| Topic: |
Religions > Bible |
| User: |
"Pastor Dave" |
| Date: |
18 Aug 2007 10:28:01 AM |
| Object: |
The Error of the Greek Church |
The Error of the Greek Church, which persists today
in the Gentile Churches!
Timothy James
The belief in the failure of Christ’s prophecies stem from
the attempts of a Gentile-dominated church after A.D. 70
trying to understand Jewish concepts. This lack of
understanding should not amaze us, for most of the Jewish
world misunderstood the prophecies of His first coming,
so why should we expect any difference in recognition
of His second coming by Gentile interpreters?
If any literature was written by them after the fall of
Jerusalem that taught the return of Christ in that event,
there is good reason to believe that it was suppressed or
beyond the understanding of the dominant Gentile church.
Careful study of Rabbinic sources shows that the remnant
of the Jewish nation actively destroyed all apocalyptic
works speaking of an imminent end after A.D. 70 because
of its embarrassment to them. Hence, suppression of
Jewish/Christian material referring to fulfilled imminence
was a most likely target of this group also.
Another factor related to this is N. B. Stonehouse’s mention
of a definite division in the church after A.D. 70. Syrian
Christianity was isolated from the Greek world because of
its Aramaic language. This barrier caused a more pure line
of understanding and tradition. Therefore, the Greek church
considered the Syrian church "heretical" because they
rejected the Greek’s sensual chiliasm and held to a
spiritual/figurative understanding of Jewish/Christian
apocalyptic.
This distaste for sensual chiliasm was a major factor in
their total rejection of the Apocalypse in the early Syrian
texts and canon.
It wasn’t till later that Revelation was added, and then
with a heading that placed its date in reign of Nero,
before the A.D. 70 event.
Interpretation of Scripture by the Gentile-dominated church
was caught up in the idea of a physical return and a literal
interpretation of the very figurative Jewish apocalyptic
language found in the book of Revelation and other OT
& NT prophecies.
Yet, even in the early church, Christ’s return was seen
by the Jewish Christians to be a spiritual change in
the authority of the Kingdom. Such can be seen in
the "jumping the gun" of the early church in the teaching
that the Lord had come before A.D. 70, (II Thess. 2:1-2).
This premature teaching was dangerous to the early church
since it implied an acceptance of the Temple cultus, thus
putting Christianity in the category of just a new sect of
Judaism, rather than the fulfillment of the whole thing.
The fact that they believed the Lord had come before A.D. 70
shows that they interpreted His return as a spiritual coming
in the early church. Even though they were premature,
it only supports our early research that they expected
His return just as He said, in that generation.
There are only two main verses that have loosely been used
to assume a physical return of Christ by the Greek-dominated
church.
The first is Acts 1:9-11 (the Ascension), "he was taken up;
and a cloud received him out of their sight". After this
the two angels reassured the disciples saying, "this same
Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so
come in like manner as you have seen him go into heaven"
(emphasis mine, tj).
The emphasis here is not on the transfigured form, but on
the manner in which he ascended and would return, "in a
cloud". This event was a reaffirmation of Jesus’ being the
apocalyptic "Son of Man" spoken of in Daniel and the
Gospels. That he, "the Son of Man", came with the clouds
of heaven (Daniel 7:13), is later emphatically stated to be
fulfilled in His return, in numerous places (Matt.16:27f;
24:30; Mark 13:26; and Luke 21:27).
The second verse under consideration is Revelation 1:7.
"Behold, he cometh in the clouds and every eye shall see
him, every one which pierced him: and all the kindred
of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.".
Here one finds the same apocalyptic "Son of Man" imagery
regarding His "coming in the clouds". The language of
the text shows that literally, those that would see him
were even who had "pierced him", namely the Jews
(Acts 2:23,36; 5:30).
In His parousia in judgment on the Jewish theocracy,
those that had rejected Him would now "see" the truth
of Jesus’ claims and their error, i.e. a nationalistic
expectation of the Kingdom (Matthew 26:64).
Truly, upon a close investigation of the subject, there are
not any verses in the New Testament that point to any other
manner of coming other than a spiritual parousia of Christ
in a judgment of God’s enemies at the redemptive-historical
end-time of the Old Covenant system.
In fulfilling this event, the bondage of the non-occurence
theory is vanquished.
(Chapter 13 of his book, "THE MESSIAH’S RETURN, Delayed?
Fulfilled? Or Double-Fulfillment?)
http://www.preteristarchive.com/StudyArchive/t/theory_parousia-delay.html
--
A liberal is someone who will give away everything
except his/her own possessions.
.
|
|
| User: "Fred A Stover" |
|
| Title: Re: The Error of the Greek Church |
18 Aug 2007 02:17:37 PM |
|
|
"Pastor Knave" < SATAN @nowhere.com> wrote in message
news:0r2ec31psd3cqp2odlli0mikkg4dc7jrrv@4ax.com...
The Error of the Greek Church, which persists today
No, it's the error of Pastor Knave's Geek church: Josephus and Tacitus are
canon, and the salvation of all Israel was the destruction of Jerusalem in
70 AD.
Satan, you're an idiot!
His,
--
http://tinyurl.com/2hf6ak
ho echon hota akoueto Preparing the way of the Lord
Verily I say unto you, Whosoever shall not receive the kingdom of God as a
little child, he shall not enter therein. (Matt 10:15)
<)))))))><
Timothy James
The belief in the failure of Christ's prophecies stem from
the attempts of a Gentile-dominated church after A.D. 70
trying to understand Jewish concepts. This lack of
understanding should not amaze us, for most of the Jewish
world misunderstood the prophecies of His first coming,
so why should we expect any difference in recognition
of His second coming by Gentile interpreters?
If any literature was written by them after the fall of
Jerusalem that taught the return of Christ in that event,
there is good reason to believe that it was suppressed or
beyond the understanding of the dominant Gentile church.
Careful study of Rabbinic sources shows that the remnant
of the Jewish nation actively destroyed all apocalyptic
works speaking of an imminent end after A.D. 70 because
of its embarrassment to them. Hence, suppression of
Jewish/Christian material referring to fulfilled imminence
was a most likely target of this group also.
Another factor related to this is N. B. Stonehouse's mention
of a definite division in the church after A.D. 70. Syrian
Christianity was isolated from the Greek world because of
its Aramaic language. This barrier caused a more pure line
of understanding and tradition. Therefore, the Greek church
considered the Syrian church "heretical" because they
rejected the Greek's sensual chiliasm and held to a
spiritual/figurative understanding of Jewish/Christian
apocalyptic.
This distaste for sensual chiliasm was a major factor in
their total rejection of the Apocalypse in the early Syrian
texts and canon.
It wasn't till later that Revelation was added, and then
with a heading that placed its date in reign of Nero,
before the A.D. 70 event.
Interpretation of Scripture by the Gentile-dominated church
was caught up in the idea of a physical return and a literal
interpretation of the very figurative Jewish apocalyptic
language found in the book of Revelation and other OT
& NT prophecies.
Yet, even in the early church, Christ's return was seen
by the Jewish Christians to be a spiritual change in
the authority of the Kingdom. Such can be seen in
the "jumping the gun" of the early church in the teaching
that the Lord had come before A.D. 70, (II Thess. 2:1-2).
This premature teaching was dangerous to the early church
since it implied an acceptance of the Temple cultus, thus
putting Christianity in the category of just a new sect of
Judaism, rather than the fulfillment of the whole thing.
The fact that they believed the Lord had come before A.D. 70
shows that they interpreted His return as a spiritual coming
in the early church. Even though they were premature,
it only supports our early research that they expected
His return just as He said, in that generation.
There are only two main verses that have loosely been used
to assume a physical return of Christ by the Greek-dominated
church.
The first is Acts 1:9-11 (the Ascension), "he was taken up;
and a cloud received him out of their sight". After this
the two angels reassured the disciples saying, "this same
Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so
come in like manner as you have seen him go into heaven"
(emphasis mine, tj).
The emphasis here is not on the transfigured form, but on
the manner in which he ascended and would return, "in a
cloud". This event was a reaffirmation of Jesus' being the
apocalyptic "Son of Man" spoken of in Daniel and the
Gospels. That he, "the Son of Man", came with the clouds
of heaven (Daniel 7:13), is later emphatically stated to be
fulfilled in His return, in numerous places (Matt.16:27f;
24:30; Mark 13:26; and Luke 21:27).
The second verse under consideration is Revelation 1:7.
"Behold, he cometh in the clouds and every eye shall see
him, every one which pierced him: and all the kindred
of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.".
Here one finds the same apocalyptic "Son of Man" imagery
regarding His "coming in the clouds". The language of
the text shows that literally, those that would see him
were even who had "pierced him", namely the Jews
(Acts 2:23,36; 5:30).
In His parousia in judgment on the Jewish theocracy,
those that had rejected Him would now "see" the truth
of Jesus' claims and their error, i.e. a nationalistic
expectation of the Kingdom (Matthew 26:64).
Truly, upon a close investigation of the subject, there are
not any verses in the New Testament that point to any other
manner of coming other than a spiritual parousia of Christ
in a judgment of God's enemies at the redemptive-historical
end-time of the Old Covenant system.
In fulfilling this event, the bondage of the non-occurence
theory is vanquished.
(Chapter 13 of his book, "THE MESSIAH'S RETURN, Delayed?
Fulfilled? Or Double-Fulfillment?)
http://www.preteristarchive.com/StudyArchive/t/theory_parousia-delay.html
--
A liberal is someone who will give away everything
except his/her own possessions.
.
|
|
|
|
| User: "®andy" |
|
| Title: Re: The Error of the Greek Church |
18 Aug 2007 11:26:09 AM |
|
|
On Sat, 18 Aug 2007 11:28:01 -0400,
in article <0r2ec31psd3cqp2odlli0mikkg4dc7jrrv@4ax.com>,
Pastor Dave <noone@nowhere.com> wrote:
The belief in the failure of Christ’s prophecies
You're an hypocritical liar. You claim that if Christ came to
be the king of Israel, and was rejected, that makes him and
his program a failure. But since the Jews rejected Him not
only as King, but as Savior, your own standard would require
that Jesus is a failed Savior.
Fact is, being rejected once doesn't make Him a failure as
King of Israel, any more than people who die and go to hell
makes Him a failed Savoir. He will come again, and turn the
heart of Israel, so she will accept Him as king.
©2007 pulpitfire.net, pulpitfire.org, pulpitfire.com
--
We demolish arguments and every pretension that sets itself
up against the knowledge of God, and we take captive every
thought to make it obedient to Christ. †2 Corinthians 10:5
Christ died for our sins, and God raised Him from the dead.
Rely on this work alone to escape hell and receive eternal
life (Jn. 3:16; 1 Cor. 15:1-3; Eph. 2:8-10; 2 Thess. 1:8-9).
.
|
|
|
|
| User: "vince garcia" |
|
| Title: Re: The Error of the Greek Church |
20 Aug 2007 07:55:41 AM |
|
|
Pastor Dave wrote:
The Error of the Greek Church, which persists today
in the Gentile Churches!
Timothy James
The belief in the failure of Christ’s prophecies stem from
the attempts of a Gentile-dominated church after A.D. 70
trying to understand Jewish concepts. This lack of
understanding should not amaze us, for most of the Jewish
world misunderstood the prophecies of His first coming,
so why should we expect any difference in recognition
of His second coming by Gentile interpreters?
If any literature was written by them after the fall of
Jerusalem that taught the return of Christ in that event,
there is good reason to believe that it was suppressed or
beyond the understanding of the dominant Gentile church.
Careful study of Rabbinic sources shows that the remnant
of the Jewish nation actively destroyed all apocalyptic
works speaking of an imminent end after A.D. 70 because
of its embarrassment to them. Hence, suppression of
Jewish/Christian material referring to fulfilled imminence
was a most likely target of this group also.
Another factor related to this is N. B. Stonehouse’s mention
of a definite division in the church after A.D. 70. Syrian
Christianity was isolated from the Greek world because of
its Aramaic language. This barrier caused a more pure line
of understanding and tradition. Therefore, the Greek church
considered the Syrian church "heretical" because they
rejected the Greek’s sensual chiliasm and held to a
spiritual/figurative understanding of Jewish/Christian
apocalyptic.
This distaste for sensual chiliasm was a major factor in
their total rejection of the Apocalypse in the early Syrian
texts and canon.
It wasn’t till later that Revelation was added, and then
with a heading that placed its date in reign of Nero,
before the A.D. 70 event.
Interpretation of Scripture by the Gentile-dominated church
was caught up in the idea of a physical return and a literal
interpretation of the very figurative Jewish apocalyptic
language found in the book of Revelation and other OT
& NT prophecies.
Yet, even in the early church, Christ’s return was seen
by the Jewish Christians to be a spiritual change in
the authority of the Kingdom. Such can be seen in
the "jumping the gun" of the early church in the teaching
that the Lord had come before A.D. 70, (II Thess. 2:1-2).
This premature teaching was dangerous to the early church
since it implied an acceptance of the Temple cultus, thus
putting Christianity in the category of just a new sect of
Judaism, rather than the fulfillment of the whole thing.
The fact that they believed the Lord had come before A.D. 70
shows that they interpreted His return as a spiritual coming
in the early church. Even though they were premature,
it only supports our early research that they expected
His return just as He said, in that generation.
There are only two main verses that have loosely been used
to assume a physical return of Christ by the Greek-dominated
church.
The first is Acts 1:9-11 (the Ascension), "he was taken up;
and a cloud received him out of their sight". After this
the two angels reassured the disciples saying, "this same
Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so
come in like manner as you have seen him go into heaven"
(emphasis mine, tj).
The emphasis here is not on the transfigured form, but on
the manner in which he ascended and would return, "in a
cloud". This event was a reaffirmation of Jesus’ being the
apocalyptic "Son of Man" spoken of in Daniel and the
Gospels. That he, "the Son of Man", came with the clouds
of heaven (Daniel 7:13), is later emphatically stated to be
fulfilled in His return, in numerous places (Matt.16:27f;
24:30; Mark 13:26; and Luke 21:27).
The second verse under consideration is Revelation 1:7.
"Behold, he cometh in the clouds and every eye shall see
him, every one which pierced him: and all the kindred
of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.".
Here one finds the same apocalyptic "Son of Man" imagery
regarding His "coming in the clouds". The language of
the text shows that literally, those that would see him
were even who had "pierced him", namely the Jews
(Acts 2:23,36; 5:30).
In His parousia in judgment on the Jewish theocracy,
those that had rejected Him would now "see" the truth
of Jesus’ claims and their error, i.e. a nationalistic
expectation of the Kingdom (Matthew 26:64).
Truly, upon a close investigation of the subject, there are
not any verses in the New Testament that point to any other
manner of coming other than a spiritual parousia of Christ
in a judgment of God’s enemies at the redemptive-historical
end-time of the Old Covenant system.
In fulfilling this event, the bondage of the non-occurence
theory is vanquished.
(Chapter 13 of his book, "THE MESSIAH’S RETURN, Delayed?
Fulfilled? Or Double-Fulfillment?)
http://www.preteristarchive.com/StudyArchive/t/theory_parousia-delay.html
--
A liberal is someone who will give away everything
except his/her own possessions.
Interesting. SO you consider yourself to be more along the lines of the
Messianics who think a judaism/torah-based religion is more accurate
than Christianity of today?
.
|
|
|
| User: "Pastor Dave" |
|
| Title: Re: The Error of the Greek Church |
21 Aug 2007 12:58:34 PM |
|
|
On Mon, 20 Aug 2007 05:55:41 -0700, vince garcia
<vggarciaxx@ix.netcom.com> wrote:
Pastor Dave wrote:
The Error of the Greek Church, which persists today
in the Gentile Churches!
Timothy James
The belief in the failure of Christ’s prophecies stem from
the attempts of a Gentile-dominated church after A.D. 70
trying to understand Jewish concepts. This lack of
understanding should not amaze us, for most of the Jewish
world misunderstood the prophecies of His first coming,
so why should we expect any difference in recognition
of His second coming by Gentile interpreters?
If any literature was written by them after the fall of
Jerusalem that taught the return of Christ in that event,
there is good reason to believe that it was suppressed or
beyond the understanding of the dominant Gentile church.
Careful study of Rabbinic sources shows that the remnant
of the Jewish nation actively destroyed all apocalyptic
works speaking of an imminent end after A.D. 70 because
of its embarrassment to them. Hence, suppression of
Jewish/Christian material referring to fulfilled imminence
was a most likely target of this group also.
Another factor related to this is N. B. Stonehouse’s mention
of a definite division in the church after A.D. 70. Syrian
Christianity was isolated from the Greek world because of
its Aramaic language. This barrier caused a more pure line
of understanding and tradition. Therefore, the Greek church
considered the Syrian church "heretical" because they
rejected the Greek’s sensual chiliasm and held to a
spiritual/figurative understanding of Jewish/Christian
apocalyptic.
This distaste for sensual chiliasm was a major factor in
their total rejection of the Apocalypse in the early Syrian
texts and canon.
It wasn’t till later that Revelation was added, and then
with a heading that placed its date in reign of Nero,
before the A.D. 70 event.
Interpretation of Scripture by the Gentile-dominated church
was caught up in the idea of a physical return and a literal
interpretation of the very figurative Jewish apocalyptic
language found in the book of Revelation and other OT
& NT prophecies.
Yet, even in the early church, Christ’s return was seen
by the Jewish Christians to be a spiritual change in
the authority of the Kingdom. Such can be seen in
the "jumping the gun" of the early church in the teaching
that the Lord had come before A.D. 70, (II Thess. 2:1-2).
This premature teaching was dangerous to the early church
since it implied an acceptance of the Temple cultus, thus
putting Christianity in the category of just a new sect of
Judaism, rather than the fulfillment of the whole thing.
The fact that they believed the Lord had come before A.D. 70
shows that they interpreted His return as a spiritual coming
in the early church. Even though they were premature,
it only supports our early research that they expected
His return just as He said, in that generation.
There are only two main verses that have loosely been used
to assume a physical return of Christ by the Greek-dominated
church.
The first is Acts 1:9-11 (the Ascension), "he was taken up;
and a cloud received him out of their sight". After this
the two angels reassured the disciples saying, "this same
Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so
come in like manner as you have seen him go into heaven"
(emphasis mine, tj).
The emphasis here is not on the transfigured form, but on
the manner in which he ascended and would return, "in a
cloud". This event was a reaffirmation of Jesus’ being the
apocalyptic "Son of Man" spoken of in Daniel and the
Gospels. That he, "the Son of Man", came with the clouds
of heaven (Daniel 7:13), is later emphatically stated to be
fulfilled in His return, in numerous places (Matt.16:27f;
24:30; Mark 13:26; and Luke 21:27).
The second verse under consideration is Revelation 1:7.
"Behold, he cometh in the clouds and every eye shall see
him, every one which pierced him: and all the kindred
of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.".
Here one finds the same apocalyptic "Son of Man" imagery
regarding His "coming in the clouds". The language of
the text shows that literally, those that would see him
were even who had "pierced him", namely the Jews
(Acts 2:23,36; 5:30).
In His parousia in judgment on the Jewish theocracy,
those that had rejected Him would now "see" the truth
of Jesus’ claims and their error, i.e. a nationalistic
expectation of the Kingdom (Matthew 26:64).
Truly, upon a close investigation of the subject, there are
not any verses in the New Testament that point to any other
manner of coming other than a spiritual parousia of Christ
in a judgment of God’s enemies at the redemptive-historical
end-time of the Old Covenant system.
In fulfilling this event, the bondage of the non-occurence
theory is vanquished.
(Chapter 13 of his book, "THE MESSIAH’S RETURN, Delayed?
Fulfilled? Or Double-Fulfillment?)
http://www.preteristarchive.com/StudyArchive/t/theory_parousia-delay.html
Interesting. SO you consider yourself to be
more along the lines of the Messianics who
think a Judaism/Torah-based religion is
more accurate than Christianity of today?
I will say this without any ill will at all.
I have never said to follow the Torah. That would
be a legalistic approach to the Scriptures and to
Judaize it. The Law was nailed to the cross with
Christ. But there is a difference between trying
to Judaize Christianity and looking at the Scriptures
from a Jewish perspective, which would mean
the perspective of those Jews, in the time in
which they lived and how they viewed the
Old Testament Scriptures, which is what they
preached from. And even their New Testament
writings are based on those Old Testament
Scriptures and I don't think you realize just
how much of the New Testament is direct
quotes of the Old Testament and how much
more of it is alluding to various Old Testament
Scriptures.
And so, if what you got out of it is what you
responded with, then it is due to your ignorance.
That however can be cured. :)
And no, I am not saying you're stupid. Stupid
is far different from ignorant. Ignorant simply
means, "uninformed". And as I said, that can
be cured. :)
This is about looking at the Scriptures from
a Jewish perspective, not from a legalistic
perspective of how to worship Christ today.
The problem comes when trying to interpret Jewish
texts from a Gentile perspective. And that is how
Futurism started. You see, back then, with their
pagan religions that they were brought up with,
they worshipped what they could see. Jews were
considered foolish for worshipping an unseen God.
To Gentiles, it was about them and their time and
their physical world. Now read the texts without
any sense of how a Jew would interpret it, even
though it was a Jew that wrote it and it is easy
to see how the physical is what Futurists wait for
and is why they don't believe that Jesus kept His
promise to return within the same generation
and so, they try to reword any and all passages
which clearly teach a return within the same
generation and prove that the Apostles expected
His return within the same generation and they
try to perform all sorts of mental gymnastics
to get around these clear and simple passages.
They would rather try to say I don't believe in
what the Bible says, because I don't take as
physically literal Jesus flying through the sky
in a cloud and yet, they won't take literally
a simple statement of "this generation",
or "soon", or "quickly", etc.. (:
But the problem today, is pride, ego, arrogance
and vanity and it is rampant in the churches! (:
People today ACTUALLY BELIEVE that the
Apostles were wrong and that they are right
and that it's not a contradiction to say that
and to also say that they taught inerrantly.
Huh?
Allow me to give you an example.
Read the following verse as you would,
as a 21st century Gentile:
"The burden against Egypt. Behold, the Lord
rides on a swift cloud, and will come into Egypt;
The idols of Egypt will totter at His presence,
and the heart of Egypt will melt in its midst."
- Isaiah 19:1
This MUST be about Jesus' return one day, right?
I mean after all, it talks about the Lord riding a
cloud into Egypt. But wait, Jesus doesn't come
riding into Egypt, so how could this be?!?
The truth is, it is a FULFILLED prophecy and was
fulfilled in the 6th century BC. It has nothing to
do with the return of Jesus and was about when
God used the Assyrians to judge Egypt.
Now read the following verse as you normally do:
"...and they will see the Son of Man coming on
the clouds of heaven with power and great glory."
- Matthew 24:30b
Now you wait for this to happen physical and to
physically see Jesus in the sky and so, you utterly
reject the idea that He could have returned yet.
The reality is, no Jew would have interpreted it
that way and the Apostles were Jewish. And to
pretend that they taught like Gentiles, is to do a
disservice to the Holy Scriptures!
A Jew would have known that when this type of
statement is made, the Lord in the clouds simply
refers to His coming in judgment against someone.
Thus, when they heard/read Jesus' words, they
would not have expected Him to be physically
riding a cloud, any more than they thought that
God was actually seen riding a really fast cloud
over Egypt, back in the 6th century BC! :)
The fact is, that it is IMPOSSIBLE (and I do mean
IMPOSSIBLE) to understand the Scriptures and to
rightly divide the word of truth, if you do not know
these people, in that time and aren't intimately
familiar with the way that they thought, spoke,
wrote and lived.
The way you approach it now, is to say that it
doesn't matter. You're going to read them the
way that suits you and the Apostles be damned.
If you want it to be all physical, because you
want it to, then that's what it is, damn it! Right?
If you disagree with my assessment, then why
have you opposed everything I've said so far?
--
A liberal is someone who will give away everything
except his/her own possessions.
.
|
|
|
| User: "vince garcia" |
|
| Title: Re: The Error of the Greek Church |
21 Aug 2007 03:32:53 PM |
|
|
Pastor Dave wrote:
On Mon, 20 Aug 2007 05:55:41 -0700, vince garcia
<vggarciaxx@ix.netcom.com> wrote:
Pastor Dave wrote:
The Error of the Greek Church, which persists today
in the Gentile Churches!
Timothy James
The belief in the failure of Christ’s prophecies stem from
the attempts of a Gentile-dominated church after A.D. 70
trying to understand Jewish concepts. This lack of
understanding should not amaze us, for most of the Jewish
world misunderstood the prophecies of His first coming,
so why should we expect any difference in recognition
of His second coming by Gentile interpreters?
If any literature was written by them after the fall of
Jerusalem that taught the return of Christ in that event,
there is good reason to believe that it was suppressed or
beyond the understanding of the dominant Gentile church.
Careful study of Rabbinic sources shows that the remnant
of the Jewish nation actively destroyed all apocalyptic
works speaking of an imminent end after A.D. 70 because
of its embarrassment to them. Hence, suppression of
Jewish/Christian material referring to fulfilled imminence
was a most likely target of this group also.
Another factor related to this is N. B. Stonehouse’s mention
of a definite division in the church after A.D. 70. Syrian
Christianity was isolated from the Greek world because of
its Aramaic language. This barrier caused a more pure line
of understanding and tradition. Therefore, the Greek church
considered the Syrian church "heretical" because they
rejected the Greek’s sensual chiliasm and held to a
spiritual/figurative understanding of Jewish/Christian
apocalyptic.
This distaste for sensual chiliasm was a major factor in
their total rejection of the Apocalypse in the early Syrian
texts and canon.
It wasn’t till later that Revelation was added, and then
with a heading that placed its date in reign of Nero,
before the A.D. 70 event.
Interpretation of Scripture by the Gentile-dominated church
was caught up in the idea of a physical return and a literal
interpretation of the very figurative Jewish apocalyptic
language found in the book of Revelation and other OT
& NT prophecies.
Yet, even in the early church, Christ’s return was seen
by the Jewish Christians to be a spiritual change in
the authority of the Kingdom. Such can be seen in
the "jumping the gun" of the early church in the teaching
that the Lord had come before A.D. 70, (II Thess. 2:1-2).
This premature teaching was dangerous to the early church
since it implied an acceptance of the Temple cultus, thus
putting Christianity in the category of just a new sect of
Judaism, rather than the fulfillment of the whole thing.
The fact that they believed the Lord had come before A.D. 70
shows that they interpreted His return as a spiritual coming
in the early church. Even though they were premature,
it only supports our early research that they expected
His return just as He said, in that generation.
There are only two main verses that have loosely been used
to assume a physical return of Christ by the Greek-dominated
church.
The first is Acts 1:9-11 (the Ascension), "he was taken up;
and a cloud received him out of their sight". After this
the two angels reassured the disciples saying, "this same
Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so
come in like manner as you have seen him go into heaven"
(emphasis mine, tj).
The emphasis here is not on the transfigured form, but on
the manner in which he ascended and would return, "in a
cloud". This event was a reaffirmation of Jesus’ being the
apocalyptic "Son of Man" spoken of in Daniel and the
Gospels. That he, "the Son of Man", came with the clouds
of heaven (Daniel 7:13), is later emphatically stated to be
fulfilled in His return, in numerous places (Matt.16:27f;
24:30; Mark 13:26; and Luke 21:27).
The second verse under consideration is Revelation 1:7.
"Behold, he cometh in the clouds and every eye shall see
him, every one which pierced him: and all the kindred
of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.".
Here one finds the same apocalyptic "Son of Man" imagery
regarding His "coming in the clouds". The language of
the text shows that literally, those that would see him
were even who had "pierced him", namely the Jews
(Acts 2:23,36; 5:30).
In His parousia in judgment on the Jewish theocracy,
those that had rejected Him would now "see" the truth
of Jesus’ claims and their error, i.e. a nationalistic
expectation of the Kingdom (Matthew 26:64).
Truly, upon a close investigation of the subject, there are
not any verses in the New Testament that point to any other
manner of coming other than a spiritual parousia of Christ
in a judgment of God’s enemies at the redemptive-historical
end-time of the Old Covenant system.
In fulfilling this event, the bondage of the non-occurence
theory is vanquished.
(Chapter 13 of his book, "THE MESSIAH’S RETURN, Delayed?
Fulfilled? Or Double-Fulfillment?)
http://www.preteristarchive.com/StudyArchive/t/theory_parousia-delay.html
Interesting. SO you consider yourself to be
more along the lines of the Messianics who
think a Judaism/Torah-based religion is
more accurate than Christianity of today?
I will say this without any ill will at all.
I have never said to follow the Torah. That would
be a legalistic approach to the Scriptures and to
Judaize it. The Law was nailed to the cross with
Christ. But there is a difference between trying
to Judaize Christianity and looking at the Scriptures
from a Jewish perspective, which would mean
the perspective of those Jews, in the time in
which they lived and how they viewed the
Old Testament Scriptures, which is what they
preached from. And even their New Testament
writings are based on those Old Testament
Scriptures and I don't think you realize just
how much of the New Testament is direct
quotes of the Old Testament and how much
more of it is alluding to various Old Testament
Scriptures.
And so, if what you got out of it is what you
responded with, then it is due to your ignorance.
That however can be cured. :)
And no, I am not saying you're stupid. Stupid
is far different from ignorant. Ignorant simply
means, "uninformed". And as I said, that can
be cured. :)
This is about looking at the Scriptures from
a Jewish perspective, not from a legalistic
perspective of how to worship Christ today.
The problem comes when trying to interpret Jewish
texts from a Gentile perspective. And that is how
Futurism started. You see, back then, with their
pagan religions that they were brought up with,
they worshipped what they could see. Jews were
considered foolish for worshipping an unseen God.
To Gentiles, it was about them and their time and
their physical world. Now read the texts without
any sense of how a Jew would interpret it, even
though it was a Jew that wrote it and it is easy
to see how the physical is what Futurists wait for
and is why they don't believe that Jesus kept His
promise to return within the same generation
and so, they try to reword any and all passages
which clearly teach a return within the same
generation and prove that the Apostles expected
His return within the same generation and they
try to perform all sorts of mental gymnastics
to get around these clear and simple passages.
They would rather try to say I don't believe in
what the Bible says, because I don't take as
physically literal Jesus flying through the sky
in a cloud and yet, they won't take literally
a simple statement of "this generation",
or "soon", or "quickly", etc.. (:
But the problem today, is pride, ego, arrogance
and vanity and it is rampant in the churches! (:
People today ACTUALLY BELIEVE that the
Apostles were wrong and that they are right
and that it's not a contradiction to say that
and to also say that they taught inerrantly.
Huh?
Allow me to give you an example.
Read the following verse as you would,
as a 21st century Gentile:
"The burden against Egypt. Behold, the Lord
rides on a swift cloud, and will come into Egypt;
The idols of Egypt will totter at His presence,
and the heart of Egypt will melt in its midst."
- Isaiah 19:1
This MUST be about Jesus' return one day, right?
I mean after all, it talks about the Lord riding a
cloud into Egypt. But wait, Jesus doesn't come
riding into Egypt, so how could this be?!?
The truth is, it is a FULFILLED prophecy and was
fulfilled in the 6th century BC. It has nothing to
do with the return of Jesus and was about when
God used the Assyrians to judge Egypt.
Now read the following verse as you normally do:
"...and they will see the Son of Man coming on
the clouds of heaven with power and great glory."
- Matthew 24:30b
Now you wait for this to happen physical and to
physically see Jesus in the sky and so, you utterly
reject the idea that He could have returned yet.
The reality is, no Jew would have interpreted it
that way and the Apostles were Jewish. And to
pretend that they taught like Gentiles, is to do a
disservice to the Holy Scriptures!
A Jew would have known that when this type of
statement is made, the Lord in the clouds simply
refers to His coming in judgment against someone.
Thus, when they heard/read Jesus' words, they
would not have expected Him to be physically
riding a cloud, any more than they thought that
God was actually seen riding a really fast cloud
over Egypt, back in the 6th century BC! :)
except one could argue from rev 1:7 that it is literal and will be
viewed literally, though I acknowledge that is the book you really have
to be careful when you take something liteally
The fact is, that it is IMPOSSIBLE (and I do mean
IMPOSSIBLE) to understand the Scriptures and to
rightly divide the word of truth, if you do not know
these people, in that time and aren't intimately
familiar with the way that they thought, spoke,
wrote and lived.
The way you approach it now, is to say that it
doesn't matter. You're going to read them the
way that suits you and the Apostles be damned.
If you want it to be all physical, because you
want it to, then that's what it is, damn it! Right?
If you disagree with my assessment, then why
have you opposed everything I've said so far?
--
A liberal is someone who will give away everything
except his/her own possessions.
I can agree with most every point you made. I asked because you post in
a newsgroup filled with non-christian Jews, and jewish Chistians who
think that all people must follow the Law, so I was wondering if you're
into Law-keeping as a part of the faith.
I'm not. But there are people here who are
.
|
|
|
| User: "Pastor Dave" |
|
| Title: Re: The Error of the Greek Church |
21 Aug 2007 07:07:09 PM |
|
|
On Tue, 21 Aug 2007 13:32:53 -0700, vince garcia
<vggarciaxx@ix.netcom.com> wrote:
Pastor Dave wrote:
Interesting. SO you consider yourself to be
more along the lines of the Messianics who
think a Judaism/Torah-based religion is
more accurate than Christianity of today?
I will say this without any ill will at all.
I have never said to follow the Torah. That would
be a legalistic approach to the Scriptures and to
Judaize it. The Law was nailed to the cross with
Christ. But there is a difference between trying
to Judaize Christianity and looking at the Scriptures
from a Jewish perspective, which would mean
the perspective of those Jews, in the time in
which they lived and how they viewed the
Old Testament Scriptures, which is what they
preached from. And even their New Testament
writings are based on those Old Testament
Scriptures and I don't think you realize just
how much of the New Testament is direct
quotes of the Old Testament and how much
more of it is alluding to various Old Testament
Scriptures.
And so, if what you got out of it is what you
responded with, then it is due to your ignorance.
That however can be cured. :)
And no, I am not saying you're stupid. Stupid
is far different from ignorant. Ignorant simply
means, "uninformed". And as I said, that can
be cured. :)
This is about looking at the Scriptures from
a Jewish perspective, not from a legalistic
perspective of how to worship Christ today.
The problem comes when trying to interpret Jewish
texts from a Gentile perspective. And that is how
Futurism started. You see, back then, with their
pagan religions that they were brought up with,
they worshipped what they could see. Jews were
considered foolish for worshipping an unseen God.
To Gentiles, it was about them and their time and
their physical world. Now read the texts without
any sense of how a Jew would interpret it, even
though it was a Jew that wrote it and it is easy
to see how the physical is what Futurists wait for
and is why they don't believe that Jesus kept His
promise to return within the same generation
and so, they try to reword any and all passages
which clearly teach a return within the same
generation and prove that the Apostles expected
His return within the same generation and they
try to perform all sorts of mental gymnastics
to get around these clear and simple passages.
They would rather try to say I don't believe in
what the Bible says, because I don't take as
physically literal Jesus flying through the sky
in a cloud and yet, they won't take literally
a simple statement of "this generation",
or "soon", or "quickly", etc.. (:
But the problem today, is pride, ego, arrogance
and vanity and it is rampant in the churches! (:
People today ACTUALLY BELIEVE that the
Apostles were wrong and that they are right
and that it's not a contradiction to say that
and to also say that they taught inerrantly.
Huh?
Allow me to give you an example.
Read the following verse as you would,
as a 21st century Gentile:
"The burden against Egypt. Behold, the Lord
rides on a swift cloud, and will come into Egypt;
The idols of Egypt will totter at His presence,
and the heart of Egypt will melt in its midst."
- Isaiah 19:1
This MUST be about Jesus' return one day, right?
I mean after all, it talks about the Lord riding a
cloud into Egypt. But wait, Jesus doesn't come
riding into Egypt, so how could this be?!?
The truth is, it is a FULFILLED prophecy and was
fulfilled in the 6th century BC. It has nothing to
do with the return of Jesus and was about when
God used the Assyrians to judge Egypt.
Now read the following verse as you normally do:
"...and they will see the Son of Man coming on
the clouds of heaven with power and great glory."
- Matthew 24:30b
Now you wait for this to happen physical and to
physically see Jesus in the sky and so, you utterly
reject the idea that He could have returned yet.
The reality is, no Jew would have interpreted it
that way and the Apostles were Jewish. And to
pretend that they taught like Gentiles, is to do a
disservice to the Holy Scriptures!
A Jew would have known that when this type of
statement is made, the Lord in the clouds simply
refers to His coming in judgment against someone.
Thus, when they heard/read Jesus' words, they
would not have expected Him to be physically
riding a cloud, any more than they thought that
God was actually seen riding a really fast cloud
over Egypt, back in the 6th century BC! :)
except one could argue from rev 1:7 that it is
literal and will be viewed literally, though I
acknowledge that is the book you really have
to be careful when you take something liteally
Thank you for that admission. It was very wise.
As for Rev 1:7, if one argued that, then one
would be trying to fight Scripture with Scripture.
Is that the Christian approach and the proper
method of interpretation? (:
Think about it...
1) Isaiah 19:1 = Fulfilled.
2) Isaiah 19:1 has God riding on a cloud.
3) No one physically saw God riding on a cloud.
4) Christians (for the most part) claim that
Jesus was God walking Earth.
5) Jesus said that He would come in the clouds.
6) Being God manifested to us and Jesus being
the One who addressed the Jews of the OT
(see 1 Cor 10:1-4, for example) would have
spoken in the same manner God spoke to
His people.
7) Futurist Christians say it is physically literal,
which means that He must have been out
to totally confuse them and give them no
shot at it figuring it out, since He spoke to
Jews and came to the Jews (Mat 15:22-24)
and the Bible says that "God is not the author
of confusion".
Hmmm... You don't see a problem with this picture? :)
So what is the rule here? To use the language the same
way that the Bible shows it was used? Or to say that it
was symbolic then, but because it's about us today (so
you claim), now it's physically literal? Doesn't that seem
to be based on the vanity and ego of the person who
says that? "It has to be about me and my generation,
or the Bible is useless.". Huh??? What???
I say that we let Scripture interpret Scripture, instead of
just claiming to do it, until we see something we don't
like, amen?
With that in mind, let's look at Revelation 1:7 and see
what it actually does say.
"Behold, he cometh in the clouds and every eye shall see
him, every one which pierced him: and all the kindred
of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen."
1) The Greek word behind "see" can also be used to show
understanding. Or have you never said, "Oh, I see
what you're saying..." ???
"Therefore I speak to them in parables, because seeing
they do not see..." - Matthew 13:13a
2) Whom did it say would "see Him"? It says that it
would be "they who pierced Him". Now when did
they live? In the first century, in the same generation
that Christ lived in. Thus, we have those who
pierced Him, seeing Him coming.
Now some will try to say, "Oh, this happens after
the resurrection!". But we both know that the Bible
teaches that He is seen coming and then after that,
the resurrection happens. Thus, it happens before
the generation alive at that time dies off.
Now this is what the Scriptures says, not me. I didn't
make this up and I didn't write it.
You see, the Futurists have been so brainwashed into
glossing right over any words that don't support their
doctrine (no offense) that they do not even see these
words. "Seeing they do not see". (:
The time frame is given right in that same verse!
And let us not forget that Revelation starts and ends
by saying that it will happen soon, that THE TIME is
"at hand" and that Jesus is "coming quickly". And
John is specifically told NOT to seal his book, because
the time is at hand!
And let us please look at what Jesus said in Matthew
and let us note that we both know that Rev 22:12 is
about the return of Christ in judgment and note the
almost word for word repeat between what Jesus
said in Matthew and what He said in Revelation and
He placed it within the lifetime of the disciples.
I am going to use the LITV, because it is a very literal
translation. You see, what a lot of people don't know
about, is the urgency stated in the New Testament.
Lots of times, when it is translated as "shall be",
or "shall come", the actual Greek word behind it is,
"mello" and that word means, "being about to be".
It is about to happen!!!
Ever wonder why Felix trembled so much, when Paul
told him about the judgment? It wasn't because Paul
was preaching about the judgment that may even be
thousands of years off. Nor was it even because he
had preached about the judgment. As Paul said to
him, he (Felix) already knew about the way of the
Jews and their religion. So that wouldn't scare him.
It was because Paul, literally translated, said to Felix,
"The judgment ABOUT TO BE/HAPPEN!". THAT'S
why Felix trembled! :) Look it up for yourself. :)
Anyway, back to Matthew and Revelation...
Matthew 16:27-28 [LITV]
27) For the Son of Man is ABOUT TO COME with His angels
in the glory of His Father. And then He will give reward to
each according to his practice.
"And, behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is
with Me, to give to each as his work is." - Rev 22:12
28) Truly I say to you, There are some STANDING HERE
who will NOT taste of death, never, until they see the Son
of Man coming in His Kingdom.
You see, it doesn't say, "the Son of man will come" (v27),
as in some distant future thing and that is simply a bad
translation.
The Greek word there is "mello", which actually means,
"be(ing) about to be". It speaks of immanency.
And lest we try to play word games and claim that "imminent"
means, "could be far off, but when it happens, it'll happen
quickly" (which we all know isn't what "imminent" means,
but it gets redefined as that when people open their
Bibles), let us pay attention to what the Greek really says.
It actually says, "about to be". It was about to happen!
And let us notice what else Jesus said, since He also said
that there were some STANDING THERE that would NOT
die, before He returned in His Kingdom!
Let us also note the comparison to Rev 22:12, which no one
argues isn't about the Second Coming. We all know that it
is. But do we take the time to note the similarity in words
with Mat 16:27 above?
Mat - He is about to come.
Rev - He is coming quickly.
Mat - He will give His reward.
Rev - His reward is with Him.
Mat - He will give these rewards to them according
to their practice.
Rev - He will give these rewards to each according
to their practice.
It is clear by these passages, that Jesus was telling
His disciples that His return would not be far off and
that some (at least one, but not most) standing there
would still be alive when He returned. There is no
way around these facts, if one is honest with oneself
about what the Bible says in these passages.
And now let's read what else He said about it...
"Assuredly, I say to you, this generation will by no
means pass away till all these things take place."
- Matthew 24:34
And that Greek word, that is translated into "Assuredly",
is very emphatic! It is as if He is staking His entire
credibility on this statement!
Now we can add words and try to claim that we know
"what Jesus REALLY meant", or we can just believe Him!
And lest someone say that Matthew 16:27-28 is about
some other event, let us remember that it is quoted by
Futurists as if it were speaking of His Second Coming,
until this problem is pointed out, which is true, but it
does not leave you the option of now claiming that it
was about the Transfiguration, nor Pentecost, which
is the fall back position of the Futurists, when they are
shown what He actually said.
No offense, Vince. I'm not trying to attack you. I'm just
stating what is true.
But let's take a quick look at those events and remember
that if it is about one of those events, then *all* of the
factors much match!
Transfiguration: That was only days later and they were
all alive (Jesus said only "some" would be). There was
no coming in the glory of His Father and no angels with
Him and there was no rewarding according to their works.
Pentecost: That was right after His Ascension and only
one had died (Jesus said that only "some" would be alive,
not "most"). There was no coming in the glory of His
Father and no angels with Him and there was no rewarding
according to their works.
So neither of those events fits the requirements to be
considered as a fulfillment of that event. It is clear that
both Matthew 16:27-28 & Revelation 22:12 are talking
about the same event and that His return was to be quick,
before all of the disciples (later called "Apostles") died.
Now in my opinion Vince, this is the moment of truth
for you. This is when you get to define whether or not
you are going to handle Scripture honestly and rightly
divide the word of truth.
I know that you and others reading this see it. So I know
that you know that what is stated about these passages
above is correct, since I did not add to the word, but only
repeated it and compared it to itself. So it isn't a matter
of interpretation here. It is a matter of believing Him.
So will you believe Him? Or will you rebel against it,
because it doesn't fit your presupposed doctrine?
Which should we do? Filter our doctrines through Scripture?
Or filter Scripture through our doctrine? You must decide
this for yourself.
So it is your choice now, whether to believe the Scriptures
or not, since the wording is clear and is not mysterious.
Again, I'm not attacking you. I'm asking an honest
question here.
The fact is, that it is IMPOSSIBLE (and I do mean
IMPOSSIBLE) to understand the Scriptures and to
rightly divide the word of truth, if you do not know
these people, in that time and aren't intimately
familiar with the way that they thought, spoke,
wrote and lived.
The way you approach it now, is to say that it
doesn't matter. You're going to read them the
way that suits you and the Apostles be damned.
If you want it to be all physical, because you
want it to, then that's what it is, damn it! Right?
If you disagree with my assessment, then why
have you opposed everything I've said so far?
I can agree with most every point you made.
I asked because you post in a newsgroup filled
with non-christian Jews, and jewish Chistians
who think that all people must follow the Law,
so I was wondering if you're into Law-keeping
as a part of the faith.
I'm not. But there are people here who are
I can appreciate that and I understand what you're saying.
I would also like to say that i appreciate your reasoned
tone in your responses and I hope that you do not
perceive my responses as any sort of attack on you.
And I only went into the "how should we handle it"
part, because of your response about Rev 1:7 and
I know you are a Futurist. But I meant it to be an
honest question.
--
A liberal is someone who will give away everything
except his/her own possessions.
.
|
|
|
| User: "®andy" |
|
| Title: Re: The Error of the Greek Church |
21 Aug 2007 07:16:44 PM |
|
|
On Tue, 21 Aug 2007 20:07:09 -0400,
in article <gctmc39ti4kdcc8tip722mm4gsgs24aqnn@4ax.com>,
Pastor Dave <noone@nowhere.com> wrote:
except one could argue from rev 1:7 that it is
literal and will be viewed literally, though I
acknowledge that is the book you really have
to be careful when you take something liteally
Thank you for that admission. It was very wise.
http://www.pulpitfire.net/apologetics/bible/literal_interpretation.php
©2007 pulpitfire.net, pulpitfire.org, pulpitfire.com
--
We demolish arguments and every pretension that sets itself
up against the knowledge of God, and we take captive every
thought to make it obedient to Christ. †2 Corinthians 10:5
Christ died for our sins, and God raised Him from the dead.
Rely on this work alone to escape hell and receive eternal
life (Jn. 3:16; 1 Cor. 15:1-3; Eph. 2:8-10; 2 Thess. 1:8-9).
.
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|

|
Related Articles |
|
|