read. --- L.
I do agree with your statement as well. But we differ in that I still
believe that Gad had a hand in it.
How else can the same book reveal the truth behind the lies?
---
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| User: "Libertarius" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
01 Apr 2004 09:06:29 PM |
|
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Diana Burgess wrote:
===>Funny question.
Since when are dates attached to books?
Well then how can anyone prove when Daniel was written?
===>By analyzing the content of the book in its historical context.
I also wonder why if a person is going to write a history book and then
claim it as prophecy that they would not get it right according to known
history.Seems rather silly to make such obvious mistakes does it
not......unless of course the history was changed by thoses that had a
vested interest in not being exposed by the prophecy. Or were trying to
exalt themselves....take your pick.
===>Neither. The fact is, the author was no historian, was
only relying on his limited understanding of times past.
Nor does he appear to have thought ot of any relevance.
His purpose was to encourage the revolt against the
Greeks.
Where is the proof that makes it fact?
Anyway I dont really care if you think I am a biblicist or bibliolater.
I see the bible as a book with just as many lies in it as there are
truths
to expose the lie.
The bible was put together by peoples who had a vested interest in what
was
read.
===>On that I agree with you completely. I would only add that
it was also WRITTEN "by peoples who had a vested interest in what was
read. --- L.
I do agree with your statement as well. But we differ in that I still
believe that Gad had a hand in it.
===>There is only evidence of CLAIMS of some deity, not
evoidence of any deity. But if you wish to believe it, that is your business.
How else can the same book reveal the truth behind the lies?
===>What book? What truth? What lies?
.
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| User: "Diana Burgess" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
02 Apr 2004 04:56:25 AM |
|
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"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:406CD8B5.713CA5B8@Nothing_But_The.Truth...
Diana Burgess wrote:
===>Funny question.
Since when are dates attached to books?
Well then how can anyone prove when Daniel was written?
===>By analyzing the content of the book in its historical context.
But this doesn't make sense.
You say that it does not follow correct historical events.
If the history is wrong then it cannot have been written after.
This is not proof of when Daniel was written.
Who writes a history book then tries to make it look like prophecy written
before the events then GETS IT WRONG???
I also wonder why if a person is going to write a history book and
then
claim it as prophecy that they would not get it right according to
known
history.Seems rather silly to make such obvious mistakes does it
not......unless of course the history was changed by thoses that
had a
vested interest in not being exposed by the prophecy. Or were trying
to
exalt themselves....take your pick.
===>Neither. The fact is, the author was no historian, was
only relying on his limited understanding of times past.
Nor does he appear to have thought ot of any relevance.
His purpose was to encourage the revolt against the
Greeks.
Where is the proof that makes it fact?
Lib you missed this one. Could you please provide an answer
Anyway I dont really care if you think I am a biblicist or
bibliolater.
I see the bible as a book with just as many lies in it as there are
truths
to expose the lie.
The bible was put together by peoples who had a vested interest in
what
was
read.
===>On that I agree with you completely. I would only add that
it was also WRITTEN "by peoples who had a vested interest in what was
read. --- L.
I do agree with your statement as well. But we differ in that I still
believe that Gad had a hand in it.
===>There is only evidence of CLAIMS of some deity, not
evoidence of any deity. But if you wish to believe it, that is your
business.
Do you know someone who actually knew any historical character that lived
many years ago? Even one hundred years. So how do we know any of them
existed beyond what has been written about them? And how do we know what was
written was the truth?
How else can the same book reveal the truth behind the lies?
===>What book? the bible What truth? What God is really like and how low
some will go to confuse and set us on the wrong path. What lies? The lies
that set us on the wrong path and confuse us and make us(well not all of us)
believe
God is cruel and unjust.
---
Outgoing mail is certified Virus Free.
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| User: "Libertarius" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
02 Apr 2004 11:14:45 AM |
|
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Diana Burgess wrote:
"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:406CD8B5.713CA5B8@Nothing_But_The.Truth...
Diana Burgess wrote:
===>Funny question.
Since when are dates attached to books?
Well then how can anyone prove when Daniel was written?
===>By analyzing the content of the book in its historical context.
But this doesn't make sense.
You say that it does not follow correct historical events.
===>Exactly.
But it does make references to events occurring at the time of its
composition, i.e. 2nd century BCE.
If the history is wrong then it cannot have been written after.
===>Why not?
The author was not accurate about the OLD history.
This is not proof of when Daniel was written.
===>The best we have.
Who writes a history book then tries to make it look like prophecy written
before the events then GETS IT WRONG???
===>It is NOT a "history book".
I also wonder why if a person is going to write a history book and
then
claim it as prophecy that they would not get it right according to
known
history.Seems rather silly to make such obvious mistakes does it
not......unless of course the history was changed by thoses that
had a
vested interest in not being exposed by the prophecy. Or were trying
to
exalt themselves....take your pick.
===>Neither. The fact is, the author was no historian, was
only relying on his limited understanding of times past.
Nor does he appear to have thought ot of any relevance.
His purpose was to encourage the revolt against the
Greeks.
Where is the proof that makes it fact?
Lib you missed this one. Could you please provide an answer
===>The history of the time is the evidence. The message of the book
relates to that history.
Anyway I dont really care if you think I am a biblicist or
bibliolater.
I see the bible as a book with just as many lies in it as there are
truths
to expose the lie.
The bible was put together by peoples who had a vested interest in
what
was
read.
===>On that I agree with you completely. I would only add that
it was also WRITTEN "by peoples who had a vested interest in what was
read. --- L.
I do agree with your statement as well. But we differ in that I still
believe that Gad had a hand in it.
===>There is only evidence of CLAIMS of some deity, not
evoidence of any deity. But if you wish to believe it, that is your
business.
Do you know someone who actually knew any historical character that lived
many years ago? Even one hundred years. So how do we know any of them
existed beyond what has been written about them? And how do we know what was
written was the truth?
===>There is history and there is tendentious propaganda.
"DANIEL" is not history but propaganda.
It's content does not match what we know of history until
it is talking about things happening in the second second century
BCE.
.
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| User: "Diana Burgess" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
04 Apr 2004 08:56:25 AM |
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"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:406D9F85.4A16EB12@Nothing_But_The.Truth...
Diana Burgess wrote:
"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:406CD8B5.713CA5B8@Nothing_But_The.Truth...
Diana Burgess wrote:
===>Funny question.
Since when are dates attached to books?
Well then how can anyone prove when Daniel was written?
===>By analyzing the content of the book in its historical context.
But this doesn't make sense.
You say that it does not follow correct historical events.
===>Exactly.
But it does make references to events occurring at the time of its
composition, i.e. 2nd century BCE.
So what about all the other events that do not refer to that time period?
How does reference to two events make it fact that the book was written
then?
If the history is wrong then it cannot have been written after.
===>Why not?
The author was not accurate about the OLD history.
How do you know that?
This is not proof of when Daniel was written.
===>The best we have.
Who writes a history book then tries to make it look like prophecy
written
before the events then GETS IT WRONG???
===>It is NOT a "history book".
Well what is it then?
If the author wanted us to believe it was prophecy then you would think he
would get it right.
Are you suggesting that it was fiction?
===>Neither. The fact is, the author was no historian, was
only relying on his limited understanding of times past.
Nor does he appear to have thought ot of any relevance.
His purpose was to encourage the revolt against the
Greeks.
Where is the proof that makes it fact?
Lib you missed this one. Could you please provide an answer
===>The history of the time is the evidence. The message of the book
relates to that history.
What's the message?
Anyway I dont really care if you think I am a biblicist or
bibliolater.
I see the bible as a book with just as many lies in it as there
are
truths
to expose the lie.
The bible was put together by peoples who had a vested interest
in
what
was
read.
===>On that I agree with you completely. I would only add that
it was also WRITTEN "by peoples who had a vested interest in what
was
read. --- L.
I do agree with your statement as well. But we differ in that I
still
believe that Gad had a hand in it.
===>There is only evidence of CLAIMS of some deity, not
evoidence of any deity. But if you wish to believe it, that is your
business.
Do you know someone who actually knew any historical character that
lived
many years ago? Even one hundred years. So how do we know any of them
existed beyond what has been written about them? And how do we know what
was
written was the truth?
===>There is history and there is tendentious propaganda.
"DANIEL" is not history but propaganda.
It's content does not match what we know of history until
it is talking about things happening in the second second century
BCE.
Could it be at all possible that someone change the history ever so slightly
to discredit the prophecy?
If not why not?
I am really interested in finding out where the history errors are. I have
read a few things in Daniel that lead to other places in history.....not
recent. So I would really like to pinpoint the errors so I can get a
bearing.
I am asking because it is harad to find literature that "excuses" those
errors...if you know what I mean.
If I am slow to respond please dont think I have lost interest. I had an
accident at the end of January and even though I have healed remarkably fast
I do get twinges that lay me low for a day.
Four ribs broken in six places when a wayward motorcross bike hit me in the
back at a demonstration event.Still to be up and moving freely and off
medication in a little under three weeks...even my doctor called it a
miracle.
Mind you I would take broken ribs over collapsed lungs, ingrown toenails and
a C section any day<G>
So please keep a look out for me. I really need to know this stuff or any
reference you can give.
Diana
---
Outgoing mail is certified Virus Free.
Checked by AVG anti-virus system (http://www.grisoft.com).
Version: 6.0.637 / Virus Database: 408 - Release Date: 20/03/2004
.
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| User: "Libertarius" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
04 Apr 2004 08:34:23 PM |
|
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Diana Burgess wrote:
"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:406D9F85.4A16EB12@Nothing_But_The.Truth...
Diana Burgess wrote:
"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:406CD8B5.713CA5B8@Nothing_But_The.Truth...
Diana Burgess wrote:
===>Funny question.
Since when are dates attached to books?
Well then how can anyone prove when Daniel was written?
===>By analyzing the content of the book in its historical context.
But this doesn't make sense.
You say that it does not follow correct historical events.
===>Exactly.
But it does make references to events occurring at the time of its
composition, i.e. 2nd century BCE.
So what about all the other events that do not refer to that time period?
How does reference to two events make it fact that the book was written
then?
===>ACCURACY.
If the history is wrong then it cannot have been written after.
===>Why not?
The author was not accurate about the OLD history.
How do you know that?
===>That has been explained to you numerous times.
This is not proof of when Daniel was written.
===>The best we have.
Who writes a history book then tries to make it look like prophecy
written
before the events then GETS IT WRONG???
===>It is NOT a "history book".
Well what is it then?
===>A propaganda piece.
If the author wanted us to believe it was prophecy then you would think he
would get it right.
===>He tried.
Are you suggesting that it was fiction?
===>Of course it was fiction.
===>Neither. The fact is, the author was no historian, was
only relying on his limited understanding of times past.
Nor does he appear to have thought ot of any relevance.
His purpose was to encourage the revolt against the
Greeks.
Where is the proof that makes it fact?
Lib you missed this one. Could you please provide an answer
===>The history of the time is the evidence. The message of the book
relates to that history.
What's the message?
===>To hang in there, YHWH controls history and
told Daniel that the Greek rule will come to an end,
the rule of the beast will be smeshed by the rule of
the (chosen) people ("Son of Man").
===>There is history and there is tendentious propaganda.
"DANIEL" is not history but propaganda.
It's content does not match what we know of history until
it is talking about things happening in the second second century
BCE.
Could it be at all possible that someone change the history ever so slightly
to discredit the prophecy?
===>Why would anyone have wanted to do that?
The historical records have no connection with any "Daniel".
The only "Daniel" we know of is a mythical Canaanite
figure from Ugarit, and its content goes all the way back to Babylonian
mythology known as the ENUMA ELISH.
The name DNYL is a male proper name.
The meaning is "EL is my judge". It
appears in the Ugaritic text,
The Tale of Aqhat.
SEE: James Pritchard in The Ancient Near East
(It says that Daniel in Ugarit means God judges).
You will find references under the key words DANIEL and UGARIT
(The Ugaritic religion appears to be the ancestral form of the religion
of the Israelites),
Hope thois helps. -- L.
If not why not?
I am really interested in finding out where the history errors are. I have
read a few things in Daniel that lead to other places in history.....not
recent. So I would really like to pinpoint the errors so I can get a
bearing.
I am asking because it is harad to find literature that "excuses" those
errors...if you know what I mean.
If I am slow to respond please dont think I have lost interest. I had an
accident at the end of January and even though I have healed remarkably fast
I do get twinges that lay me low for a day.
Four ribs broken in six places when a wayward motorcross bike hit me in the
back at a demonstration event.Still to be up and moving freely and off
medication in a little under three weeks...even my doctor called it a
miracle.
Mind you I would take broken ribs over collapsed lungs, ingrown toenails and
a C section any day<G>
So please keep a look out for me. I really need to know this stuff or any
reference you can give.
Diana
===>Check out ASIMOV'S GUIDE TO THE BIBLE.
.
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| User: "Diana Burgess" |
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| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
06 Apr 2004 02:26:08 AM |
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===>Check out ASIMOV'S GUIDE TO THE BIBLE.
Sorry, Lib. I didn't realize your conclusions weren't your own work.
I will check it out.
Diana
---
Outgoing mail is certified Virus Free.
Checked by AVG anti-virus system (http://www.grisoft.com).
Version: 6.0.650 / Virus Database: 416 - Release Date: 4/04/2004
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| User: "Libertarius" |
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| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
06 Apr 2004 05:26:49 PM |
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Diana Burgess wrote:
===>Check out ASIMOV'S GUIDE TO THE BIBLE.
Sorry, Lib. I didn't realize your conclusions weren't your own work.
I will check it out.
===>I hope you do.
Hopefully NO ONE'S conclusions are merely his/her own work! ;-) -- L.
.
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| User: "John Ings" |
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| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
06 Apr 2004 05:54:13 AM |
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On Sun, 4 Apr 2004 23:56:25 +1000, "Diana Burgess"
<nburgess@(nospam)powerup.com.au> wrote:
I am really interested in finding out where the history errors are. I have
read a few things in Daniel that lead to other places in history.....not
recent. So I would really like to pinpoint the errors so I can get a
bearing.
I am asking because it is harad to find literature that "excuses" those
errors...if you know what I mean.
So please keep a look out for me. I really need to know this stuff or any
reference you can give.
Diana
This is from Metzger & Coogan's Oxford Companion to the Bible-
[Oxford University Press 1993] See that work for the whole article.
"The strongest arguments for multiple authorship are these. First, the
literary style of chaps. 1-6 differs radically from that of chaps.
7-12. The former have all the flavor of heroic tales of the kind that
would emanate from courtly or wisdom circles (compare Daniel 2 with
the Joseph story and with Esther); the latter chapters belong to
that late descendant of prophetic eschatology, apocalyptic
literature. Second, the stories about Daniel in chapters 1-6 reflect a
diaspora outlook. By their language and their knowledge of cultural
details, they show considerable exposure to both Persian and
Hellenistic influences. In their essentials, these stories are assumed
to come from the third century BCE or even somewhat earlier. The
apocalypses of Daniel 7-12, on the other hand, focus on Judah,
Jerusalem, and the sanctuary. They can be dated rather more precisely
(see below) to the first quarter of the second century BCE. If they
were not composed by one writer who supplemented and revised the
earlier work several times during a period of two or three years, then
they were composed by persons working in close proximity in time and
place. The writer(s) of Daniel 7-12 knew of the earlier cycle of
Daniel stories, and for reasons of their own they used that collection
as a basis from which to extend its ministry into their own realm of
apocalyptic dreams and visions.
"Date. The book of Daniel is one of the few books of the Bible that
can be dated with precision. That dating makes it the latest of all
the books of the Hebrew Bible, and yet it is still early enough to
have been known by the sectarian community at Qumran, which flourished
between the second century BCE and 68 CE.
The lengthy apocalypse of Daniel 10-12 provides the best evidence
for date and authorship. This great review of the political maelstrom
of ancient Near Eastern politics swirling around the tiny Judean
community accurately portrays history from the rise of the Persian
empire down to a time somewhat after the desecration of the Jerusalem
Temple and the erection there of the "abomination that makes
desolate" (Dan. 11.31) in the late autumn of 167 BCE by the
Greco-Syrian king Antiochus IV Epiphanes. (The story of this first of
all pogroms of the Jews is told in 1 Macc. 1.41-61; see Maccabees,
The Books of the.) The portrayal is expressed as prophecy about the
future course of events, given by a seer in Babylonian captivity;
however, the prevailing scholarly opinion is that this is mostly
prophecy after the fact. Only from 11:39 onward does the historical
survey cease accurately to reproduce the events known
to have taken place in the latter years of the reign of Antiochus IV.
The most obvious explanation for this shift is that the point of the
writer's own lifetime had been reached. Had the writer known, for
example, about the success of the Jewish freedom fighters led by Judas
Maccabeus in driving the garrison of the hated Antiochus from the
temple precincts (an event that occurred on 25 Kislev, 164 BCE,
according to 1 Macc. 4:34-31 ), the fact would surely have been
mentioned. But evidently it had not yet happened!
The discussion of the date of the book of Daniel can be summed up as
follows. With the possible exception of minor glosses, the book
reached its present canonical form approximately in the middle of 164
BCE, though the translation of 1:1-2:4a and chaps. 8-12 from Aramaic
into Hebrew may have taken place later. One of the best pieces of
evidence available for the rapid acceptance of the book of Daniel as
scripture is the inclusion of Daniel and his three friends in the list
of the heroes of the Jewish faith in 1 Maccabees 2:59-60, thought to
have been written in Hebrew about 100 BCE. In contrast, in Ben Sira's
similar list (Sir. 44-49), written about 180 BCE, Daniel figures not
at all."
## Knowledge and history are the enemies of religion.
.
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| User: "Diana Burgess" |
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| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
10 Apr 2004 07:48:48 AM |
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"John Ings" <nodamned@spam.org> wrote in message
news:1r2570llchveud0aio72n5caq5136plmak@4ax.com...
On Sun, 4 Apr 2004 23:56:25 +1000, "Diana Burgess"
<nburgess@(nospam)powerup.com.au> wrote:
I am really interested in finding out where the history errors are. I
have
read a few things in Daniel that lead to other places in history.....not
recent. So I would really like to pinpoint the errors so I can get a
bearing.
I am asking because it is harad to find literature that "excuses" those
errors...if you know what I mean.
So please keep a look out for me. I really need to know this stuff or any
reference you can give.
Diana
This is from Metzger & Coogan's Oxford Companion to the Bible-
[Oxford University Press 1993] See that work for the whole article.
"The strongest arguments for multiple authorship are these. First, the
literary style of chaps. 1-6 differs radically from that of chaps.
7-12. The former have all the flavor of heroic tales of the kind that
would emanate from courtly or wisdom circles (compare Daniel 2 with
the Joseph story and with Esther); the latter chapters belong to
that late descendant of prophetic eschatology, apocalyptic
literature. Second, the stories about Daniel in chapters 1-6 reflect a
diaspora outlook. By their language and their knowledge of cultural
details, they show considerable exposure to both Persian and
Hellenistic influences.
I understood Daniel to be two books in one.That is the same book but written
in two different languages. One Hebrew the other Greek.
The Greek, from what I remember is the part that embellishes on the
prophecy. I seem to remember reading the scholars feel this would be because
Greek is a much more "informative" language.
In their essentials, these stories are assumed
to come from the third century BCE or even somewhat earlier. The
apocalypses of Daniel 7-12, on the other hand, focus on Judah,
Jerusalem, and the sanctuary.
Herein lies the problem. This is not an earthly sanctuary that is being
discussed.This is the sanctuary that is not of this world. God could care
less about earthly sanctuaries. Daniel is not about the Jewish temples
demise. Well not its demise anyway. But the abomination that makes desolate
may fit the temple.........
They can be dated rather more precisely
(see below) to the first quarter of the second century BCE. If they
were not composed by one writer who supplemented and revised the
earlier work several times during a period of two or three years, then
they were composed by persons working in close proximity in time and
place. The writer(s) of Daniel 7-12 knew of the earlier cycle of
Daniel stories, and for reasons of their own they used that collection
as a basis from which to extend its ministry into their own realm of
apocalyptic dreams and visions.
This seems to be when the Hebrew scripture was translated into Greek by 70
Jews in Alexandria.So maybe the book of Daniel was also translated then as
well.
And from my limited study of history,AFTER Antiochus Ephipanes, the rest of
history seems to fit well. If you are prepared to acknowledge that the vile
person may actually be Jewish,that is.
"Date. The book of Daniel is one of the few books of the Bible that
can be dated with precision. That dating makes it the latest of all
the books of the Hebrew Bible, and yet it is still early enough to
have been known by the sectarian community at Qumran, which flourished
between the second century BCE and 68 CE.
The lengthy apocalypse of Daniel 10-12 provides the best evidence
for date and authorship. This great review of the political maelstrom
of ancient Near Eastern politics swirling around the tiny Judean
community accurately portrays history from the rise of the Persian
empire down to a time somewhat after the desecration of the Jerusalem
Temple and the erection there of the "abomination that makes
desolate" (Dan. 11.31) in the late autumn of 167 BCE by the
Greco-Syrian king Antiochus IV Epiphanes. (The story of this first of
all pogroms of the Jews is told in 1 Macc. 1.41-61; see Maccabees,
The Books of the.) The portrayal is expressed as prophecy about the
future course of events, given by a seer in Babylonian captivity;
however, the prevailing scholarly opinion is that this is mostly
prophecy after the fact. Only from 11:39 onward does the historical
survey cease accurately to reproduce the events known
to have taken place in the latter years of the reign of Antiochus IV.
The most obvious explanation for this shift is that the point of the
writer's own lifetime had been reached. Had the writer known, for
example, about the success of the Jewish freedom fighters led by Judas
Maccabeus in driving the garrison of the hated Antiochus from the
temple precincts (an event that occurred on 25 Kislev, 164 BCE,
according to 1 Macc. 4:34-31 ), the fact would surely have been
mentioned. But evidently it had not yet happened!
Maybe( the Maccabee revolt) it never did happen........
Did they
" exalt themselves to establish the vision;"
A closer translation of this phrase......
"also the robbers of thy people " would be "sons of the violent ones of
your people"
So either the revolt never happened or the Maccabees choose to embelish it
to "exalt themselves."
Why is it not in Daniel well it is in that small verse?
also the robbers of thy people shall exalt themselves to establish the
vision; but they shall fall.
I have a longer response in the making if you are interested.
Diana
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| User: "Libertarius" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
10 Apr 2004 03:12:29 PM |
|
|
Diana Burgess wrote:
"John Ings" <nodamned@spam.org> wrote in message
news:1r2570llchveud0aio72n5caq5136plmak@4ax.com...
On Sun, 4 Apr 2004 23:56:25 +1000, "Diana Burgess"
<nburgess@(nospam)powerup.com.au> wrote:
I am really interested in finding out where the history errors are. I
have
read a few things in Daniel that lead to other places in history.....not
recent. So I would really like to pinpoint the errors so I can get a
bearing.
I am asking because it is harad to find literature that "excuses" those
errors...if you know what I mean.
So please keep a look out for me. I really need to know this stuff or any
reference you can give.
Diana
This is from Metzger & Coogan's Oxford Companion to the Bible-
[Oxford University Press 1993] See that work for the whole article.
"The strongest arguments for multiple authorship are these. First, the
literary style of chaps. 1-6 differs radically from that of chaps.
7-12. The former have all the flavor of heroic tales of the kind that
would emanate from courtly or wisdom circles (compare Daniel 2 with
the Joseph story and with Esther); the latter chapters belong to
that late descendant of prophetic eschatology, apocalyptic
literature. Second, the stories about Daniel in chapters 1-6 reflect a
diaspora outlook. By their language and their knowledge of cultural
details, they show considerable exposure to both Persian and
Hellenistic influences.
I understood Daniel to be two books in one.That is the same book but written
in two different languages. One Hebrew the other Greek.
The Greek, from what I remember is the part that embellishes on the
prophecy. I seem to remember reading the scholars feel this would be because
Greek is a much more "informative" language.
===>NONE of "DANIEL" was written in Greek.
Some parts of it were written in ARAMAIC, the language
spoken by the Jews after the Exile. -- L.
.
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| User: "Misty" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
11 Apr 2004 05:22:59 AM |
|
|
MY King James Concordance has it written in Hebrew and Chaldean.
King Nebuchadnezzar wrote his part in Chaldean while Daniel wrote in Hebrew.
I do not know what the added last 2 chapters were written in that is
Bell and the Dragon and the song of the holy children Chapters 13 and 14
respectively.
Misty,
Diana Burgess wrote:
"John Ings" <nodamned@spam.org> wrote in message
news:1r2570llchveud0aio72n5caq5136plmak@4ax.com...
On Sun, 4 Apr 2004 23:56:25 +1000, "Diana Burgess"
<nburgess@(nospam)powerup.com.au> wrote:
I am really interested in finding out where the history errors are. I
have
read a few things in Daniel that lead to other places in history.....not
recent. So I would really like to pinpoint the errors so I can get a
bearing.
I am asking because it is harad to find literature that "excuses" those
errors...if you know what I mean.
So please keep a look out for me. I really need to know this stuff or any
reference you can give.
Diana
This is from Metzger & Coogan's Oxford Companion to the Bible-
[Oxford University Press 1993] See that work for the whole article.
"The strongest arguments for multiple authorship are these. First, the
literary style of chaps. 1-6 differs radically from that of chaps.
7-12. The former have all the flavor of heroic tales of the kind that
would emanate from courtly or wisdom circles (compare Daniel 2 with
the Joseph story and with Esther); the latter chapters belong to
that late descendant of prophetic eschatology, apocalyptic
literature. Second, the stories about Daniel in chapters 1-6 reflect a
diaspora outlook. By their language and their knowledge of cultural
details, they show considerable exposure to both Persian and
Hellenistic influences.
I understood Daniel to be two books in one.That is the same book but written
in two different languages. One Hebrew the other Greek.
The Greek, from what I remember is the part that embellishes on the
prophecy. I seem to remember reading the scholars feel this would be because
Greek is a much more "informative" language.
In their essentials, these stories are assumed
to come from the third century BCE or even somewhat earlier. The
apocalypses of Daniel 7-12, on the other hand, focus on Judah,
Jerusalem, and the sanctuary.
Herein lies the problem. This is not an earthly sanctuary that is being
discussed.This is the sanctuary that is not of this world. God could care
less about earthly sanctuaries. Daniel is not about the Jewish temples
demise. Well not its demise anyway. But the abomination that makes desolate
may fit the temple.........
They can be dated rather more precisely
(see below) to the first quarter of the second century BCE. If they
were not composed by one writer who supplemented and revised the
earlier work several times during a period of two or three years, then
they were composed by persons working in close proximity in time and
place. The writer(s) of Daniel 7-12 knew of the earlier cycle of
Daniel stories, and for reasons of their own they used that collection
as a basis from which to extend its ministry into their own realm of
apocalyptic dreams and visions.
This seems to be when the Hebrew scripture was translated into Greek by 70
Jews in Alexandria.So maybe the book of Daniel was also translated then as
well.
And from my limited study of history,AFTER Antiochus Ephipanes, the rest of
history seems to fit well. If you are prepared to acknowledge that the vile
person may actually be Jewish,that is.
"Date. The book of Daniel is one of the few books of the Bible that
can be dated with precision. That dating makes it the latest of all
the books of the Hebrew Bible, and yet it is still early enough to
have been known by the sectarian community at Qumran, which flourished
between the second century BCE and 68 CE.
The lengthy apocalypse of Daniel 10-12 provides the best evidence
for date and authorship. This great review of the political maelstrom
of ancient Near Eastern politics swirling around the tiny Judean
community accurately portrays history from the rise of the Persian
empire down to a time somewhat after the desecration of the Jerusalem
Temple and the erection there of the "abomination that makes
desolate" (Dan. 11.31) in the late autumn of 167 BCE by the
Greco-Syrian king Antiochus IV Epiphanes. (The story of this first of
all pogroms of the Jews is told in 1 Macc. 1.41-61; see Maccabees,
The Books of the.) The portrayal is expressed as prophecy about the
future course of events, given by a seer in Babylonian captivity;
however, the prevailing scholarly opinion is that this is mostly
prophecy after the fact. Only from 11:39 onward does the historical
survey cease accurately to reproduce the events known
to have taken place in the latter years of the reign of Antiochus IV.
The most obvious explanation for this shift is that the point of the
writer's own lifetime had been reached. Had the writer known, for
example, about the success of the Jewish freedom fighters led by Judas
Maccabeus in driving the garrison of the hated Antiochus from the
temple precincts (an event that occurred on 25 Kislev, 164 BCE,
according to 1 Macc. 4:34-31 ), the fact would surely have been
mentioned. But evidently it had not yet happened!
Maybe( the Maccabee revolt) it never did happen........
Did they
" exalt themselves to establish the vision;"
A closer translation of this phrase......
"also the robbers of thy people " would be "sons of the violent ones of
your people"
So either the revolt never happened or the Maccabees choose to embelish it
to "exalt themselves."
Why is it not in Daniel well it is in that small verse?
also the robbers of thy people shall exalt themselves to establish the
vision; but they shall fall.
I have a longer response in the making if you are interested.
Diana
---
Outgoing mail is certified Virus Free.
Checked by AVG anti-virus system (http://www.grisoft.com).
Version: 6.0.655 / Virus Database: 420 - Release Date: 8/04/2004
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|
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|
| User: "Weatherwax" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
11 Apr 2004 03:19:26 PM |
|
|
"Misty" <""yardholler\"@Nospam,charter.net> wrote in message
news:107i6vsigi4u65@corp.supernews.com...
MY King James Concordance has it written in Hebrew
and Chaldean. King Nebuchadnezzar wrote his part in
Chaldean while Daniel wrote in Hebrew. I do not know
what the added last 2 chapters were written in that is
Bell and the Dragon and the song of the holy children
Chapters 13 and 14 respectively.
Misty,
The Prayer of Azariah, Susanna, and Bel and the Dragon are found
in the Greek Septuagint, but they are not Part of the Hebrew
Bible, and has been dropped out of Protestant Bibles. It is
unknown what language they were originally written in, but we
only have the Greek to translate from.
Nebuchadnezzer and Daniel did not write any of the book. It is a
2nd Century b.c. forgery.
--
Wax
.
|
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| User: "Pastor Dave" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
14 Apr 2004 07:24:49 AM |
|
|
On Sun, 11 Apr 2004 20:19:26 GMT, "Weatherwax"
<weatherwax@worldnet.net> spake thusly:
"Misty" <""yardholler\"@Nospam,charter.net> wrote in message
news:107i6vsigi4u65@corp.supernews.com...
MY King James Concordance has it written in Hebrew
and Chaldean. King Nebuchadnezzar wrote his part in
Chaldean while Daniel wrote in Hebrew. I do not know
what the added last 2 chapters were written in that is
Bell and the Dragon and the song of the holy children
Chapters 13 and 14 respectively.
Misty,
The Prayer of Azariah, Susanna, and Bel and the Dragon are found
in the Greek Septuagint, but they are not Part of the Hebrew
Bible, and has been dropped out of Protestant Bibles. It is
unknown what language they were originally written in, but we
only have the Greek to translate from.
Nebuchadnezzer and Daniel did not write any of the book. It is a
2nd Century b.c. forgery.
Daniel is not a forgery and to claim it is, requires
one to bring proof.
--
± Pastor Dave Raymond ±
"As for me, I have not hastened from being a pastor
to follow thee: neither have I desired the woeful day;
thou knowest: that which came out of my lips was right
before thee." - Jeremiah 17:16
WARNING: Exposure to the Son may prevent burning!
-----= Posted via Newsfeeds.Com, Uncensored Usenet News =-----
http://www.newsfeeds.com - The #1 Newsgroup Service in the World!
-----== Over 100,000 Newsgroups - 19 Different Servers! =-----
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|
|
|
| User: "Libertarius" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
20 Apr 2004 06:21:45 PM |
|
|
Pastor Dave wrote:
On Sun, 11 Apr 2004 20:19:26 GMT, "Weatherwax"
<weatherwax@worldnet.net> spake thusly:
"Misty" <""yardholler\"@Nospam,charter.net> wrote in message
news:107i6vsigi4u65@corp.supernews.com...
MY King James Concordance has it written in Hebrew
and Chaldean. King Nebuchadnezzar wrote his part in
Chaldean while Daniel wrote in Hebrew. I do not know
what the added last 2 chapters were written in that is
Bell and the Dragon and the song of the holy children
Chapters 13 and 14 respectively.
Misty,
The Prayer of Azariah, Susanna, and Bel and the Dragon are found
in the Greek Septuagint, but they are not Part of the Hebrew
Bible, and has been dropped out of Protestant Bibles. It is
unknown what language they were originally written in, but we
only have the Greek to translate from.
Nebuchadnezzer and Daniel did not write any of the book. It is a
2nd Century b.c. forgery.
Daniel is not a forgery and to claim it is, requires
one to bring proof.
===>Proof abounds.
You are just too scared to even consider it. -- L.
.
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| User: "Misty" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
13 Apr 2004 03:24:45 AM |
|
|
Weatherwax wrote:
"Misty" <""yardholler\"@Nospam,charter.net> wrote in message
news:107i6vsigi4u65@corp.supernews.com...
MY King James Concordance has it written in Hebrew
and Chaldean. King Nebuchadnezzar wrote his part in
Chaldean while Daniel wrote in Hebrew. I do not know
what the added last 2 chapters were written in that is
Bell and the Dragon and the song of the holy children
Chapters 13 and 14 respectively.
Misty,
The Prayer of Azariah, Susanna, and Bel and the Dragon are found
in the Greek Septuagint, but they are not Part of the Hebrew
Bible, and has been dropped out of Protestant Bibles. It is
unknown what language they were originally written in, but we
only have the Greek to translate from.
Nebuchadnezzer and Daniel did not write any of the book. It is a
2nd Century b.c. forgery.
--
Wax
Then please Prove it.
See Daniel chapter 4.
there you see the old King talking about himself and calling himself by
name in verse 4.
Misty,
.
|
|
|
| User: "Weatherwax" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
13 Apr 2004 01:15:20 PM |
|
|
"Misty" <""yardholler\"@Nospam,charter.net> wrote in message
news:107n8pr2l63pk26@corp.supernews.com...
Weatherwax wrote:
< CLIP >.
Nebuchadnezzer and Daniel did not write any of the book.
It is a 2nd Century b.c. forgery.
--
Wax
Then please Prove it.
See Daniel chapter 4.
there you see the old King talking about himself and
calling himself by name in verse 4.
Anybody can write under a false name.
The author of Daniel, while writing about events which took place
more than three hundred years before his time made numerous
historical orrors. We had already discussed the errors but I
will repeat some of them for you:
Verse 5:11 states that Nabuchadnezzar was Belshazzar's father.
But Belshazzar was not even a decendant of Nabuchadnezzar. He
was the son of Nabonidus who came to power through a palace
revolt. Belshazzar was only a co-ruler with Nabonidus.
Nowhere in Daniel is it indicated that Belshazzar is not the
sole monarch.
Daniel 5:30:31 refers to Belshzzar as a Chaldean King. He
wasn't. Nebonidus had overthrown the Chaldean rule.
Who was "Darius the Mede"?
Daniel 5:30-31
And in that very night Belshazzar, the Babylonian king,
was killed. 5:31 So Darius the Mede took control of
the kingdom when he was about sixty-two years old.
We know of three Darius', but they were Persians, not
Medes. And they came after Cyrus. Not before.
The fact is that Nabonidus was followed by Cyrus. One account
says that Nabonidus died the same day that Babylon fell to the
Persians, and another record says that he was executed two months
later. Either way, there could not have been a "Darius the Mede"
in between the rule of Nabonidus and Cyrus.
In fact, the Medes never ruled Babylon, and their empire had
ceased to exist sixteen years before Cyrus took Babylon.
I had also posted the following excerpts from "The Interpreter's
Dictionary of the Bible" Abingdon Press, Vol. 1. It explains
why the writing of Daniel is placed in the mid 2nd century b.c.e.
-------------------------------------
The author is apparently aware that his work will not circulate
until long after the times of which he is writing, for in 12:9 an
angel commands that the revelation to Daniel is to be kept secret
until the "time of the end." This means that the period at which
the book was allowed to circulate was evidently thought by
someone to be the "time of the end." The possibilities are
therefore two: (a) that the composition of the book is
contemporary with the events it narrates and has been hidden away
in some esoteric group and that under the impression that the
time of the second century B.C. was the decisive period with
which the book is concerned; it was published in the first half
of that century; (b) that it was written in the second century
B.C. under the guise of being composed some four hundred years
earlier. We may note that if (a) is the right view, then the
peculiar pertinence of the book to the second century B.C. was
recognized at that time, so that by far the oldest testimony we
have to the significance of the book relates it firmly to the
events of the second century; and that if, on the other hand, (b)
is correct, then again we are led to the second century B.C. as
the period against which the book is to be set if its
significance is to be grasped. Either way, the events of Jewish
history from 180 B.C. onward are of the greatest importance for
the understanding of the book. (pg 765)
The author knows about the "abomination that makes desolate," and
if the book is not prophecy, then his knowledge must arise from
the fact that the setting up of the altar has already taken
place; but he makes several estimates of the duration of the
cessation of sacrifice, which therefore has not yet been resumed.
Therefore, he wrote between December 17(?), 167 (I Macc. 1:54),
and the corresponding date in 164 (I Macc. 4:52). Further, in
11:22-45 he records the history of Antiochus' reign, including
the persecution, and the revolt of Judas (the "little help" of
vs. 34), but at vs. 40 a third and successful campaign by
Anticochus Epiphanes against Egypt is recorded and then his death
in the Holy Land itself. As there was no third such campaign,
and as Antiochus died in the East, we may take it that history
passes into prophecy at vs. 40 and that this point is the moment
of the writer's own date--after Judas' revolt and before
Antiochus' death (i.e., between 166-165 B.C. (page 767)
_______________________
--
Wax
.
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| User: "Pastor Dave" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
14 Apr 2004 07:37:02 AM |
|
|
On Tue, 13 Apr 2004 18:15:20 GMT, "Weatherwax"
<weatherwax@worldnet.net> spake thusly:
"Misty" <""yardholler\"@Nospam,charter.net> wrote in message
news:107n8pr2l63pk26@corp.supernews.com...
Weatherwax wrote:
< CLIP >.
Nebuchadnezzer and Daniel did not write any of the book.
It is a 2nd Century b.c. forgery.
--
Wax
Then please Prove it.
See Daniel chapter 4.
there you see the old King talking about himself and
calling himself by name in verse 4.
Anybody can write under a false name.
The author of Daniel, while writing about events which took place
more than three hundred years before his time made numerous
historical orrors. We had already discussed the errors but I
will repeat some of them for you:
Verse 5:11 states that Nabuchadnezzar was Belshazzar's father.
But Belshazzar was not even a decendant of Nabuchadnezzar. He
was the son of Nabonidus who came to power through a palace
revolt. Belshazzar was only a co-ruler with Nabonidus.
Nowhere in Daniel is it indicated that Belshazzar is not the
sole monarch.
That's, "Nebuchadnezzar", not, "Nabuchadnezzar". As
for your claim, it was argued previously, that
Belshazzar didn't exist at all, so what's your point?
This is just one more false attack by those who hate
God.
Daniel 5:30:31 refers to Belshzzar as a Chaldean King. He
wasn't. Nebonidus had overthrown the Chaldean rule.
Who was "Darius the Mede"?
Daniel 5:30-31
And in that very night Belshazzar, the Babylonian king,
was killed. 5:31 So Darius the Mede took control of
the kingdom when he was about sixty-two years old.
We know of three Darius', but they were Persians, not
Medes. And they came after Cyrus. Not before.
The fact is that Nabonidus was followed by Cyrus. One account
says that Nabonidus died the same day that Babylon fell to the
Persians, and another record says that he was executed two months
later. Either way, there could not have been a "Darius the Mede"
in between the rule of Nabonidus and Cyrus.
In fact, the Medes never ruled Babylon, and their empire had
ceased to exist sixteen years before Cyrus took Babylon.
I had also posted the following excerpts from "The Interpreter's
Dictionary of the Bible" Abingdon Press, Vol. 1. It explains
why the writing of Daniel is placed in the mid 2nd century b.c.e.
-------------------------------------
The author is apparently aware that his work will not circulate
until long after the times of which he is writing, for in 12:9 an
angel commands that the revelation to Daniel is to be kept secret
until the "time of the end." This means that the period at which
the book was allowed to circulate was evidently thought by
someone to be the "time of the end." The possibilities are
therefore two: (a) that the composition of the book is
contemporary with the events it narrates and has been hidden away
in some esoteric group and that under the impression that the
time of the second century B.C. was the decisive period with
which the book is concerned; it was published in the first half
of that century; (b) that it was written in the second century
B.C. under the guise of being composed some four hundred years
earlier. We may note that if (a) is the right view, then the
peculiar pertinence of the book to the second century B.C. was
recognized at that time, so that by far the oldest testimony we
have to the significance of the book relates it firmly to the
events of the second century; and that if, on the other hand, (b)
is correct, then again we are led to the second century B.C. as
the period against which the book is to be set if its
significance is to be grasped. Either way, the events of Jewish
history from 180 B.C. onward are of the greatest importance for
the understanding of the book. (pg 765)
The author knows about the "abomination that makes desolate," and
if the book is not prophecy, then his knowledge must arise from
the fact that the setting up of the altar has already taken
place; but he makes several estimates of the duration of the
cessation of sacrifice, which therefore has not yet been resumed.
Therefore, he wrote between December 17(?), 167 (I Macc. 1:54),
and the corresponding date in 164 (I Macc. 4:52). Further, in
11:22-45 he records the history of Antiochus' reign, including
the persecution, and the revolt of Judas (the "little help" of
vs. 34), but at vs. 40 a third and successful campaign by
Anticochus Epiphanes against Egypt is recorded and then his death
in the Holy Land itself. As there was no third such campaign,
and as Antiochus died in the East, we may take it that history
passes into prophecy at vs. 40 and that this point is the moment
of the writer's own date--after Judas' revolt and before
Antiochus' death (i.e., between 166-165 B.C. (page 767)
_______________________
These comments of yours and others, come from a lack of
understanding of the Old Testament times and the manner
of life and the writings styles of the people at that
time.
http://www.tektonics.org/tekton_05_05_01.html#bels
--
± Pastor Dave Raymond ±
"As for me, I have not hastened from being a pastor
to follow thee: neither have I desired the woeful day;
thou knowest: that which came out of my lips was right
before thee." - Jeremiah 17:16
Read the bible. It's user-friendly plus we offer
tech support here on Sundays.
-----= Posted via Newsfeeds.Com, Uncensored Usenet News =-----
http://www.newsfeeds.com - The #1 Newsgroup Service in the World!
-----== Over 100,000 Newsgroups - 19 Different Servers! =-----
.
|
|
|
| User: "Libertarius" |
|
| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
20 Apr 2004 06:38:25 PM |
|
|
Pastor Dave wrote:
On Tue, 13 Apr 2004 18:15:20 GMT, "Weatherwax"
<weatherwax@worldnet.net> spake thusly:
"Misty" <""yardholler\"@Nospam,charter.net> wrote in message
news:107n8pr2l63pk26@corp.supernews.com...
Weatherwax wrote:
< CLIP >.
Nebuchadnezzer and Daniel did not write any of the book.
It is a 2nd Century b.c. forgery.
--
Wax
Then please Prove it.
See Daniel chapter 4.
there you see the old King talking about himself and
calling himself by name in verse 4.
Anybody can write under a false name.
The author of Daniel, while writing about events which took place
more than three hundred years before his time made numerous
historical orrors. We had already discussed the errors but I
will repeat some of them for you:
Verse 5:11 states that Nabuchadnezzar was Belshazzar's father.
But Belshazzar was not even a decendant of Nabuchadnezzar. He
was the son of Nabonidus who came to power through a palace
revolt. Belshazzar was only a co-ruler with Nabonidus.
Nowhere in Daniel is it indicated that Belshazzar is not the
sole monarch.
That's, "Nebuchadnezzar", not, "Nabuchadnezzar". As
for your claim, it was argued previously, that
Belshazzar didn't exist at all, so what's your point?
This is just one more false attack by those who hate
God
===>INANE reply!
1. If you wish to pick nits, the Bible's
"Nabuchadnezzar" is incorrect, for it should
be Nabuchadrezzar or better yet,
Nabu-Kuduru-Usur.
2. Whatever "was argued previously" is irrelevant.
It was ACCURATELY sated that
"Verse 5:11 states that
Nabuchadnezzar was Belshazzar's father.
But Belshazzar was not even a decendant of Nabuchadnezzar. He
was the son of Nabonidus who came to power through a palace
revolt."
To which you simly give a sneaky reply to change the subject.
It obviously was NOT said in the message you were attempting
to answer.
3. Finally, there you go with that final escape of the
cornered ignoramus: that it is just an
"attack by those who hate God".
The fact is there are many THEISTIC SCHOLARS,
i.e. BELIEVERS, who do NOT "hate God",
who have agreed that the book DANIEL was NOT written
by the man it is attributed to, nor at the time it is claimed
top have been written.
For you anyone who does not believe the nonsense you
believe is automatically one who "hates God".
Which is ASININE!
Daniel 5:30:31 refers to Belshzzar as a Chaldean King. He
wasn't. Nebonidus had overthrown the Chaldean rule.
Who was "Darius the Mede"?
Daniel 5:30-31
And in that very night Belshazzar, the Babylonian king,
was killed. 5:31 So Darius the Mede took control of
the kingdom when he was about sixty-two years old.
We know of three Darius', but they were Persians, not
Medes. And they came after Cyrus. Not before.
The fact is that Nabonidus was followed by Cyrus. One account
says that Nabonidus died the same day that Babylon fell to the
Persians, and another record says that he was executed two months
later. Either way, there could not have been a "Darius the Mede"
in between the rule of Nabonidus and Cyrus.
In fact, the Medes never ruled Babylon, and their empire had
ceased to exist sixteen years before Cyrus took Babylon.
I had also posted the following excerpts from "The Interpreter's
Dictionary of the Bible" Abingdon Press, Vol. 1. It explains
why the writing of Daniel is placed in the mid 2nd century b.c.e.
-------------------------------------
The author is apparently aware that his work will not circulate
until long after the times of which he is writing, for in 12:9 an
angel commands that the revelation to Daniel is to be kept secret
until the "time of the end." This means that the period at which
the book was allowed to circulate was evidently thought by
someone to be the "time of the end." The possibilities are
therefore two: (a) that the composition of the book is
contemporary with the events it narrates and has been hidden away
in some esoteric group and that under the impression that the
time of the second century B.C. was the decisive period with
which the book is concerned; it was published in the first half
of that century; (b) that it was written in the second century
B.C. under the guise of being composed some four hundred years
earlier. We may note that if (a) is the right view, then the
peculiar pertinence of the book to the second century B.C. was
recognized at that time, so that by far the oldest testimony we
have to the significance of the book relates it firmly to the
events of the second century; and that if, on the other hand, (b)
is correct, then again we are led to the second century B.C. as
the period against which the book is to be set if its
significance is to be grasped. Either way, the events of Jewish
history from 180 B.C. onward are of the greatest importance for
the understanding of the book. (pg 765)
The author knows about the "abomination that makes desolate," and
if the book is not prophecy, then his knowledge must arise from
the fact that the setting up of the altar has already taken
place; but he makes several estimates of the duration of the
cessation of sacrifice, which therefore has not yet been resumed.
Therefore, he wrote between December 17(?), 167 (I Macc. 1:54),
and the corresponding date in 164 (I Macc. 4:52). Further, in
11:22-45 he records the history of Antiochus' reign, including
the persecution, and the revolt of Judas (the "little help" of
vs. 34), but at vs. 40 a third and successful campaign by
Anticochus Epiphanes against Egypt is recorded and then his death
in the Holy Land itself. As there was no third such campaign,
and as Antiochus died in the East, we may take it that history
passes into prophecy at vs. 40 and that this point is the moment
of the writer's own date--after Judas' revolt and before
Antiochus' death (i.e., between 166-165 B.C. (page 767)
_______________________
These comments of yours and others, come from a lack of
understanding of the Old Testament times and the manner
of life and the writings styles of the people at that
time.
http://www.tektonics.org/tekton_05_05_01.html#bels
--
± Pastor Dave Raymond ±
"As for me, I have not hastened from being a pastor
to follow thee: neither have I desired the woeful day;
thou knowest: that which came out of my lips was right
before thee." - Jeremiah 17:16
Read the bible. It's user-friendly plus we offer
tech support here on Sundays.
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| User: "Pastor Dave" |
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| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
14 Apr 2004 02:26:53 PM |
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On Tue, 13 Apr 2004 18:15:20 GMT, "Weatherwax"
<weatherwax@worldnet.net> spake thusly:
"Misty" <""yardholler\"@Nospam,charter.net> wrote in message
news:107n8pr2l63pk26@corp.supernews.com...
Weatherwax wrote:
< CLIP >.
Nebuchadnezzer and Daniel did not write any of the book.
It is a 2nd Century b.c. forgery.
--
Wax
Then please Prove it.
See Daniel chapter 4.
there you see the old King talking about himself and
calling himself by name in verse 4.
Anybody can write under a false name.
The author of Daniel, while writing about events which took place
more than three hundred years before his time made numerous
historical orrors. We had already discussed the errors but I
will repeat some of them for you:
Verse 5:11 states that Nabuchadnezzar was Belshazzar's father.
But Belshazzar was not even a decendant of Nabuchadnezzar. He
was the son of Nabonidus who came to power through a palace
revolt. Belshazzar was only a co-ruler with Nabonidus.
Nowhere in Daniel is it indicated that Belshazzar is not the
sole monarch.
That's, "Nebuchadnezzar", not, "Nabuchadnezzar". As
for your claim, it was argued previously, that
Belshazzar didn't exist at all, so what's your point?
This is just one more false attack by those who hate
God.
Daniel 5:30:31 refers to Belshzzar as a Chaldean King. He
wasn't. Nebonidus had overthrown the Chaldean rule.
Who was "Darius the Mede"?
Daniel 5:30-31
And in that very night Belshazzar, the Babylonian king,
was killed. 5:31 So Darius the Mede took control of
the kingdom when he was about sixty-two years old.
We know of three Darius', but they were Persians, not
Medes. And they came after Cyrus. Not before.
The fact is that Nabonidus was followed by Cyrus. One account
says that Nabonidus died the same day that Babylon fell to the
Persians, and another record says that he was executed two months
later. Either way, there could not have been a "Darius the Mede"
in between the rule of Nabonidus and Cyrus.
In fact, the Medes never ruled Babylon, and their empire had
ceased to exist sixteen years before Cyrus took Babylon.
I had also posted the following excerpts from "The Interpreter's
Dictionary of the Bible" Abingdon Press, Vol. 1. It explains
why the writing of Daniel is placed in the mid 2nd century b.c.e.
-------------------------------------
The author is apparently aware that his work will not circulate
until long after the times of which he is writing, for in 12:9 an
angel commands that the revelation to Daniel is to be kept secret
until the "time of the end." This means that the period at which
the book was allowed to circulate was evidently thought by
someone to be the "time of the end." The possibilities are
therefore two: (a) that the composition of the book is
contemporary with the events it narrates and has been hidden away
in some esoteric group and that under the impression that the
time of the second century B.C. was the decisive period with
which the book is concerned; it was published in the first half
of that century; (b) that it was written in the second century
B.C. under the guise of being composed some four hundred years
earlier. We may note that if (a) is the right view, then the
peculiar pertinence of the book to the second century B.C. was
recognized at that time, so that by far the oldest testimony we
have to the significance of the book relates it firmly to the
events of the second century; and that if, on the other hand, (b)
is correct, then again we are led to the second century B.C. as
the period against which the book is to be set if its
significance is to be grasped. Either way, the events of Jewish
history from 180 B.C. onward are of the greatest importance for
the understanding of the book. (pg 765)
The author knows about the "abomination that makes desolate," and
if the book is not prophecy, then his knowledge must arise from
the fact that the setting up of the altar has already taken
place; but he makes several estimates of the duration of the
cessation of sacrifice, which therefore has not yet been resumed.
Therefore, he wrote between December 17(?), 167 (I Macc. 1:54),
and the corresponding date in 164 (I Macc. 4:52). Further, in
11:22-45 he records the history of Antiochus' reign, including
the persecution, and the revolt of Judas (the "little help" of
vs. 34), but at vs. 40 a third and successful campaign by
Anticochus Epiphanes against Egypt is recorded and then his death
in the Holy Land itself. As there was no third such campaign,
and as Antiochus died in the East, we may take it that history
passes into prophecy at vs. 40 and that this point is the moment
of the writer's own date--after Judas' revolt and before
Antiochus' death (i.e., between 166-165 B.C. (page 767)
_______________________
These comments of yours and others, come from my lack of
understanding of anything but the Old Testament times and the manner
of life and the writings styles of the people at that
time.
http://www.tektonics.org/tekton_05_05_01.html#bels
--
± Pastor Dave ±
"As for me, I have not hastened from being a pastor
to follow thee: neither have I desired the woeful day;
thou knowest: that which came out of my lips was right
before thee." - Jeremiah 17:16
.
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| User: "John Ings" |
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| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
10 Apr 2004 12:38:56 PM |
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On Sat, 10 Apr 2004 22:48:48 +1000, "Diana Burgess"
<nburgess@(nospam)powerup.com.au> wrote:
I understood Daniel to be two books in one.That is the same book but written
in two different languages. One Hebrew the other Greek.
No, the original was in Hebrew and Aramaic.
The Greek, from what I remember is the part that embellishes on the
prophecy. I seem to remember reading the scholars feel this would be because
Greek is a much more "informative" language.
The Greek (Septuagint translation) of Daniel is considerably longer
than the one you find in modern bibles. It includes additions such as
the Prayer of Azariah, the Song of the Three Young Men, Susannah and
the Elders, and Bel and the Dragon.
In their essentials, these stories are assumed
to come from the third century BCE or even somewhat earlier. The
apocalypses of Daniel 7-12, on the other hand, focus on Judah,
Jerusalem, and the sanctuary.
Herein lies the problem. This is not an earthly sanctuary that is being
discussed.
It certainly is. Daniel was written for 2nd century BCE Judeans, not
future generations. It's about politics as much as it is about
religion.
This is the sanctuary that is not of this world. God could care
less about earthly sanctuaries. Daniel is not about the Jewish temples
demise. Well not its demise anyway.
You're reading Daniel out of context.
They can be dated rather more precisely
(see below) to the first quarter of the second century BCE. If they
were not composed by one writer who supplemented and revised the
earlier work several times during a period of two or three years, then
they were composed by persons working in close proximity in time and
place. The writer(s) of Daniel 7-12 knew of the earlier cycle of
Daniel stories, and for reasons of their own they used that collection
as a basis from which to extend its ministry into their own realm of
apocalyptic dreams and visions.
This seems to be when the Hebrew scripture was translated into Greek by 70
Jews in Alexandria.
That 70 translators (LXX) business is a myth. Translation of the
Hebrew scriptures into the Greek (Septuagint) began around 200 BCE and
proceeded gradually for the next couple of centuries. It was done with
varying degrees of accuracy by various translators in various places.
So maybe the book of Daniel was also translated then as well.
And added to and embellished. But that's not the version you find in
your King James or NRSV.
And from my limited study of history,AFTER Antiochus Ephipanes, the rest of
history seems to fit well.
From Daniel 11.39 the 'prophecy' goes completely wrong, because from
there on it is a genuine attempt at prophecy.
If you are prepared to acknowledge that the vile
person may actually be Jewish,that is.
What vile person?
"Date. The book of Daniel is one of the few books of the Bible that
can be dated with precision. That dating makes it the latest of all
the books of the Hebrew Bible, and yet it is still early enough to
have been known by the sectarian community at Qumran, which flourished
between the second century BCE and 68 CE.
The lengthy apocalypse of Daniel 10-12 provides the best evidence
for date and authorship. This great review of the political maelstrom
of ancient Near Eastern politics swirling around the tiny Judean
community accurately portrays history from the rise of the Persian
empire down to a time somewhat after the desecration of the Jerusalem
Temple and the erection there of the "abomination that makes
desolate" (Dan. 11.31) in the late autumn of 167 BCE by the
Greco-Syrian king Antiochus IV Epiphanes. (The story of this first of
all pogroms of the Jews is told in 1 Macc. 1.41-61; see Maccabees,
The Books of the.) The portrayal is expressed as prophecy about the
future course of events, given by a seer in Babylonian captivity;
however, the prevailing scholarly opinion is that this is mostly
prophecy after the fact. Only from 11:39 onward does the historical
survey cease accurately to reproduce the events known
to have taken place in the latter years of the reign of Antiochus IV.
The most obvious explanation for this shift is that the point of the
writer's own lifetime had been reached. Had the writer known, for
example, about the success of the Jewish freedom fighters led by Judas
Maccabeus in driving the garrison of the hated Antiochus from the
temple precincts (an event that occurred on 25 Kislev, 164 BCE,
according to 1 Macc. 4:34-31 ), the fact would surely have been
mentioned. But evidently it had not yet happened!
Maybe( the Maccabee revolt) it never did happen........
But it did. That's confirmed by history. From 164 to 63 BCE the
Judea was an independent state ruled by leaders from the family of
Judas Maccabeus. This ended when the Romans took control of the
country in 63 BCE
Did they " exalt themselves to establish the vision;"
All rulers exhalt themselves.
## You can twist perceptions, but reality won't budge!
.
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| User: "Libertarius" |
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| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
10 Apr 2004 03:23:26 PM |
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John Ings wrote:
On Sat, 10 Apr 2004 22:48:48 +1000, "Diana Burgess"
<nburgess@(nospam)powerup.com.au> wrote:
I understood Daniel to be two books in one.That is the same book but written
in two different languages. One Hebrew the other Greek.
No, the original was in Hebrew and Aramaic.
The Greek, from what I remember is the part that embellishes on the
prophecy. I seem to remember reading the scholars feel this would be because
Greek is a much more "informative" language.
The Greek (Septuagint translation) of Daniel is considerably longer
than the one you find in modern bibles. It includes additions such as
the Prayer of Azariah, the Song of the Three Young Men, Susannah and
the Elders, and Bel and the Dragon.
===>The original "DANIEL" also contains both Hebrew and Aramaic.
In their essentials, these stories are assumed
to come from the third century BCE or even somewhat earlier. The
apocalypses of Daniel 7-12, on the other hand, focus on Judah,
Jerusalem, and the sanctuary.
Herein lies the problem. This is not an earthly sanctuary that is being
discussed.
It certainly is. Daniel was written for 2nd century BCE Judeans, not
future generations. It's about politics as much as it is about
religion.
===>Christians like to "spiritualize" the "Old Testament:", otherwise
much of it makes no sense for them.
E.g. the reinterpret the "New Covenant" to mean something between
"GOD" and the GENTILES like themselves, even though the promise
of the "New Covenant" (Jeremiah 31) was for and about JEWS. -- L.
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| User: "Pastor Dave" |
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| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
02 Apr 2004 06:36:22 AM |
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On Fri, 2 Apr 2004 20:56:25 +1000, "Diana Burgess"
<nburgess@(nospam)powerup.com.au> spake thusly:
"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:406CD8B5.713CA5B8@Nothing_But_The.Truth...
Diana Burgess wrote:
===>Funny question.
Since when are dates attached to books?
Well then how can anyone prove when Daniel was written?
===>By analyzing the content of the book in its historical context.
But this doesn't make sense.
You say that it does not follow correct historical events.
If the history is wrong then it cannot have been written after.
This is not proof of when Daniel was written.
Who writes a history book then tries to make it look like prophecy written
before the events then GETS IT WRONG???
<laugh> :)
--
± Pastor Dave Raymond ±
"As for me, I have not hastened from being a pastor
to follow thee: neither have I desired the woeful day;
thou knowest: that which came out of my lips was right
before thee." - Jeremiah 17:16
Read an amazing book! it's called; "The Evolution
of a Creationist", by Jobe Martin.
Buy it at: http://tinyurl.com/hq7k
Or read it online at: http://tinyurl.com/hq7q
-----= Posted via Newsfeeds.Com, Uncensored Usenet News =-----
http://www.newsfeeds.com - The #1 Newsgroup Service in the World!
-----== Over 100,000 Newsgroups - 19 Different Servers! =-----
.
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| User: "Libertarius" |
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| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
02 Apr 2004 11:17:06 AM |
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Pastor Dave wrote:
On Fri, 2 Apr 2004 20:56:25 +1000, "Diana Burgess"
<nburgess@(nospam)powerup.com.au> spake thusly:
"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:406CD8B5.713CA5B8@Nothing_But_The.Truth...
Diana Burgess wrote:
===>Funny question.
Since when are dates attached to books?
Well then how can anyone prove when Daniel was written?
===>By analyzing the content of the book in its historical context.
But this doesn't make sense.
You say that it does not follow correct historical events.
If the history is wrong then it cannot have been written after.
This is not proof of when Daniel was written.
Who writes a history book then tries to make it look like prophecy written
before the events then GETS IT WRONG???
<laugh> :)
===>Yes, the question is laughable.
NO ONE writes such a "history book".
But "DANIEL" is tendentious propaganda, not history.
The only items historically accurate are those referring to
the second century BCE, i.e. the time when the book
was written.
.
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| User: "Weatherwax" |
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| Title: Re: BOOK OF DANIEL |
02 Apr 2004 01:11:26 PM |
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"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in
< CLIP >
===>Yes, the question is laughable.
NO ONE writes such a "history book".
But "DANIEL" is tendentious propaganda, not history.
The only items historically accurate are those referring to
the second century BCE, i.e. the time when the book
was written.
Here are excerpts on the subject from "The Interpreter's
Dictionary of the Bible" Abingdon Press, Vol. 1
I hope this answers Diana's question about how we know when the
book was written.
-------------------------------------
The author is apparently aware that his work will not circulate
until long after the times of which he is writing, for in 12:9 an
angel commands that the revelation to Daniel is to be kept secret
until the "time of the end." This means that the period at which
the book was allowed to circulate was evidently thought by
someone to be the "time of the end." The possibilities are
therefore two: (a) that the composition of the book is
contemporary with the events it narrates and has been hidden away
in some esoteric group and that under the impression that the
time of the second century B.C. was the decisive period with
which the book is concerned; it was published in the first half
of that century; (b) that it was written in the second century
B.C. under the guise of being composed some four hundred years
earlier. We may note that if (a) is the right view, then the
peculiar pertinence of the book to the second century B.C. was
recognized at that time, so that by far the oldest testimony we
have to the significance of the book relates it firmly to the
events of the second century; and that if, on the other hand, (b)
is correct, then again we are led to the second century B.C. as
the period against which the book is to be set if its
significance is to be grasped. Either way, the events of Jewish
history from 180 B.C. onward are of the greatest importance for
the understanding of the book. (pg 765)
The author knows about the "abomination that makes desolate," and
if the book is not prophecy, then his knowledge must arise from
the fact that the setting up of the altar has already taken
place; but he makes several estimates of the duration of the
cessation of sacrifice, which therefore has not yet been resumed.
Therefore, he wrote between December 17(?), 167 (I Macc. 1:54),
and the corresponding date in 164 (I Macc. 4:52). Further, in
11:22-45 he records the history of Antiochus' reign, including
the persecution, and the revolt of Judas (the "little help" of
vs. 34), but at vs. 40 a third and successful campaign by
Anticochus Epiphanes against Egypt is recorded and then his death
in the Holy Land itself. As there was no third such campaign,
and as Antiochus died in the East, we may take it that history
passes into prophecy at vs. 40 and that this point is the moment
of the writer's own date--after Judas' revolt and before
Antiochus' death (i.e., between 166-165 B.C. (page 767)
_______________________
--
Wax
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