Matt. wrote:

1 Corinthians 14:34 (New International Version)
New International Version (NIV)
Copyright © 1973, 1978, 1984 by International Bible Society


34 women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to
speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says.

1 Timothy 2 (New International Version)
11 A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. 12 I do not
permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be
silent. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not
the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a
sinner. 15 But women[a] will be saved[b] through childbearing—if they
continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety.


1 Corinthians 14:33-35 (New International Version)
New International Version (NIV)

33 For God is not a God of disorder but of peace.
As in all the congregations of the saints, 34 women should
remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must
be in submission, as the Law says. 35 If they want to inquire about
something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is
disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church

Many on here Alt.Christnet.Christianlife seem to say to take the
Bible literally when it fits their purpose. Well what about the
above.

12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man;
she must be silent.

By this Vera has no authority over any man.

Please explain if I am wrong.

Matt

http://home.comcast.net/~ac-christianlife/

Yes, you are wrong. Dead wrong.

The problem stems from an intentional mistranslation of the words that
get rendered as "woman" and "man". they can, and should be rendered
"wife" and "husband". The context of verse 12, as you can see in verse
11, talks about subjection to a husband.

Thus, it is not a prohibition against women teachers in the church. The
context is one of Paul dealing with roles in marriage. The woman is not
to “wear the pants” in the family. Women otherwise are open to all
ministerial positions in the church with the one exception of being
married pastors, which would place them in spiritual authority over
their husbands. Even so, it would not be 100% impossible for God to call
a woman to that role (consider Deborah, prophetess of Israel, who would
have had spiritual authority over her husband), but it would be unusual.

Also Phoebe, who brought the epistle to the Romans, would have read and
explained--i.e. "taught men"--the document, and what Paul meant in
various pasages. In fact, the custom of the time was to have the writer
read the document to the messenger, with the messanger noting the vocal
tones of the writer. The messenger would then take the document to the
audience, repeating the author's tone--whether serious, angry, happy,
etc.--to the recipients of the document.

Also, in the one example in the NT we do have of a woman teaching, the
woman happens to be Pricilla, who teaches Apollos--a man.

So that's the answer to your question: get rid of the mistranslation of
two words, and note what that passage is talking about in context, and
you'll see it is NOT talking about women teaching men, but wives being
in authority over their husbands.

Matt. wrote:

1 Corinthians 14:34 (New International Version)
New International Version (NIV)
Copyright © 1973, 1978, 1984 by International Bible Society


34 women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to
speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says.

1 Timothy 2 (New International Version)
11 A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. 12 I do not
permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be
silent. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not
the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a
sinner. 15 But women[a] will be saved[b] through childbearing—if they
continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety.


1 Corinthians 14:33-35 (New International Version)
New International Version (NIV)

33 For God is not a God of disorder but of peace.
As in all the congregations of the saints, 34 women should
remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must
be in submission, as the Law says. 35 If they want to inquire about
something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is
disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church

Many on here Alt.Christnet.Christianlife seem to say to take the
Bible literally when it fits their purpose. Well what about the
above.

12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man;
she must be silent.

By this Vera has no authority over any man.

Please explain if I am wrong.

Matt

http://home.comcast.net/~ac-christianlife/

Yes, you are wrong. Dead wrong.

The problem stems from an intentional mistranslation of the words that
get rendered as "woman" and "man". they can, and should be rendered
"wife" and "husband". The context of verse 12, as you can see in verse
11, talks about subjection to a husband.

Thus, it is not a prohibition against women teachers in the church. The
context is one of Paul dealing with roles in marriage. The woman is not
to “wear the pants” in the family. Women otherwise are open to all
ministerial positions in the church with the one exception of being
married pastors, which would place them in spiritual authority over
their husbands. Even so, it would not be 100% impossible for God to call
a woman to that role (consider Deborah, prophetess of Israel, who would
have had spiritual authority over her husband), but it would be unusual.

Also Phoebe, who brought the epistle to the Romans, would have read and
explained--i.e. "taught men"--the document, and what Paul meant in
various pasages. In fact, the custom of the time was to have the writer
read the document to the messenger, with the messanger noting the vocal
tones of the writer. The messenger would then take the document to the
audience, repeating the author's tone--whether serious, angry, happy,
etc.--to the recipients of the document.

Also, in the one example in the NT we do have of a woman teaching, the
woman happens to be Pricilla, who teaches Apollos--a man.

So that's the answer to your question: get rid of the mistranslation of
two words, and note what that passage is talking about in context, and
you'll see it is NOT talking about women teaching men, but wives being
in authority over their husbands.