The Bible Vs. The Traditional View of Hell

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Topic:	Religions > Bible
User:	"Noahs Dove"
Date:	01 Jan 2008 11:23:16 PM
Object:	The Bible Vs. The Traditional View of Hell

The Bible Vs. The Traditional View of Hell
Last Revised: September 29, 2007
by: Babu G. Ranganathan
(B.A. Bible/Biology)
*All Scripture quotations are from the King James Version of the
Bible.
copyright 1993, 1997: Babu G. Ranganathan
The author, Babu G. Ranganathan (pronounced Ranga-nathan), has been
recognized in the 24th edition of Marquis Who's Who In The East.
As a former Hindu converted to Christianity, having known
the Lord for over thirty-five years, and being a committed Reformed
Baptist, I would like to speak in defense of the conditionalist view
of hell. I had believed in the traditional view of hell for most of my
Christian life so I am very familiar with the various views about hell
that evangelical Christians hold.
The conditionalist view is that the wicked in hell will
suffer a period of terrible agony and anguish in proportion to their
individual guilt and sins and then be eternally destroyed or cease to
exist.
Although the wicked in hell, for a period, will suffer
consciously for their individual sins, the ultimate penalty for sin
itself will be their eternal death (i.e., their eternal destruction or
loss of life). That, then, is their eternal punishment (i.e., their
eternal loss to life and immortality). But, what about those passages
in the Bible which say that the wicked will go into "eternal fire" and
that in hell there will be "weeping and gnashing of teeth forever and
ever," and other similar passages that seem to teach eternal torment?
We shall examine, in this essay, those and other passages from the
Bible in the light of the context of Scripture.
Be assured, however, that the ultimate and eternal
annihilation (destruction) of the wicked is supported abundantly by
the Christian Scriptures. Is God's righteous wrath an end in itself or
is God's righteous wrath a means to an end (that end being the eternal
destruction of the wicked)? Will a thrice holy God allow sin the right
to exist for eternity in His universe by sustaining and keeping
sinners alive eternally and burning in hell? Is eternal torment the
only way God can satisfy His eternal justice?
Is the ultimate penalty for sin in the Bible eternal
torment or is it eternal death (of both soul and body)? These and many
other important questions and issues (such as how to reconcile the
immutability of Christ as God with His death on the Cross) will be
biblically answered in this essay. The view that the wicked will be
eternally destroyed is also supported in the writings of the first and
second century Christian Fathers, as well as by some prominent groups
of the Protestant Reformation such as the Anabaptists, and today the
conditionalist view is supported by some very prominent evangelical
Christian scholars and theologians such as John R. W. Stott and Clark
H. Pinnock.
Although there have been individual Christians in various
denominations, and even some famous such as the great hymn writer
Isaac Watts (author of "When I Survey The Wondrous Cross"), who have
come to believe in the conditionalist view, the only major Christian
denomination today which officially incorporates this belief as part
of church doctrine and creed is the Seventh Day Adventist Church.
What most people believe about hell is
influenced very much by what they believe about the nature of the
human soul. The ancient Greeks, Hindus, Egyptians, Babylonians, and
others believed that the human soul is immortal and indestructible
and, therefore, must live eternally even after the body dies and
dissolves into the dust. This was because many of the ancients
believed that the human soul was intrinsically divine, having the
nature of deity, and so it could not die.
This philosophy of the universal immortality of the human
soul was a cardinal teaching of the ancient Greeks and strongly
influenced early Christian thought on the nature of the human soul.
Although early Christians rejected the belief that the soul was of
divine essence or deity, most eventually compromised with Greek
philosophy by accepting the idea that all humans have a soul that is
immortal. When early Christianity adopted this belief then it became
only logical to believe that those who go to hell must suffer eternal
torment.
The very early Christian Fathers, however, such as Clement
of Rome, Ignatius of Antioch, Shepherd of Hermas, Polycarp (a pupil of
the Apostle John), Justin Martyr, Tatian and Irenaeus held to the
belief that only those who believe in Jesus Christ as Lord and Savior
will eventually inherit immortality and eternal life. In other words,
the ultimate possession of immortality is dependent upon people
satisfying God's requirement or condition of trusting in His Son Jesus
Christ as personal Lord and Savior and, thus, that is why the term
"conditional immortality" is used when talking about the subject. The
earliest Christian Fathers believed that, while Christians now have
absolute assurance of eternal life, the actual possession of eternal
life will not be until Resurrection Day.
That is why the Apostle Paul in Scripture says that
believers (Christians) "by patient continuance in well doing seek for
glory and honor and immortality, eternal life" (Romans 2:7). Thus Paul
equates immortality with eternal life. Eternal life or immortality is
a gift from God to His people through Jesus Christ; it is not
something that all men possess. Even Adam and Eve did not possess
immortality upon their creation. That is why there was planted a Tree
of Life in the midst of the Garden of Eden. Scripture says in 1
Timothy 6:16 that Jesus Christ "only hath immortality ..." That is,
Jesus Christ is the only human being Who now possess immortality.
But, if eternal life in Scripture means the same
as immortality (as the Apostle Paul clearly teaches in Romans 2:7 and
elsewhere) and Christians will only have immortality in the future, on
Resurrection Day, then why did the Lord Jesus Christ, in the Gospels,
use the present tense when He stated that those who believe in Him
have eternal life. The answer is that sometimes in Scripture future
events are expressed in the present tense for the purpose of
demonstrating their certainty.
The Bible says God "calleth those things which be not as
though they were" (Romans 4:17). Thus, when the Lord Jesus Christ in
Scripture says that anyone who believes in Him has (present tense)
eternal life He does so in order to put His seal on the absolute
certainty of the future fulfillment of the promise. Since eternal life
in Scripture means the same as immortality and immortality means to
live for eternity then it stands to reason that the opposite of
eternal life is not eternal suffering, but, rather, eternal death
(that is the eternal literal death of both soul and body). That is why
Jesus said "...I am the resurrection, and the life; he that believeth
in Me, though he were dead, yet shall he live; And whosoever liveth
and believeth in Me shall never die..." (John 11:25-26). At first
glance these words seem contradictory because Jesus is saying a
believer may be dead and yet He is also saying that a believer will
never die. Which is it? How can both be true? We have to understand
that Jesus is talking about the ultimate fate of the believer.
Ultimately a believer will never die (or be permanently dead) because
he will be resurrected to immortality and glory on Resurrection Day.
It is from this perspective that we are to understand the words of
Christ in the passage here.
Understandably, then, if a human being does not
possess immortality it is possible for him or her to be destroyed or
cease to exist. This means that it is not necessary for the wicked to
suffer eternally in hell. The Bible, in fact, over and over again says
that the ungodly will be ultimately destroyed in body and soul. It is
true that sometimes the word "destroyed" can be interpreted
figuratively. But it is the subject of the destruction that determines
whether we are to interpret the meaning as figurative or literal. For
example, if one is told that a person had destroyed his life by
gambling the subject of the destruction is the quality of that
person's life not his biological life. But when Jesus says that God
can destroy both body and soul in gehenna, or hell, (Matthew 10:28)
the subject of the destruction is a man's whole being, and, thus, the
destruction cannot be interpreted as merely his quality of life. Mike
Naudi points out concerning the passage in Matthew 10:28 that Jesus
had just finished saying to His disciples not to fear those who can
destroy the body but not the soul before He said to them to fear,
instead, God Who can destroy both body and soul in gehenna (hell).
Naudi states that if Jesus was referring to physical destruction of
the body in the first part of the passage then He must also be
referring to the physical destruction of the body in the latter part
of the passage. If the destruction of the body in the first instance
meant the loss of life to the body then the same must be the case in
the second instance. The destruction of the soul then must also mean
the loss of life to the soul. This is the only biblically consistent
way to interpret Matthew 10:28.
The point in Matthew 10:28 is that man can only bring
earthly life to an end but the ultimate and eternal fate of a person
(his soul) is solely in God's hands. God alone can ultimately and
permanently destroy both body and soul in gehenna (hell fire). That is
the simple teaching of Scripture. If one were to destroy, for example,
a house there is no more house. There may be remnants of what was once
the house, but as for the house itself it no longer exists as a house.
Nor does God prescribe fire anywhere in Scripture as judicial
punishment except for the purpose of total destruction.
There are those who argue that the lost who go to hell only
"perish" in their spiritual usefulness to God but that their life
continues. The reality is that the spiritual usefulness of the lost
had perished well before they even go to hell. In a few cases in
Scripture "perish" may refer just to usefulness but this is not so in
most of the cases. Again, the context is the key. For example, when we
say all those on a sunken ship "perished" we're certainly not just
referring to mere usefulness but rather to the physical (the bios)
life itself. Even those who believe in the universal immortality of
the soul will not deny that the physical life of the body can actually
perish. Why not, then, the life of the soul?
How then does one interpret biblical phrases
such as "unquenchable fire" and other similar terms that are used in
the Scriptures in referring to the destruction of the wicked? Here we
must interpret Scripture with Scripture. In Isaiah 34:10, for example,
God says that the nation of Edom will be destroyed with unquenchable
fire and that the smoke of Edom's destruction will ascend up forever
and ever. Not only will the inhabitants of Edom be destroyed with
unquenchable fire, but Scripture says "Edom's streams will be turned
into pitch, her dust into burning sulfur ... it will not be quenched
night and day; its smoke will rise forever" (Isaiah 34:9-10). The
Scripture says here that even the smoke of the burning streams, dust,
and land will rise forever! Will anyone claim that the unquenchable
fire and the smoke rising "forever" here means that Edom's streams,
dust, and land will burn for eternity? If not, then why should we
believe that the people (or souls) of Edom will burn for eternity
because of the unquenchable fire and the smoke rising "forever". Let
us be consistent!
The fact is Edom is not still burning today. We know from
the passage itself, as well as from common sense, that the
unquenchable fire does not mean the land of Edom will burn eternally
because the verse in Isaiah 34:10 continues and says concerning Edom
that "from generation to generation it (the land) shall lie waste;
none shall pass through it forever and ever." The fire was
unquenchable only in the sense that nothing could intervene to put out
the fire before it accomplished its purpose of total destruction.
Thus, the result of Edom burning in unquenchable fire is that Edom
would become desolate - a wasteland. History shows that the cities and
civilization of Edom were, indeed, wiped off the face of the earth.
Petra, the ancient site of Edom, is today inhabited only by birds and
reptiles. Bible scholars have noted in Isaiah 34 that the destruction
of Edom is also used to serve as a type (or representation) of God's
ultimate judgment on all nations that oppose Him. In Scripture
apocalyptic and highly symbolic language (i.e. the sun turning dark
and the stars from heaven falling) sometimes is used in describing
major judgment and change.
Figures of speech such as "unquenchable fire" are used in
the Bible to mean that the process of destruction is unstoppable or
irreversible. We see the same example in other passages such as
Ezekiel 20:47-48 where God says that when His judgment comes on the
land even every green tree will burn in unquenchable fire. Obviously,
those trees are not still burning. It is important to understand just
why God uses such terms in Scripture as "unquenchable fire." In the
Bible, there were some judgments of God (such as in the Old Testament)
in which His wrath was quenched or stopped such as in the case when
Moses interceded for the rebellious Israelites in the desert. Thus,
when God says that the wicked in the end will be destroyed with
unquenchable fire what He simply means is that no one and nothing will
intervene to prevent Him from carrying out His wrath fully through to
its completion. Over and over in the Scriptures God is described in
judgment as being a consuming fire and that is true whether the
judgment be of a temporal nature or an eternal nature.
Now, in the case of Edom the fire was not only
unquenchanble (unstoppable) it was also eternal in its effect because
the fire not only fully destroyed Edom but it also resulted in Edom
never existing as a civilization again (which is signified in the
symbolism of the smoke arising "forever and ever"). It is not the
process of destruction that it is eternal, but, rather, the result.
Similarly, in Jude 7 we read that Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed by
eternal fire, but these cities are no longer still burning. The word
"eternal" in Scripture is also used in regard to redemption and
salvation. In Hebrews 9:12, for example, the Bible says that Christ
obtained for His elect eternal redemption. Again, it is not the
process of redemption which is eternal (no one would ever end up being
redeemed or saved if the process of redemption were eternal), but,
rather, it is the result of Christ's redemptive work which is eternal.
Other phrases in Scripture using the word "eternal" such as eternal
judgment, eternal punishment, eternal damnation, also refer to the
result and not to the process. It is not the punishing that is eternal
but rather the punishment. It is not the destroying that is eternal
but rather the destruction. It is not the dying that is eternal but
rather the death. Similarly, in the phrase "eternal judgement" it is
not the judging (the process) that is eternal but rather the judgement
(the result) which is eternal, or otherwise God would never finish
judging. What kind of Judge would God be if the process of judging
were eternal and never completed?
Unlike the burning bush in Exodus that Moses observed was
not consumed by the fire but was preserved by God, the Scriptures
teach that God, in the end, will not preserve the wicked in the fire
of hell but instead will completely consume and destroy them!
What about Revelation 14:9-11 where it says: "the smoke of
their torment ascendeth up forever and ever; and they have no rest day
nor night"? Doesn't this passage in Scripture prove eternal torment?
No. We also read in Isaiah 34:10 that while Edom was burning day and
night the smoke of the city would ascend up forever and ever. Does
that mean that Edom would never stop burning? Of course, not! The
language simply signifies that the burning of Edom will ultimately end
in permanent (or irrevocable and eternal) destruction. We know that
Edom doesn't exist anymore. Similarly, we are to understand the same
from the passage in Revelation 14:9-11. The smoke of their torment
arising "forever and ever" in the passage does not mean that the
torment of the wicked will never end. The language simply signifies
that the torment of the wicked will lead to their permanent (or
irrevocable and eternal) destruction. During the process of their
destruction the wicked will be tormented but that process will
ultimately end in their eternal annihilation, which is what is
signified by the use of the figure of smoke arising "forever and
ever". This is the only interpretation of Revelation 14:9-11 that
would be consistent with how the rest of Scripture uses such language
and with what the rest of the Scriptures teach concerning the final
and ultimate end of the wicked.
The example, however, that indisputably settles
the issue is the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah. Jude 7 says that
the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah "are set forth for an example,
suffering the vengeance of eternal fire." The word "example" in the
verse comes from the original Greek New Testament word "deigma," and
wherever any form of this Greek word is used in the New Testament it
means an example that is visible to the eye. Now in what way were
Sodom and Gomorrah an example of destruction by eternal fire? They
were an example in the fact that these cities suffered total
destruction (annihilation) and they also suffered irrevocable
destruction because they would never exist as cities again. One may
argue that the souls of Sodom and Gomorrah are burning forever in hell
now, but if that were the case then Scripture cannot use the
destruction of these cities as a visible example of judgment by
eternal fire, since that is not something that one can observe. When
one gives an example of something to another it must be by its very
nature visible or observable. After all, the purpose of the example
was for living humanity on earth to see what judgment by eternal fire
means. Besides, the belief that the souls of the wicked will burn
forever in hell is based on the unbiblical assumption that their souls
are immortal or indestructible.
But, how can the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah be
eternal or irrevocable when Scripture says elsewhere that the
individuals who perished in Sodom and Gomorrah will be resurrected in
the last day to face final judgment? It is true the Scripture teaches
that the individuals who perished in Sodom and Gomorrah will be
resurrected on the last day to face judgment. On the last day
(judgment day) the individuals of Sodom and Gomorrah will suffer
conscious punishment in proportion to their guilt and then be cast
into eternal fire where they will be eternally or irrevocably
destroyed as individuals just as they suffered eternal and irrevocable
destruction as cities (or organized socities). It is the eternal or
irrevocable destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah as organized societies
(cities) that serves as an example of what will happen to the wicked
as individuals on judgment day. That is the point of Jude 7.
Doesn't Ezekiel 16:53 teach that Sodom would be re-built
someday? No. Bible expositor Matthew Henry says concerning this verse:
"some think that what is said of the return of Sodom and Samaria (v.
53, 55), and of Jerusalem with them, is a promise; it may be
understood so, if by Sodom we understand (as Grotius and some of the
Jewish writers do) the Moabites and Ammonites, the posterity of Lot,
who once dwelt in Sodom; their captivity was returned (Jer. 48:47;
49:6), as was that of many of the ten tribes, and Judah's with them."
This interpretation must be the case since Jude 7 clearly teaches of
Sodom's irrevocable destruction as a city. Sometimes in Scripture,
"Sodom" as well as the names of some other ancient cities are used
figuratively to describe those who rebel against God. Jerusalem,
because of its rejection of Christ, is referred to as "Sodom" in
Revelation 11:28 (the verse describes "Sodom" as the city where the
Lord (Christ) was murdered or slain which, of course, is Jerusalem).
Even the words "forever" and "everlasting" in
Scripture can have different meanings. In Scripture the word "forever"
or "everlasting" does not always mean endless or eternal duration. The
word "forever" or "everlasting" in Scripture means the entire length
or duration of the nature of something. If the nature of something is
immortal then the word "forever" must mean eternity but if the nature
of a something is only temporal then the word "forever" cannot mean
eternity. For example, we read in Exodus 21:6 that certain servants
were to serve their masters forever. Certainly this cannot mean for
eternity! Instead, it must mean the entire life spans of the servants.
In some passages of Scripture the word for "everlasting" or "forever"
in the original language has been translated as "long" or "old" by
Bible translators. This is true not only for the King James Version
but also for other versions of the Bible. Therefore, since the words
"forever" and "everlasting" in Scrpture can mean either eternity or
the entire temporal length, duration, or age of a thing our only way
of determining which meaning applies is by studying the context of
Scripture.
Another example is in Jude 6 we read the angels "which
kept not their first estate are reserved in everlasting chains under
darkness unto the judgment of the great day." As John L. Bray says,
"How long does the word 'everlasting' represent here? Only 'unto' ( or
until) the time of their judgment at the great day. They were to be
cast ultimately into the lake of fire (Matthew 25:41) which fire is
'everlasting' ('aionios' --pertaining in this case to that age to
come). The everlasting chains pertained to one age, while the
everlasting fire pertained to another age." Since the wicked in hell
will not be immortal and the Scripture says that they will ultimately
be destroyed, then their conscious suffering cannot be eternal. Their
conscious suffering (which precedes their eternal destruction) is
"forever" only in the sense that they will suffer for their individual
sins for the entire duration or period of this phase of judgment after
which they will suffer eternal destruction (or death) which is the
ultimate penalty for sin itself.
What about the phrase "forever and ever" in Scripture? The
same principle applies here. The reason for why the word "ever" is
used a second time in the phrase is for the purpose of emphasis. This
is common in Biblical language such as when Christ, in the Gospels,
frequently uses the phrase, "Verily, verily I say unto you..." The
second use of the word "verily" in the phrase is strictly for
emphasis. The second use of these words does not, in any way, add to
the meaning or length of the first "verily" or the first "forever" in
the phrases.
Even the Devil (Satan) will be eternally annihilated or
destroyed. We read a description of Satan's ultimate eternal
annihilation or destruction in Ezekiel 28:14-19. Although this passage
is immediately addressed to the ancient King of Tyre (verse 11), it is
clear from the context of the passage that God is speaking to Satan
(the evil spirit behind the King of Tyre) because the descriptions
given cannot fit that of any human being or human king. In fact, the
passage says that the Devil will be "no more" (verse 19). Is there any
stronger language for annihilation or destruction?
Regarding now the justice of God we must
acknowledge that God is absolutely sovereign. God can satisfy His
eternal holiness and justice in whatever way He pleases. God's holy
and righteous wrath is not an end in itself, but rather God's holy and
righteous wrath is a means to an end - that end being the total
destruction of both sin and sinner. It is in this way that God's
eternal justice is glorified. A righteous and holy God will not allow
both sin and sinner to exist for eternity. According to Ephesians 1:
9- 1 1 God's ultimate purpose is a universe which is in total harmony
with His moral character and nature, and when this happens God will be
"all in all" (1 Corinthians 15:28). But how can this be if those in
gehenna (the Lake of Fire) continue for eternity in conscious sin and
rebellion against God? In addition, we must ever keep in mind that
although God is just He is not cruel. If eternal conscious torment of
the wicked is not necessary to satisfy God's eternal justice then to
inflict such conscious torment for eternity upon all the unsaved
whether young or old would be a great form of cruelty and torture.
Such cruelty and torture are characteristics of the pagan gods towards
their enemies. The lovely and beautiful character of the true God must
not be marred by unbiblical and corrupt notions of hell. Far from
God's glory being diminished, the Biblical truth and doctrine of
eternal annihilation of the wicked supremely glorifies God's eternal
justice in the eternal destruction of both sin and sinner. The fact
that God does not punish beyond what is necessary also greatly
glorifies His lovely character in the administration of His eternal
justice. Glory be to God! Again, I say, Glory be to God!
But, if all men are created in the image of God does it
not then follow that all men must be as immortal as God? Being created
in the image of God does not necessarily mean we must possess anything
and everything that God possess. God is all powerful is He not? Does
that then mean man must also be all powerful because man is created in
God's image? Theologians refer to the attributes of God as
communicable (that which can be transferred to the creature) and
incommunicable (that which cannot be transferred to the creature).
But, even this does not mean that all of God's communicable attributes
must be communicated or transferred to those created in His image. The
Bible is clear that immortality (an attribute of God) is communicable
but will not be communicated (given) to humans except on Resurrection
Day and then only to those who have placed their faith in Jesus Christ
as their personal Lord and Savior. The fact is it is precisely because
man is created in God's divine image and because God infinitely
repects His image that He will not all allow sinful man to bear that
image for eternity. God will not allow those whom He created in His
image to exist for eternity in sin for that would just be a mockery of
His image!
We must base our views of hell and the after life on what
the Bible teaches, not on tradition or mere human philosophies and
opinions. We must not impose our philosophy of what God ought to be
upon Holy Scripture! Not many people realize the fact that in the New
Testament there are different Greek words for the word "hell." But
unfortunately the English Bible translates these different words for
hell as one word, and this has been a cause of much confusion for
those who wish to study the subject. The New Testament Greek words for
hell are "hades" and "gehenna" and they both have different meanings.
Hades means the unseen world of the dead and is only a temporary
abode. It has nothing to do with punishment or reward. It is
equivalent to the Hebrew word "sheol" in the Old Testament in its
meaning. Gehenna, on the other hand, is the abode of punishment for
the wicked.
The story of the Rich Man and Lazarus in Luke 16 has often
been used by many Christians, especially preachers, as a depiction of
the punishment that the wicked will suffer in hell. But this is not
the case. In the first place when Jesus refers to the Rich Man being
in torment in the flame of hell the Greek word for "hell" in the
passage is not "gehenna" (the place of final and eternal punishment),
but rather it is the Greek word "hades" (which in Scripture is the
temporary abode of the dead).
The story of the Rich Man and Lazarus, like the other series
of parables before it, was used of the Lord to illustrate or depict
the end of the rule of the pharisees and to depict the end of the
Jewish Era and dispensation (as represented by the Rich Man being in
torment) and it was also used of the Lord to depict or illustrate the
elevation of Gentile Christendom (as represented by Lazarus).
Actually, Lazarus represented the poor Jews of Jesus' time who were
ignored by the self-righteous religious leaders of Israel and he also
represented the gentiles who, although rejected by the Jewish leaders,
would nevertheless be accepted into the bosom of Abraham through their
new found faith in Jesus Christ as the Messiah. The religious leaders
of Israel had lived only for themselves and ignored the spiritual
needs of the spiritually sick and starving people around them.
The concept that hades was a place divided into two
compartments, one of suffering for the wicked and the other of bliss
for the rigtheous, was a Jewish belief that had developed during the
intertestamental period, the period of time in between when the Old
and New Testaments were written. Thus, this particular view of hades
was not canonical, that is it was not something that God Himself had
revealed to the Jews through Scripture. There is no evidence in
Scripture that hades is a place where the wicked suffer while awaiting
final judgment in gehenna (the Lake of Fire). Such a concept of hades
developed as a result of ancient Greek influences on Jewish thinking
about the nature of the soul.
In the parable of the Rich Man and Lazarus, Jesus was simply
borrowing this popular Jewish folklore of hades to use as an
illustration to make a point to the pharisees and religious leaders of
His day, but He was not necessarily endorsing the folklore as being
doctrinally valid or correct. There are various passages in the Old
Testament, such as in Psalms, that tell us that there is no
consciousness in sheol (the Hebrew equivalent of hades in the Old
Testament).
Some argue that the story of the Rich Man and Lazarus is not
a parable because Jesus did not formally introduce it as a parable.
But, Jesus did not always formally introduce His stories as parables,
and there are various examples of that in the Gospels. Now, it is true
that in His parables Jesus used things that actually existed to fill
in for illustrations and figures, but in the particular case of the
parable of the Rich Man and Lazarus the Lord used a popular existing
Jewish myth about hades for the purposes of constructing a story.
Christian pastor and teacher Al Maxey makes some
interesting comments concerning the parable of the Rich Man and
Lazarus:
"In the story, then, of the rich man and Lazarus, Jesus has
put them down (the pharisees and religious rulers) with one of their
own superstitions. ... He used their own ideas to condemn them. ... It
is simply a case of taking what others believe, practice, or say, and
using it to condemn them" (Sidney Hatch, Daring To Differ: Adventures
in Conditional Immortality, p. 91). "Since the elements of the story
are taken from the Pharisees' own traditions, they are judged out of
their own mouths" (ibid, p. 92).
It should be noted that the apostle Paul employed a
similar device when he sought to impress upon certain Corinthian
brethren the truth regarding the resurrection, and spoke of their
practice of baptism for the dead. By speaking of this practice in his
own teaching, and by not condemning it, Paul was certainly not thereby
endorsing it. Rather, he merely used a practice then current among
certain readers, to whom he was addressing his remarks, to drive home
an eternal truth to their hearts and minds (1 Corinthians 15:29).
Another similar situation occurs in John 9:1-3. With
regard to a man born blind, the disciples asked Jesus, "Rabbi, who
sinned, this man or his parents, that he should be born blind?" Some
of the Jews (thanks to Hellenistic influence on Jewish theology with
regard to the pagan doctrines of the preexistence & immortality of
souls) believed souls existed prior to their being placed in a
physical body at birth. Thus, these preexistent souls could sin during
this prior life, for which they would be punished during the present
life (possibly by being born with some infirmity or deformity). Oddly
enough, Jesus did not speak out against this pagan notion, but merely
instructed His disciples that neither this man nor his parents had
sinned so as to cause Him to be born blind. Contrary to what some
might think, Jesus did not go around debunking every Jewish or pagan
myth that had arisen in their theology due to pagan influence ....
Indeed, He at times seems to have used them in His dialogue with such
persons to convey deeper eternal realities. This is exactly what I
believe is being done with the parable of the rich man and the poor
beggar.
A far more important reason for regarding the story of the
rich man and Lazarus as figurative rather than literal/historical,
however, is the obvious conflict with the inspired Scriptures that
occurs when it is regarded as an actual account of real people and
real events. These, in my estimation, are extremely serious
contradictions with revealed Truth"(Al Maxey's website may be accessed
at www.zianet.com/maxey).
Although eternal life in Scripture means more
than just eternal existence, it must, at least, include eternal
existence. Eternal life comes as a package which includes endless
glory, honor, joy, and bliss. The eternal punishment of the wicked
will be just the opposite, the loss, the eternal and irrevocable loss
of eternal existence along with its glory, honor, bliss, and joy.
Because Jesus Christ paid the penalty for our sins God (the Father)
can be just in forgiving our sins and granting us immortality and
eternal life when we genuinely repent and put our faith and trust in
Jesus Christ as Lord and Savior. That is why the Bible says that Jesus
Christ "hath abolished death, and hath brought life and immortality to
light through the gospel" (2 Timothy 1:10). The Bible further says in
John 3:16 "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten
Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish (be eternally
destroyed), but have everlasting life (immortality with eternal glory
and honor, cf. Romans 2:7)."
Again, the crux of the issue revolves around whether or not
all humans will be immortal. In Genesis 2:17 God told Adam not to eat
the fruit of a certain tree (the tree of the knowledge of good and
evil) and God also told Adam that if he did eat of it he would die on
that day. Specifically, God said to Adam, "For in the day that thou
eatest thereof thou shalt surely die." But the Biblical record shows
that Adam did not physically die on the very day he disobeyed God and
ate of the forbidden fruit. Because Adam did not physically die on the
very day that he disobeyed God many Christians think that God was
referring to spiritual death and not physical death.
However, in the original Hebrew, in which the Old Testament
was written, the grammatical tense of the word "die" in Genesis 2:17
is in the imperfect mood. The imperfect mood denotes a process. Thus,
what God was actually saying to Adam is that he would start dying on
the day he ate the forbidden fruit. The literal translation from the
Hebrew of what God said to Adam is: "Dying you will die." God was not,
therefore, referring to spiritual death but to physical death. The
fact that God later prevented Adam and Eve from having access to the
tree of life (Genesis 3:22-24) so that they would not live eternally
proves that God was referring to physical death and not spiritual
death. The penalty for sin, then, is the death of both soul and body
so that man will not live forever in sin. A holy God will not allow
men who are created in His image to exist in sin for eternity! This
contradicts the traditional doctrine or teaching of hell, taught in
most churches, that the wicked will have an eternal body and soul
which will burn forever in the flames of hell.
Evangelist John L. Bray gives an interesting commentary on
this phrase: "that in the day thou doeth such and such, thou shalt
surely die," is an idiom understood by the Hebrew people, and it meant
"in the day you do such and such, know for certain that you will die."
The day the action took place determined what would result later; it
was settled (emphasis mine) on the day the action took place."
"When God said to Adam, 'For in the day that thou eatest
thereof, thou shalt surely die (Genesis 2:17), He meant that on the
very day that Adam committed that first act of disobedience, on that
day his death was certain, regardless of how long it was until he
actually died." Evangelist Bray points out that it is with this
meaning that the phrase is used in other parts of Scripture such as
when King Solomon told Shimei (his father David's old adversary) "to
build a house in Jerusalem and to live there and not to go anywhere
else, but to stay there. He (Solomon) said, 'For it shall be, that on
the day thou goest out, and passest over the brook Kidron, thou shalt
know for certain that thou shalt surely die' (1 Kings 2:37)." The
biblical record shows that Shimei did disobey Solomon and that Solomon
did put him to death, although Shimei's death did not happen on that
very day he disobeyed Solomon.
Another passage in Scripture which is used (or I should say
misused) to support the traditional teaching of hell is Daniel 12:2.
GJ Griz in commenting on Daniel 12:2 (my comments and interpretations
are in brackets) says, "Gabriel tells Daniel that some will awaken to
shame and everlasting contempt. The Hebrew word for 'contempt' [or
"disgust"] in Daniel 12:2 also appears in Isaiah 66:24 [where the word
is used in the context of disgust expressed by onlookers as they view
the dead bodies or corpses of those slain in battle Thus, this verse
probably expresses how the faithful will look upon the corpses of the
wicked in that final day of judgement]. Isaiah says abhorrence while
Daniel says contempt. [In any case, it is the word "everlasting" that
is at issue here]. The Hebrew word 'owlam' is translated 'everlasting'
in Daniel 12:2. In many other passages it does not mean throughout
eternity [but rather the entire age or period of something that is
temporal and not permanent]. The wicked will be completely destroyed!
Although there will always be a general memory of the wicked and their
end (after all the record of Scripture will exist for eternity), what
there will no longer be is anymore fearful memory and experience of
the pain, oppression, and injustice of the wicked, for they will be no
more.
Why does 1 Corinthians 1:18 use the present tense for the word
"perish" in describing those who ultimately reject the Gospel? If
their time to perish is in the future, on Judgment Day, why is the
present tense used. The word "perish" is in the present tense because
those who ultimately reject the Gospel are in a sense already
perishing (dying) physically under the sentence of death until one day
they will permanently perish (or die). Their permanent death will not
occur until after they are resurrected from their earthly death to
face final judgment. Of course, it is true that believers in this life
are also physically dying (perishing) daily as the Apostle Paul says
in 2 Corinthians 4:16 where concerning believers Paul says that even
though the outward man is perishing the inward man is being renewed
daily. In the context of believers, however, their perishing is only
temporary because it will not ultimately end in permanent physical
death but instead in glorious physical resurrection to immortality and
eternal life.
Many Christians find it difficult to believe that the
soul as well as the body can die. The soul, they say, can live on and
be conscious even after the body decays into the dust. Christians
generally believe that Jesus confirmed the existence of consciousness
in hades because of what He said to the repentant thief who also was
dying on a cross beside Him. But it must be kept in mind that in the
Greek manuscripts of the New Testament there were no punctuation marks
such as commas. The punctuation marks found in our English Bibles, for
example, were provided by the translators. So depending upon where the
comma actually is in a sentence can change the entire meaning of the
sentence.
The passage in Luke 23:43 of the English Bible is translated
with the comma before the word "today" so that Jesus is saying to the
repentant thief, "Verily I say unto thee, today shalt thou be with Me
in paradise." It gives the meaning that the thief would join Jesus in
paradise on that very day. But what if the comma in the sentence is
placed after the word "today." Then the sentence that Jesus said would
read, "Verily I say unto thee today, thou shalt be with Me in
paradise." It changes the entire meaning of the sentence. Then Jesus
is not necessarily saying that the repentant thief would join Him in
paradise on that very day. The Bible repeatedly refers to Christians
who had died as being "asleep" indicating that their death is only
temporary since they will one day be resurrected to immortality and
eternal life.
But if there is no consciousness for the dead until
Resurrection Day why did the Apostle Paul say that he desires "to
depart, and to be present with Christ" (Philippians 1:23). However, in
2 Corinthians 5 Paul defines that to be absent from the body and
present with the Lord means to be clothed in our resurrected bodies.
Paul didn't mind death because he knew that the next conscious thing
that he would experience after death would be joyful and perfect
eternal fellowship with Christ at the Resurection. This is why the
early Christians thought so much about the meaning of Easter and its
resurrection significance. If the early Christians believed that they
would be in the presence of Christ immediately after death, as most
Christians believe today, then the coming of Christ again on
Resurrecton Day would not have had as much meaning or value for them.
But, in any case, even if the soul did survive the death of the body
this would still not necessarily mean that the soul is immortal.
In regard to the last book of the Bible, the book of
Revelation, and its contents regarding the final judgment several
important points need to be kept in mind for a proper interpretation
of this most difficult-to-interpret book of the Bible.
The first point to realize is that Revelation is a book
filled with symbolic language, and, therefore, the book is not to be
interpreted literally. The book itself tells us not to interpret it
literally. In the very first verse of the very first chapter we read,
"The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God (the Father) gave unto Him,
to show unto His servants things which must shortly come to pass; and
He sent and signified it by His angel unto His servant
John" (Revelation 1:1). The word "signified" in the passage comes from
a Greek word meaning "signs" or "symbols."
Much of the symbolism in Revelation can be decoded by
examining how these symbols are used in other parts of Scripture,
particularly in the Old Testament. The Old Testament book of Daniel is
very valuable for this purpose because many of the prophecies in the
book of Daniel overlap with those found in the book of Revelation. For
example, the "beast" mentioned in the book of Daniel represents a
great political power, or empire, or kingdom. This same figure of the
beast is used in Revelation. From the context and language of
Revelation we can surmise that the figures of the beast and the false
prophet are symbolic of political power and apostate religious
beguilement. The point is that the beast and false prophet are not
literal individuals or persons, and, therefore, when they are
eventually cast into the Lake of Fire we must not think that they are
experiencing conscious torment. As we shall see later, the Lake of
Fire in Revelation stands for annihilation. If that is so then why
does Revelation 20:10 say that the beast and the false prophet are in
the Lake of Fire when the Devil is finally cast in there after a
thousand years? The word "are" is not found in the ancient Greek
manuscripts of the New Testament but, instead, the word was inserted
by English translators. That is why the word "are" is in italics in
the King James Version. Words in italics in the King James Version
indicate that the words were supplied by the translators. So, we can
just as easily translate the passage to mean that the Devil was cast
into the Lake of Fire where the beast and false prophet were. In fact,
the Greek word for "are" (eisi) can be translated as: are, be, were,
etc. But, even if we grant the use of the word "are" the verse can
still be interpreted to mean that the beast and false prophet
continued to remain in a state of annihilation at the time the Devil
was cast into the Lake.
That the Lake of Fire stands for annihilation is
indisputable because Revelation 20:14 states, unequivocally, that the
Lake of Fire is the second death. What is the second death? Well, it
is certainly not spiritual death because those cast into the Lake of
Fire (i.e the wicked on judgment day) were already spiritually dead.
The difference between the first death and the second death is that
the first death is temporary since everyone, the righteous and the
wicked, will be resurrected in the Last Day to face final judgment.
The book of Daniel tells us that the righteous and the wicked will all
be resurrected on the same day. The second death, on the other hand,
is eternal (or permanent) with no resurrection to follow. Only the
wicked will experience the second death. It is not the punishing which
is eternal but rather the punishment which is the eternal and
permanent cessation of being. The wicked will experience the second
death after they suffer consciously for their individual guilt and
sins.
As for phrases used in the Bible in regard to the end of the
wicked that they will go to a place "where their worm dieth not, and
where the fire is not quenched" these are two different ways of saying
the same thing, that these agents of destruction, the fire and the
worm, will not cease until they have done their work of complete and
total destruction.
Contrary to popular belief and interpretation the phrase in
Scripture "where their worm dieth not" is not a reference to the
undying human soul or conscience. We have already seen statements in
Scripture that God will destroy, not preserve or keep alive, the
bodies and souls of the wicked in the Day of Judgment. The worm and
fire were figures that people in Jesus' time could readily identify
and understand because in that time the dead bodies of those who
suffered dishonor in society were thrown into a valley where fire and
worms devoured these bodies.
Phrases such as "gnashing of teeth" used in Scrpture to
describe the end of the wicked have also been misinterpreted. Wherever
Scripture uses "gnashing of teeth" such as in Acts 7 it is always in
the context of the wicked being angry or jealous of the righteous. In
the Day of Judgment when the wicked see the ultimate blessed and happy
state of the righteous they will, indeed, weep, wail, and gnash their
teeth as they realize what they have lost and as they are finally
destroyed and cease to exist forever. The weeping and wailing will be
similar to the bitter weeping that Esau, in the Old Testament,
experienced when he realized what he lost by selling his birthright
and inheritance to Jacob for a mess of porridge. So, too, the wicked
in hell will weep and wail bitterly, even while they are being
destroyed, when they realize what happiness and bliss of heaven they
had given up because they chose to live their lives on earth for only
money and themselves.
It may surprise many to know that the Bible teaches animals as having
souls. In the Old Testament, for example, the Hebrew word for
"soul" ("nephesh") is used for both animal and man. For example,
Genesis 1:21 says: "And God created great whales, and every living
creature that moveth ..." The words "living creature" are from the
Hebrew words "nephesh chaiyah". The same Hebrew words are used in
Genesis 2:7 where we read concerning the creation of man that after
God had created man from the dust of the earth He then breathed into
man the breath of life and man became a "living soul" ("nephesh
chaiyah"). The breath of life itself was not the soul, but, rather,
Scripture teaches that man became a living soul as the result of God
breathing into him the breath of life. The definition of "soul"
actually varies according to the context of Scripture. The basic
meaning of "soul" in Scripture refers to the mind or conscious nature
in animals and man, but the word also is used specifically in various
passages of Scripture in reference to the will, thoughts, emotions,
and affections. The New Testament Greek word for "soul" is "psuche"
and it is equivalent in meaning to the Old Testament word "nephesh".
The soul may very well be physical but yet distinct from the rest of
the body. If the soul is physical then it is distinct from all other
forms of non-conscious matter or energy. The Scriptures teach that
both humans and animals are constituted with spirit (a life-giving
force), soul, and body. Even if the soul isn't physical it would not
necessarily mean that soul is immortal. Immortality must be given by
God Who alone is the ultimate Source and Sustainer of all things. It
is very humbling to realize that we humans were created as mortal as
the animals. Only those who have put their faith in Jesus Christ as
Lord and Savior who will ultimately have immortality of soul and body
on Resurrection Day.
Many of the early Protestant Reformers, including Martin
Luther, held to the view that man, by nature, is entirely motal
(including the soul), but the great Reformer John Calvin opposed this
view and specifically wrote against it and insisted that all of the
Reformers present a united front. An excellent Internet site
containing information on all of this is "Champions of Conditional
Immortality In History".
The question naturally arises whether the
teaching of eternal annihilation would be an effective deterrent to
sin as in contrast to the teaching of eternal suffering. Here, of
course, we are entering into philosophy and human reasoning rather
than Scripture alone.
Nevertheless, let us briefly talk philosophy. First, let it
be said that God is more concerned about a person doing what is right
because he or she genuinely wants to rather than just because of
punishment alone. A person's reasons for repentance should include
genuine sorrow over sin. In fact, in contrast to fear, the Bible
teaches that the goodness of God is meant to lead people to
repentance! (Romans 2:4).
Also, the teaching of eternal suffering will never be an
effective deterrent to sin if people do not believe that God would
really inflict such a thing. They believe that after seeing souls
suffer for a long time God would change His mind and admit them into
heaven after all.
On the other hand, the prospect that those who go to hell
will suffer for their sins and then be eternally destroyed so that
they do not exist anymore is far more believable, and, therefore, a
far more effective deterrent to sin. If people are convinced that
there really is an eternity of bliss and joy to lose that in itself is
a powerful thought and deterrent to sin, whatever they might or might
not believe about eternal suffering.
Finally, whether or not people genuinely repent at least
they can respect God's justice and character if His eternal punishment
does not consist of eternally tormenting those who go to hell. Such
respect alone brings God great honor and glory.
What about those who are unsaved but who are suffering and
are in misery in this life? If the ultimate and eternal annihilation,
or destruction, of soul and body of the unsaved is true, then isn't
the eternal loss of life for such people really a reward since they
will no longer exist in misery?
Well, let's look at another example. There are some
individuals in society who having been released from prison cannot or
will not become adjusted to civilian life. Some of these persons have
been known to commit crimes again so that they may go back to prison
where they feel life would be better. Does this then mean that prison
is no longer punishment for these people? Of course, not! So, too, it
does not mean that eternal literal destruction of soul and body is not
punishment simply because it is a better state than eternal life in
misery.
From God's perspective (the only perspective that counts)
life is a gift and meant to exist only when in harmony with His will.
A thrice holy God will not allow sin to exist for eternity by keeping
sinners alive for eternity. God has ordained temporary existence of
sin and the life of the sinner for various purposes, but it is not in
His eternal and ultimate purpose to do so.
What is punishment and not punishment is ultimately from
God's perspective and view, not what we necessarily think. I may hit
my toe accidentally against the leg of a table and suffer terrible
pain, but having such pain does not necessarily mean I am in a state
of punishment. Conversely, the lack of pain does not necessarily mean
absence of punishment. For example, when a murderer receives the death
penalty from society he or she no longer expereinces pain, at least
not from society. Does this then mean that society did not punish the
murderer since the murderer having died no longer experiences anymore
pain inflicted by society? The theological lesson to learn from all
this is that it is God's Word that is to be our ultimate authority on
the issue of punishment and not our philosophy!
Christians throughout history, regardless of
denomination, have always agreed on the essential (core), or primary,
doctrines of Christianity, especially regarding the Person and
redemptive work of Jesus Christ. Where Christians have had differences
in beliefs such differences have been in matters of secondary
doctrine. What has been discussed in this essay, as important as it
may be, is a matter of secondary doctrine. Some cults and non-
Christian religions may have some correct secondary doctrines, but
their primary doctrines about God and, specifically, the Person and
work of Jesus Christ are wrong and incorrect.
Finally, one very important question arises that needs to
be answered. If Jesus Christ was truly God how then could He
completely die (in body and soul) since the Scriptures teach that God
is immutable (unchanging). In answer to this question it is important
to understand that everything about God, including His immutability
and His very existence itself, is dependent upon His moral nature.
God's immutability is conditional upon His moral nature. In fact, it
would be theologically safe to say that the only thing about God that
cannot change at all is His moral nature. Thus, it is only God's moral
nature which is truly unconditionally immutable. In the context of
Scripture, when God says "I am the Lord. I change not" (Malachi 3:6)
it is in reference to His moral being and nature. Whatever God can do
or cannot do is governed by His moral constitution or nature. For
example, the Scripture says in Hebrews 6:18 that it is impossible for
God to lie. Thus, when Scripture tells us elsewhere that with God all
things are possible it must be understood from the context of
comparing Scripture with Scripture that only all things are possible
with God which are not contradictory to His moral nature. In other
words, God is only as immutable as His moral nature allows Him to be.
What does all this mean? It means that when God the Son (Jesus Christ)
took the legal guilt and liability for our sins on the Cross then His
divine moral nature required that He die since the penalty for sin is
death. As He had to be true to His moral nature the Son gave up His
life. It is precisely because of the immutability of His moral nature
that Christ (Who is God) died when He took the guilt of our sins!
Because He was God Christ's death had infinite value so that it was
not necessary for Him to remain dead for eternity in order for His
death to satisfy the full penalty for our sins.
However, although Jesus was God, if He had truly died
completely (body and soul), how could He have raised His own body from
the grave as He said He would. There are two possible answers. One is
that when His soul was given back its life Christ then entered His own
body and raised it up from the grave. The other possible answer is in
understanding what Jesus said about His authority over His own life
and death. Jesus said that the Father had given to Him authority to
lay down His life and to have His life raised from the dead (John
10:11-18). Shortly before Jesus died He exercised this authority by
entrusting to His Father His spirit (not the Holy Spirit in this case
but rather the spirit which is the principle of life, the breath of
life). Remember His words on the Cross, "Father into Thy hands I
commend My spirit" (Luke 23:46). By doing this He gave authority for
death to overtake Him on account of our sins for which He died but He
also had delegated His right and authority over His own life to the
Father to raise Him up from the dead. In this way Jesus was very much
responsible for both His own death and resurrection. What great love
and condescension the Son of God subjected Himself to on our behalf!
The reader is urged to examine in more detail the Biblical fact of
Christ's Godhood and deity in the author's essay The Deity of Jesus
Christ Explained and Defended.
For more comprehensive and further reading on the subject of
conditional immortality the reader is urged to obtain a copy of
Edward Fudge's excellent book The Fire That Consumes. The book is
foreworded by the great evangelical scholar F.F.Bruce.
For those interested in a Biblical study of the almost
forgotten preterist view and interpretation of Bible prophecy
concerning the second coming of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ
please contact Evangelist John L. Bray at: P.O. Box 90129, Lakeland,
Florida 33804. Evangelist Bray has written books, pamphlets, and
numerous articles on preterism. Also, The Preterist Archive contains
much useful information of interest concerning preterism and the
various preterist interpretations of Bible prophecy. Of course, please
understand that by sharing these sites I am not necessarily endorsing
all of the preterist interpretations and views expressed in them.
Return to Home Page and Other Topics
Email: bgrnathan@yahoo.com. Responses to emails given on weekends.
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User: "�andy"
Title: Re: The Bible Vs. The Traditional View of Hell	02 Jan 2008 11:12:22 AM

On Tue, 1 Jan 2008 21:23:16 -0800 (PST),
in article
<df08a515-dd18-4b57-ad30-fa308b8a5562@t1g2000pra.googlegroups.com>,
"Noah's Dove" <noahdove7@lightspeed.ca> wrote:

Which doesn't change the fact that certain words specifically
used to describe the condition of the lost, almost exclusively
indicate a time of endless duration, else eternal life can
also come to an end:
Matthew 18:8 Wherefore if thy hand or thy foot offend thee,
cut them off, and cast them from thee: it is better for thee
to enter into life halt or maimed, rather than having two
hands or two feet to be cast into everlasting <166> fire.
Matthew 19:16 And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good
Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal
<166> life?
Matthew 19:29 And every one that hath forsaken houses, or
brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or
children, or lands, for my name�s sake, shall receive an
hundredfold, and shall inherit everlasting <166> life.
Matthew 25:41 Then shall he say also unto them on the left
hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting <166> fire,
prepared for the devil and his angels:
Matthew 25:46 And these shall go away into everlasting <166>
punishment: but the righteous into life eternal <166>.
Mark 3:29 But he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost
hath never forgiveness, but is in danger of eternal <166>
damnation:
Mark 10:17 And when he was gone forth into the way, there
came one running, and kneeled to him, and asked him, Good
Master, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal <166> life?
Mark 10:30 But he shall receive an hundredfold now in this
time, houses, and brethren, and sisters, and mothers, and
children, and lands, with persecutions; and in the world to
come eternal <166> life.
Luke 10:25 And, behold, a certain lawyer stood up, and
tempted him, saying, Master, what shall I do to inherit
eternal <166> life?
Luke 16:9 And I say unto you, Make to yourselves friends of
the mammon of unrighteousness; that, when ye fail, they may
receive you into everlasting <166> habitations.
Luke 18:18 And a certain ruler asked him, saying, Good
Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal <166> life?
Luke 18:30 Who shall not receive manifold more in this
present time, and in the world to come life everlasting <166>.
John 3:15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish,
but have eternal <166> life.
John 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only
begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not
perish, but have everlasting <166> life.
John 3:36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting <166>
life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life;
but the wrath of God abideth on him.
John 4:14 But whosoever drinketh of the water that I shall
give him shall never thirst; but the water that I shall give
him shall be in him a well of water springing up into
everlasting <166> life.
John 4:36 And he that reapeth receiveth wages, and gathereth
fruit unto life eternal <166>: that both he that soweth and he
that reapeth may rejoice together.
John 5:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my
word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting
<166> life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is
passed from death unto life.
John 5:39 Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have
eternal <166> life: and they are they which testify of me.
John 6:27 Labour not for the meat which perisheth, but for
that meat which endureth unto everlasting <166> life, which
the Son of man shall give unto you: for him hath God the
Father sealed.
John 6:40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that
every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have
everlasting <166> life: and I will raise him up at the last
day.
John 6:47 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth
on me hath everlasting <166> life.
John 6:54 Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath
eternal <166> life; and I will raise him up at the last day.
John 6:68 Then Simon Peter answered him, Lord, to whom shall
we go? thou hast the words of eternal <166> life.
John 10:28 And I give unto them eternal <166> life; and they
shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my
hand.
John 12:25 He that loveth his life shall lose it; and he that
hateth his life in this world shall keep it unto life eternal
<166>.
John 12:50 And I know that his commandment is life
everlasting <166>: whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the
Father said unto me, so I speak.
John 17:2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that
he should give eternal <166> life to as many as thou hast
given him.
John 17:3 And this is life eternal <166>, that they might
know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast
sent.
Acts 13:46 Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It
was necessary that the word of God should first have been
spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge
yourselves unworthy of everlasting <166> life, lo, we turn to
the Gentiles.
Acts 13:48 And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad,
and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were
ordained to eternal <166> life believed.
Romans 2:7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing
seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal <166> life:
Romans 5:21 That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so
might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal <166>
life by Jesus Christ our Lord.
Romans 6:22 But now being made free from sin, and become
servants to God, ye have your fruit unto holiness, and the end
everlasting <166> life.
Romans 6:23 For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of
God is eternal <166> life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
Romans 16:25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you
according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ,
according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept
secret since the world began <166>,
Romans 16:26 But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures
of the prophets, according to the commandment of the
everlasting <166> God, made known to all nations for the
obedience of faith:
2 Corinthians 4:17 For our light affliction, which is but for
a moment, worketh for us a far more exceeding and eternal
<166> weight of glory;
2 Corinthians 4:18 While we look not at the things which are
seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things
which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen
are eternal <166>.
2 Corinthians 5:1 For we know that if our earthly house of
this tabernacle were dissolved, we have a building of God, an
house not made with hands, eternal <166> in the heavens.
Galatians 6:8 For he that soweth to his flesh shall of the
flesh reap corruption; but he that soweth to the Spirit shall
of the Spirit reap life everlasting <166>.
2 Thessalonians 1:9 Who shall be punished with everlasting
<166> destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the
glory of his power;
2 Thessalonians 2:16 Now our Lord Jesus Christ himself, and
God, even our Father, which hath loved us, and hath given us
everlasting <166> consolation and good hope through grace,
1 Timothy 1:16 Howbeit for this cause I obtained mercy, that
in me first Jesus Christ might shew forth all longsuffering,
for a pattern to them which should hereafter believe on him to
life everlasting <166>.
1 Timothy 6:12 Fight the good fight of faith, lay hold on
eternal <166> life, whereunto thou art also called, and hast
professed a good profession before many witnesses.
1 Timothy 6:16 Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the
light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen,
nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting <166>.
Amen.
1 Timothy 6:19 Laying up in store for themselves a good
foundation against the time to come, that they may lay hold on
eternal <166> life.
2 Timothy 1:9 Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy
calling, not according to our works, but according to his own
purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before
the world began <166>,
2 Timothy 2:10 Therefore I endure all things for the elect�s
sakes, that they may also obtain the salvation which is in
Christ Jesus with eternal <166> glory.
Titus 1:2 In hope of eternal <166> life, which God, that
cannot lie, promised before the world <166> began;
Titus 3:7 That being justified by his grace, we should be
made heirs according to the hope of eternal <166> life.
Philemon 1:15 For perhaps he therefore departed for a season,
that thou shouldest receive him for ever <166>;
Hebrews 5:9 And being made perfect, he became the author of
eternal <166> salvation unto all them that obey him;
Hebrews 6:2 Of the doctrine of baptisms, and of laying on of
hands, and of resurrection of the dead, and of eternal <166>
judgment.
Hebrews 9:12 Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by
his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having
obtained eternal <166> redemption for us.
Hebrews 9:14 How much more shall the blood of Christ, who
through the eternal <166> Spirit offered himself without spot
to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the
living God?
Hebrews 9:15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new
testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the
transgressions that were under the first testament, they which
are called might receive the promise of eternal <166>
inheritance.
Hebrews 13:20 Now the God of peace, that brought again from
the dead our Lord Jesus, that great shepherd of the sheep,
through the blood of the everlasting <166> covenant,
1 Peter 5:10 But the God of all grace, who hath called us
unto his eternal <166> glory by Christ Jesus, after that ye
have suffered a while, make you perfect, stablish, strengthen,
settle you.
2 Peter 1:11 For so an entrance shall be ministered unto you
abundantly into the everlasting <166> kingdom of our Lord and
Saviour Jesus Christ.
1 John 1:2 (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it,
and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal <166> life,
which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;)
1 John 2:25 And this is the promise that he hath promised us,
even eternal <166> life.
1 John 3:15 Whosoever hateth his brother is a murderer: and
ye know that no murderer hath eternal <166> life abiding in
him.
1 John 5:11 And this is the record, that God hath given to us
eternal <166> life, and this life is in his Son.
1 John 5:13 These things have I written unto you that believe
on the name of the Son of God; that ye may know that ye have
eternal <166> life, and that ye may believe on the name of the
Son of God.
1 John 5:20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath
given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true,
and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ.
This is the true God, and eternal <166> life.
Jude 1:7 Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about
them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication,
and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example,
suffering the vengeance of eternal <166> fire.
Jude 1:21 Keep yourselves in the love of God, looking for the
mercy of our Lord Jesus Christ unto eternal <166> life.
Revelation 14:6 And I saw another angel fly in the midst of
heaven, having the everlasting <166> gospel to preach unto
them that dwell on the earth, and to every nation, and
kindred, and tongue, and people,

The
word "forever" or "everlasting" in Scripture means the entire length
or duration of the nature of something. If the nature of something is
immortal then the word "forever" must mean eternity but if the nature
of a something is only temporal then the word "forever" cannot mean
eternity.

That a word like "forever", "can" mean what you want it to
mean, in some contexts, does not mean it, and all related
words in every context, _must_ therefore mean _only_ what you
need to maintain your desired conclusion about the eternal
destruction of the lost. And how convenient, isn't it, that
with your strained interpretation, the lost get to avoid hell,
as it has been clearly understood?!
You are simply trying to reason your way around what the Bible
plainly states, and that is why you have to labor with long
filibusters, to attack the common understanding of the words
and context of Scripture, until they can only mean what you
want. That this MO is what is required to pass off the
glaring preterist contradictions to the plainest teachings of
Scripture, is itself an indictment of your lies.
Matthew 25:41 Then shall he say also unto them on the left
hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire,
prepared for the devil and his angels:
Notice, it is not the duration of the lives of the beings
being thrown into it, which are at issue, but the fire itself.
The fire was "prepared" as "everlasting" fire, and the beings
are being thrown into it.
Your attempt, above, to attack the word "forever", until it
means just as long as it takes for the person to expire,
doesn't change the fact that it is the fire itself which is
said to be everlasting. God would not have to prepare an
"everlasting" fire, if the beings who were thrown into it were
immediately annihilated.
Or are we to understand that God, after creating everything
instantly, out of nothing, has to go through some lengthy
process (but not too long, unless the thought of hell without
Christ becomes intolerable to you) in order to annihilate
someone?
Or maybe you are suggesting a finite being is capable, by a
finite amount of suffering in hell, to render a payment for
the infinite debt of their sins?
Or are we to conclude that the reason God specifies
"everlasting" destruction, is really just to make it clear
that He won't change His mind later, then bring people back
from annihilation, to enjoy eternal life with Him? <snicker>
2 Thessalonians 1:9 Who shall be punished with everlasting
destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory
of his power;
No, it says they will be punished with everlasting
destruction, because it means they will never stop being
destroyed.
Preterists are just trying to come up with a solution which
allows them to escape eternal damnation without trusting
Christ, and thereby rob God of some glory.

For example, we read in Exodus 21:6 that certain servants
were to serve their masters forever. Certainly this cannot mean for
eternity! Instead, it must mean the entire life spans of the servants.
In some passages of Scripture the word for "everlasting" or "forever"
in the original language has been translated as "long" or "old" by
Bible translators. This is true not only for the King James Version
but also for other versions of the Bible. Therefore, since the words
"forever" and "everlasting" in Scrpture can mean either eternity or
the entire temporal length, duration, or age of a thing our only way
of determining which meaning applies is by studying the context of
Scripture.

So now you will have to labor to get from "it's possible for
it to mean what I want" in some contexts, to "it must only
mean what I want in every context that relates to the eternal
destination of the lost". And all so you can find a
convenient means to escape eternal damnation, other than
through faith in Christ!

Another example is in Jude 6 we read the angels "which
kept not their first estate are reserved in everlasting chains under
darkness unto the judgment of the great day." As John L. Bray says,
"How long does the word 'everlasting' represent here? Only 'unto' ( or
until) the time of their judgment at the great day. They were to be
cast ultimately into the lake of fire (Matthew 25:41) which fire is
'everlasting' ('aionios' --pertaining in this case to that age to
come). The everlasting chains pertained to one age, while the
everlasting fire pertained to another age."

That eternal chains are the means of restraining these
creatures unto judgment day, does not mean the chains must
therefore be removed and cease to exist, before the creatures
can be thrown into the lake of fire. Trying to escape eternal
torment by some means other than the death and resurrection of
Christ, will be eternally fatal.

Since the wicked in hell
will not be immortal and the Scripture says that they will ultimately
be destroyed,

Where does the Bible anywhere say that the soul of the damned
will, at some point, cease to exist? You are trying to impose
that understanding on words that are clearly understood to
intend an everlasting, eternal condition, and not a brief
annihilation:
2 Thessalonians 1:9 Who shall be punished with everlasting
destruction <3639> from the presence of the Lord, and from the
glory of his power;
What's the point of specifying "everlasting" destruction, if
it only takes a moment to destroy something, and that means
that it immediately ceases to exist?
Or are we to understand that if they hadn't used the word
"everlasting", we might have thought God would later have
changed His mind, and have brought them back to enjoy eternal
life with Him?
Or maybe God just can't find a way to annihilate them quickly,
so it becomes an extended process, that requires some time?
Oh, but wait, not too long, because then you wouldn't be able
to tolerate the idea of rejecting Christ as Savior! How long
does it take God to annihilate something He instantly created
out of nothing?
Or are you suggesting that a finite amount of suffering, by
some human soul, is, after all, capable of rendering a
sufficient payment for the infinite debt of their sins?
See how ridiculous it is to try and feign that "everlasting"
really only means the amount of time that it takes to destroy
the creature? And wow! The lost now get to escape eternal
damnation on their own merits, while rejecting Christ as
Savior! How convenient and glorious (and what a relief!) for
all Christ rejecting sinners!
No, "destroyed" is not, as your lie requires, obligated to
mean a once-and-for-all annihilation that occurs at a specific
point in time, with the result that the object of destruction
then ceases to exist. Destruction means ruin, and things can
be ruined or suffer a state of ruin indefinitely.
For example, 2 Peter 3 says the earth which now is, which was
created by the word of God, with land rising out of water, was
previously destroyed by the flood. If that mean it was
annihilated, and ceased to exist, then there would have been
no earth left after the flood.
No, fact is, neither the words nor the context of passages
describing the everlasting destruction of the lost, require or
even suggest it is a brief, once for all annihilation, and to
do so would mean that eternal life could also be terminated at
some point in time, and that men's suffering could pay for the
infinite debt of their sins.

then their conscious suffering cannot be eternal. Their
conscious suffering (which precedes their eternal destruction) is
"forever" only in the sense that they will suffer for their individual
sins for the entire duration or period of this phase of judgment after
which they will suffer eternal destruction (or death) which is the
ultimate penalty for sin itself.

You again assume "destruction" means "annihilation", when it
does not. The Bible nowhere says or teaches that damned souls
will merely be punished _until_ it's time for them to be
annihilated, it says they will be punished *_with_*
everlasting destruction (2 Thess. 1:9).
Further, the implication your lie is that a sinful, finite
person _can_ pay the infinite debt of their sins, with a
certain amount of finite suffering. That again is an attempt
to rob Christ of glory for the infinite value of His death and
resurrection.

What about the phrase "forever and ever" in Scripture? The
same principle applies here. The reason for why the word "ever" is
used a second time in the phrase is for the purpose of emphasis. This
is common in Biblical language such as when Christ, in the Gospels,
frequently uses the phrase, "Verily, verily I say unto you..." The
second use of the word "verily" in the phrase is strictly for
emphasis. The second use of these words does not, in any way, add to
the meaning or length of the first "verily" or the first "forever" in
the phrases.
Even the Devil (Satan) will be eternally annihilated or
destroyed. We read a description of Satan's ultimate eternal
annihilation or destruction in Ezekiel 28:14-19. Although this passage
is immediately addressed to the ancient King of Tyre (verse 11), it is
clear from the context of the passage that God is speaking to Satan
(the evil spirit behind the King of Tyre) because the descriptions
given cannot fit that of any human being or human king. In fact, the
passage says that the Devil will be "no more" (verse 19). Is there any
stronger language for annihilation or destruction?
Regarding now the justice of God we must
acknowledge that God is absolutely sovereign. God can satisfy His
eternal holiness and justice in whatever way He pleases. God's holy
and righteous wrath is not an end in itself, but rather God's holy and
righteous wrath is a means to an end - that end being the total
destruction of both sin and sinner. It is in this way that God's
eternal justice is glorified. A righteous and holy God will not allow
both sin and sinner to exist for eternity. According to Ephesians 1:
9- 1 1 God's ultimate purpose is a universe which is in total harmony
with His moral character and nature, and when this happens God will be
"all in all" (1 Corinthians 15:28). But how can this be if those in
gehenna (the Lake of Fire) continue for eternity in conscious sin and
rebellion against God? In addition, we must ever keep in mind that
although God is just He is not cruel. If eternal conscious torment of
the wicked is not necessary to satisfy God's eternal justice then to
inflict such conscious torment for eternity upon all the unsaved
whether young or old would be a great form of cruelty and torture.
Such cruelty and torture are characteristics of the pagan gods towards
their enemies. The lovely and beautiful character of the true God must
not be marred by unbiblical and corrupt notions of hell. Far from
God's glory being diminished, the Biblical truth and doctrine of
eternal annihilation of the wicked supremely glorifies God's eternal
justice in the eternal destruction of both sin and sinner. The fact
that God does not punish beyond what is necessary also greatly
glorifies His lovely character in the administration of His eternal
justice. Glory be to God! Again, I say, Glory be to God!
But, if all men are created in the image of God does it
not then follow that all men must be as immortal as God? Being created
in the image of God does not necessarily mean we must possess anything
and everything that God possess. God is all powerful is He not? Does
that then mean man must also be all powerful because man is created in
God's image? Theologians refer to the attributes of God as
communicable (that which can be transferred to the creature) and
incommunicable (that which cannot be transferred to the creature).
But, even this does not mean that all of God's communicable attributes
must be communicated or transferred to those created in His image. The
Bible is clear that immortality (an attribute of God) is communicable
but will not be communicated (given) to humans except on Resurrection
Day and then only to those who have placed their faith in Jesus Christ
as their personal Lord and Savior. The fact is it is precisely because
man is created in God's divine image and because God infinitely
repects His image that He will not all allow sinful man to bear that
image for eternity. God will not allow those whom He created in His
image to exist for eternity in sin for that would just be a mockery of
His image!
We must base our views of hell and the after life on what
the Bible teaches, not on tradition or mere human philosophies and
opinions. We must not impose our philosophy of what God ought to be
upon Holy Scripture! Not many people realize the fact that in the New
Testament there are different Greek words for the word "hell." But
unfortunately the English Bible translates these different words for
hell as one word, and this has been a cause of much confusion for
those who wish to study the subject. The New Testament Greek words for
hell are "hades" and "gehenna" and they both have different meanings.
Hades means the unseen world of the dead and is only a temporary
abode. It has nothing to do with punishment or reward. It is
equivalent to the Hebrew word "sheol" in the Old Testament in its
meaning. Gehenna, on the other hand, is the abode of punishment for
the wicked.

The story of the Rich Man and Lazarus in Luke 16 has often
been used by many Christians, especially preachers, as a depiction of
the punishment that the wicked will suffer in hell. But this is not
the case. In the first place when Jesus refers to the Rich Man being
in torment in the flame of hell the Greek word for "hell" in the
passage is not "gehenna" (the place of final and eternal punishment),
but rather it is the Greek word "hades" (which in Scripture is the
temporary abode of the dead).

The story of the Rich Man and Lazarus, like the other series
of parables before it, was used of the Lord to illustrate or depict
the end of the rule of the pharisees and to depict the end of the
Jewish Era and dispensation (as represented by the Rich Man being in
torment) and it was also used of the Lord to depict or illustrate the
elevation of Gentile Christendom (as represented by Lazarus).
Actually, Lazarus represented the poor Jews of Jesus' time who were
ignored by the self-righteous religious leaders of Israel and he also
represented the gentiles who, although rejected by the Jewish leaders,
would nevertheless be accepted into the bosom of Abraham through their
new found faith in Jesus Christ as the Messiah. The religious leaders
of Israel had lived only for themselves and ignored the spiritual
needs of the spiritually sick and starving people around them.

The concept that hades was a place divided into two
compartments, one of suffering for the wicked and the other of bliss
for the rigtheous, was a Jewish belief that had developed during the
intertestamental period, the period of time in between when the Old
and New Testaments were written. Thus, this particular view of hades
was not canonical, that is it was not something that God Himself had
revealed to the Jews through Scripture. There is no evidence in
Scripture that hades is a place where the wicked suffer while awaiting
final judgment in gehenna (the Lake of Fire). Such a concept of hades
developed as a result of ancient Greek influences on Jewish thinking
about the nature of the soul.

In the parable of the Rich Man and Lazarus, Jesus was simply
borrowing this popular Jewish folklore of hades to use as an
illustration to make a point to the pharisees and religious leaders of
His day, but He was not necessarily endorsing the folklore as being
doctrinally valid or correct. There are various passages in the Old
Testament, such as in Psalms, that tell us that there is no
consciousness in sheol (the Hebrew equivalent of hades in the Old
Testament).

Some argue that the story of the Rich Man and Lazarus is not
a parable because Jesus did not formally introduce it as a parable.
But, Jesus did not always formally introduce His stories as parables,
and there are various examples of that in the Gospels. Now, it is true
that in His parables Jesus used things that actually existed to fill
in for illustrations and figures, but in the particular case of the
parable of the Rich Man and Lazarus the Lord used a popular existing
Jewish myth about hades for the purposes of constructing a story.

Christian pastor and teacher