| Topic: |
Religions > Bible |
| User: |
"Bible-Truth Seeker" |
| Date: |
23 Nov 2004 07:57:47 PM |
| Object: |
The sodomy FRAUD C |
If you are having problems following the argument from the Hebrew and
Greek, I'll illustrate on the sin of fornication in the NT: ***** or
harlot is the Greek "porne", fornication is the related word
"porneia", whoremonger is the Greek "pornos", to commit fornication is
the verb "porneuo". That is what you must show to translate any Hebrew
or Greek word as "sodomite(s). So, where did the invention of the sin
of sodomy come from? I quote The New Shorter Oxford English
Dictionary, etymology as well as definition of "sodomy":
"ME. [med. L. sodomia, f. eccl. L peccatum Sodomiticum sin of
Sodom...Any form of sexual intercourse with a person of the same or
opposite sex, except for copulation; spec. anal intercourse. Also,
bestiality."
We see that "sodomy" is an invention of a church body in the middle
ages who invented it and said it was the "sin of Sodom". There is a
major problem here. The Lord GOD already gave us the sin of Sodom many
centuries before:
Ezekiel 16:48 As I live, saith the Lord GOD, Sodom thy sister hath
not done, she nor her daughters, as thou hast done, thou and thy
daughters.
49 Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fulness
of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters,
neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy.
50 And they were haughty, and committed abomination before me:
therefore I took them away as I saw good.
Remember, the English "abomination" is the Hebrew "to eba" which is
used overwhelmingly by Ezekiel of idolatrous conduct. So, we have
those speaking in ecclesiastical Latin contradicting God and his word.
What did our Lord Jesus Christ say about this?
"In vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments
of men. .... Full well ye reject the commandment of God, that ye may
keep your own tradition." Mark 7:7, 9
So, intelligent ones know the words homosexuality and homosexuals are
not Bible words and cannot legitimately translate any Hebrew or Greek
of the Bible. Now, you can be aware that the same holds for "sodomy"
and "sodomites".
Biblel-truth Seeker
.
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| User: "Michael" |
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| Title: Re: The sodomy FRAUD C |
01 Dec 2004 04:30:57 PM |
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In article <qkq7q015033vdn70ksc350egdkudhip5ac@4ax.com>, Bible-Truth
Seeker <auto201718@NOShushmail.com> wrote:
If you are having problems following the argument from the Hebrew and
Greek, I'll illustrate on the sin of fornication in the NT: ***** or
harlot is the Greek "porne", fornication is the related word
"porneia", whoremonger is the Greek "pornos", to commit fornication is
the verb "porneuo". That is what you must show to translate any Hebrew
or Greek word as "sodomite(s). So, where did the invention of the sin
of sodomy come from? I quote The New Shorter Oxford English
Dictionary, etymology as well as definition of "sodomy":
"ME. [med. L. sodomia, f. eccl. L peccatum Sodomiticum sin of
Sodom...Any form of sexual intercourse with a person of the same or
opposite sex, except for copulation; spec. anal intercourse. Also,
bestiality."
We see that "sodomy" is an invention of a church body in the middle
ages who invented it and said it was the "sin of Sodom".
We know, the church also sold indulgences to pre approved sin under the
same legalism that the Pharisees used. That is why there was a Great
reformation.
There is a
major problem here. The Lord GOD already gave us the sin of Sodom many
centuries before:
Ezekiel 16:48 As I live, saith the Lord GOD, Sodom thy sister hath
not done, she nor her daughters, as thou hast done, thou and thy
daughters.
49 Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fulness
of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters,
neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy.
50 And they were haughty, and committed abomination before me:
therefore I took them away as I saw good.
Remember, the English "abomination" is the Hebrew "to eba" which is
used overwhelmingly by Ezekiel of idolatrous conduct. So, we have
those speaking in ecclesiastical Latin contradicting God and his word.
How is an abomination defined by the statues of the 7th Commandment not
idolatrous conduct? Adultery, of any form, by the Bride of Christ against
any man in the Image of God is also the commission of a transgression of
the statues of 2nd Commandment and idolotry against the Bridegroom. There
is no inconsistency in the Scripture, just wishful thinking upon bad
exegensis.
..
What did our Lord Jesus Christ say about this?
"In vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments
of men. .... Full well ye reject the commandment of God, that ye may
keep your own tradition." Mark 7:7, 9
Sounds like perhaps you should heed our Lord's advice. Christ wrote the
Old Testament and gave the Law to Moses, where does He say that He made a
mistake?
So, intelligent ones
IOW, you are perhaps intolerant and perhaps heterophobic, bearing false
witness against the Word of God in transgression of the statues of the 9th
Commandment?
know the words homosexuality and homosexuals are
not Bible words
We already know that, Scripture was written in Hebrew, not English. No
English word is in Scripture. What is your point?
and cannot legitimately translate any Hebrew or Greek
of the Bible. Now, you can be aware that the same holds for "sodomy"
and "sodomites".
Based upon the evidence provided so far, not a chance.
Biblel-truth Seeker
--
May God Bless You
Michael
GROWING OLDER IS MANDATORY. GROWING UP IS OPTIONAL.
We make a Living by what we get, We make a Life by what we give.
.
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| User: "George Peatty" |
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| Title: Re: The sodomy FRAUD C |
24 Nov 2004 07:01:17 PM |
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On Tue, 23 Nov 2004 20:57:47 -0500, Bible-Truth Seeker
<auto201718@NOShushmail.com> wrote:
So, intelligent ones know the words homosexuality and homosexuals are
not Bible words and cannot legitimately translate any Hebrew or Greek
of the Bible. Now, you can be aware that the same holds for "sodomy"
and "sodomites".
Nonsense. The word yada in Gen 19:4-5 clearly can mean sexual sin, and
obviously does in context. Your claim that certain words translated
sodomite refer to male temple prostitutes is a distinction without a
difference. Any number of secular histories will show to document how they
"worshipped". Sexual expression is an integral part of virtually every
religion of antiquity. Do you know what an asherah pole is?
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