Why did God give us the bible?



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Topic: Religions > Bible
User: "Bible John"
Date: 07 Nov 2005 11:51:49 PM
Object: Why did God give us the bible?
If only the 4 gospels including the 3 synoptics was all we had to know
as christians? Sure Christ is all we need to know for salvation, but
God wants us to memorize and understand his entire bible after we are
saved.
John
--
CERM-Church Education Resource Ministries
http://johnw.freeshell.org/bible/
John 14:6 Jesus answered, ģI am the way and
the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father
except through me.
AIM-Crucifyself03
----== Posted via Newsfeeds.Com - Unlimited-Uncensored-Secure Usenet News==----
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.

User: "Read The Bible"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 16 Nov 2005 03:18:45 AM

Why did God give us the bible?

The holy scriptures (are) able to make thee wise unto
salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. All
scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is
profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction,
for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God
may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good
works.
Receive with meekness the engrafted word, which is
able to save your souls. But be ye doers of the word,
and not hearers only, deceiving your own selves.
Every tree that bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn
down, and cast into the fire. Wherefore by their
fruits ye shall know them. Not every one that saith
unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of
heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which
is in heaven. Many will say to me in that day, Lord,
Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy
name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many
wonderful works? And then will I profess unto them, I
never knew you: depart from me, ye that work
iniquity. Therefore whosoever heareth these sayings
of mine, and doeth them, I will liken him unto a wise
man, which built his house upon a rock: And the rain
descended, and the floods came, and the winds blew,
and beat upon that house; and it fell not: for it was
founded upon a rock. And every one that heareth these
sayings of mine, and doeth them not, shall be likened
unto a foolish man, which built his house upon the
sand: And the rain descended, and the floods came,
and the winds blew, and beat upon that house; and it
fell: and great was the fall of it.
.

User: "Carl Walther"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 12:59:14 AM
Bible John wrote:

If only the 4 gospels including the 3 synoptics was all we had to know
as christians? Sure Christ is all we need to know for salvation, but
God wants us to memorize and understand his entire bible after we are
saved.


John

As Christ said...
In John 5:39, "You search the Scriptures, because you think that in
them you have eternal life; and it is these that bear witness of me."
And He says in Luke 24:25-27:
" 'O foolish men and slow of heart to believe in all that the prophets
have spoken. Was it not necessary for the Christ to suffer these things
[death on the cross] and enter into His glory?' And beginning with
Moses and with all the prophets, He explained the things concerning
Himself in all the Scriptures."
.
User: "icono"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 02:10:48 PM
To read and study.
.
User: "Bible Bob"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 09:20:43 PM
On Tue, 8 Nov 2005 13:10:48 -0700, "icono" <icono@cox.net> wrote:

To read and study.

LOL! Talk about a no-brainer.
......
BB
http://www.biblebob.net
.
User: "Terrell"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 11:00:48 PM
"Bible Bob" <biblebobnospam@biblebob.net> wrote in message
news:pnq2n11s298nqffj334dttv3qm2632c4fp@4ax.com...

On Tue, 8 Nov 2005 13:10:48 -0700, "icono" <icono@cox.net> wrote:

To read and study.

LOL! Talk about a no-brainer.

Actually not really, we are not told to read it in the NT, we are told to
listen to it and the Bereans were commended for searching it. In the OT,
the priests were told to read it to the congregation.
--
Terrell
http://www.lastofall.com
.
User: "SJAB1958"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 15 Nov 2005 11:39:23 AM
Terrell wrote:

"Bible Bob" <biblebobnospam@biblebob.net> wrote in message
news:pnq2n11s298nqffj334dttv3qm2632c4fp@4ax.com...

On Tue, 8 Nov 2005 13:10:48 -0700, "icono" <icono@cox.net> wrote:

To read and study.

LOL! Talk about a no-brainer.


Actually not really, we are not told to read it in the NT, we are told to
listen to it and the Bereans were commended for searching it. In the OT,
the priests were told to read it to the congregation.


--
Terrell
http://www.lastofall.com

And why are we told in the NT to listen and in the OT the priests were
told to read it to the congregation? Because the majority of people in
the region were totally illiterate and only scribes and other
individuals of higher rank could actually read and write.
.
User: "Icono"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 15 Nov 2005 02:04:06 PM
"SJAB1958" <balfres@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:1132076362.969076.3490@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...


Terrell wrote:

"Bible Bob" <biblebobnospam@biblebob.net> wrote in message
news:pnq2n11s298nqffj334dttv3qm2632c4fp@4ax.com...

On Tue, 8 Nov 2005 13:10:48 -0700, "icono" <icono@cox.net> wrote:

To read and study.

LOL! Talk about a no-brainer.


Actually not really, we are not told to read it in the NT, we are told to
listen to it and the Bereans were commended for searching it. In the OT,
the priests were told to read it to the congregation.


--
Terrell
http://www.lastofall.com


And why are we told in the NT to listen and in the OT the priests were
told to read it to the congregation? Because the majority of people in
the region were totally illiterate and only scribes and other
individuals of higher rank could actually read and write.

Read and study. No excuses.
.




User: "Libertarius"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 03:30:52 PM
SHE didn't.
icono wrote:

To read and study.

.



User: "Libertarius"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 03:12:01 PM
Bible John wrote:

If only the 4 gospels including the 3 synoptics was all we had to know
as christians? Sure Christ is all we need to know for salvation, but
God wants us to memorize and understand his entire bible after we are
saved.

John

===>Why do you call it "his bible"??? -- L.
.

User: "rogue"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 02:20:53 PM
Bible John wrote:

If only the 4 gospels including the 3 synoptics was all we had to know
as christians? Sure Christ is all we need to know for salvation, but
God wants us to memorize and understand his entire bible after we are
saved.

JERRY
Back to the assumption that "god gave us the bible." What if the bible
was nothing more than the holdover mythologies of a bunch of
goatherders from over 2000 years ago?
Let's look at your assumption. If the bible was given to us by god,
and this god:
a. is Omniscient, omnipotent and perfect
b. Loves us and wants us to be with him in heaven
c. Gave us the bible as His word so that we could know what was true
to follow him,
Then the bible should
1. Reflect that god's perfection. It should be true historically,
accurate on prophecy and not containing any contradictory passages.
2. Be protected by that god so that no changes of any consequence are
in the book.
3. Be articulate to the point where it's very difficult for anyone to
wrongfully interpret the book.
That is, if the book really is the word of a deity who is all of those
things.
Now, as I've pointed out to you already, the bible fails to be true
historically. It's miserably incorrect on the Exodus story and
archaeology has proven the walls of Jericho were already down when
Joshua arrived there. So, the bible isn't historically true and
accurate.
The bible fails to be true on prophecy. The destruction of Tyre as
prophecied by God's prophet Ezekiel in Ez chapter 26 never happened.
Also, Jesus specifically told his disciples that he would return for
the Second Coming during their lifetimes, yet he didn't. Therefore,
the bible isn't true on prophecy.
Finally, the four accounts of the Resurrection Morning definitively
show that the bible is contradictory. There are also a number of
contradictions between the synoptic gospels and the book of John.
Therefore the bible can't be the word of a deity.
It CAN, however, be a 2000 year old book of goatherder mythology. It
can fail in all of those areas and still be that much.
.
User: "Bible John"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 03:35:37 PM
In article <1131481253.003372.73740@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
"rogue" <rogue719@hotmail.com> wrote:

JERRY
Back to the assumption that "god gave us the bible." What if the bible
was nothing more than the holdover mythologies of a bunch of
goatherders from over 2000 years ago?

Jerry you are in the wrong boards. These are Christian boards for
theists to debate amongst each other.
John
--
CERM-Church Education Resource Ministries
http://johnw.freeshell.org/bible/
John 14:6 Jesus answered, ģI am the way and
the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father
except through me.
AIM-Crucifyself03
----== Posted via Newsfeeds.Com - Unlimited-Uncensored-Secure Usenet News==----
http://www.newsfeeds.com The #1 Newsgroup Service in the World! 120,000+ Newsgroups
----= East and West-Coast Server Farms - Total Privacy via Encryption =----
.
User: "rogue"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 03:52:08 PM
Bible John wrote:

In article <1131481253.003372.73740@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
"rogue" <rogue719@hotmail.com> wrote:

JERRY
Back to the assumption that "god gave us the bible." What if the bible
was nothing more than the holdover mythologies of a bunch of
goatherders from over 2000 years ago?


Jerry you are in the wrong boards. These are Christian boards for
theists to debate amongst each other.

JERRY
Prove it. Show me that in the charter.
I expect such responses from you, John, since you can't debate the
bible anyway. All you can do is engage in "invisible friend" debates
with others who share the same assumption as yourself.
.

User: "rogue"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 03:49:17 PM
Bible John wrote:

In article <1131481253.003372.73740@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
"rogue" <rogue719@hotmail.com> wrote:

JERRY
Back to the assumption that "god gave us the bible." What if the bible
was nothing more than the holdover mythologies of a bunch of
goatherders from over 2000 years ago?


Jerry you are in the wrong boards. These are Christian boards for
theists to debate amongst each other.

JERRY
We've had this discussion. Do you have a learning disability? This is
a discussion FORUM, not a board.
It's a discussion forum for anything to do with Christianity and
Christians.
Therefore, I am on topic, and you the conservative are trying to stifle
my right to free speech. ;-)
.
User: "Bible Bob"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 09:48:49 PM
On 8 Nov 2005 13:49:17 -0800, "rogue" <rogue719@hotmail.com> wrote:


Bible John wrote:

In article <1131481253.003372.73740@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
"rogue" <rogue719@hotmail.com> wrote:

JERRY
Back to the assumption that "god gave us the bible." What if the bible
was nothing more than the holdover mythologies of a bunch of
goatherders from over 2000 years ago?


Jerry you are in the wrong boards. These are Christian boards for
theists to debate amongst each other.


JERRY
We've had this discussion. Do you have a learning disability? This is
a discussion FORUM, not a board.

It's a discussion forum for anything to do with Christianity and
Christians.

Therefore, I am on topic, and you the conservative are trying to stifle
my right to free speech. ;-)

Jerry,
As the song goes "Is that all there is?"
I just told John what I thought you were going to do to him for his
stupid remark. But, I guess the learning disability comment will have
to suffice.
You know he is going to do it again, so think up some good juicy stuff
to respond to him with.
......
BB
http://www.biblebob.net
.
User: "rogue"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 09 Nov 2005 08:53:50 AM
Bible Bob wrote:

On 8 Nov 2005 13:49:17 -0800, "rogue" <rogue719@hotmail.com> wrote:


Bible John wrote:

In article <1131481253.003372.73740@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
"rogue" <rogue719@hotmail.com> wrote:

JERRY
Back to the assumption that "god gave us the bible." What if the bible
was nothing more than the holdover mythologies of a bunch of
goatherders from over 2000 years ago?


Jerry you are in the wrong boards. These are Christian boards for
theists to debate amongst each other.


JERRY
We've had this discussion. Do you have a learning disability? This is
a discussion FORUM, not a board.

It's a discussion forum for anything to do with Christianity and
Christians.

Therefore, I am on topic, and you the conservative are trying to stifle
my right to free speech. ;-)


Jerry,

As the song goes "Is that all there is?"

I just told John what I thought you were going to do to him for his
stupid remark. But, I guess the learning disability comment will have
to suffice.

You know he is going to do it again, so think up some good juicy stuff
to respond to him with.

JERRY
I've just started a new job that is taking up a lot of my time,
learning the new things I need to know to do well here. I don't really
have a lot of time for this forum or to instruct those who are unable
or unwilling to learn.
My hobby here will have to "suffer" in the meanwhile. ;-)
.



User: "Bible Bob"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 09:38:21 PM
On Tue, 08 Nov 2005 13:35:37 -0800, Bible John
<john.doggett@x-files.gov> wrote:

In article <1131481253.003372.73740@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
"rogue" <rogue719@hotmail.com> wrote:

JERRY
Back to the assumption that "god gave us the bible." What if the bible
was nothing more than the holdover mythologies of a bunch of
goatherders from over 2000 years ago?


Jerry you are in the wrong boards. These are Christian boards for
theists to debate amongst each other.


John

You shouldn't have said that. Jerry is going make sure that you are
not constipated for a long time to come.
......
BB
http://www.biblebob.net
.
User: "rogue"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 10 Nov 2005 09:18:38 AM
Bible Bob wrote:

JERRY
Back to the assumption that "god gave us the bible." What if the bible
was nothing more than the holdover mythologies of a bunch of
goatherders from over 2000 years ago?

BJ
Jerry you are in the wrong boards. These are Christian boards for
theists to debate amongst each other.

BB
You shouldn't have said that. Jerry is going make sure that you are
not constipated for a long time to come.

JERRY
Now, BB. I don't scream at my dogs, and BJ is certainly no smarter
than a Labrador Retriever. How can I rip him a new one if I don't rip
those poor dumb animals?
.
User: "Libertarius"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 10 Nov 2005 10:54:19 AM
WHY WOULD HE KEEP SUCH OBSOLETE BOOKS IN HIS
ROYAL LIBRARY?
He gives it to people who still live in the first century C.E. -- L.
.





User: "Eeyore"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 09 Nov 2005 10:04:24 PM
In article <john.doggett-163DF6.21514907112005@News-West.newsfeeds.com>,
Bible John <john.doggett@x-files.gov> wrote:

If only the 4 gospels including the 3 synoptics was all we had to know
as christians? Sure Christ is all we need to know for salvation, but
God wants us to memorize and understand his entire bible after we are
saved.


John

memorise a telephone directory
At least it doesn't contradict itself
.
User: "Libertarius"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 10 Nov 2005 10:51:52 AM
Eeyore wrote:

In article <john.doggett-163DF6.21514907112005@News-West.newsfeeds.com>,
Bible John <john.doggett@x-files.gov> wrote:

If only the 4 gospels including the 3 synoptics was all we had to know
as christians? Sure Christ is all we need to know for salvation, but
God wants us to memorize and understand his entire bible after we are
saved.


John


memorise a telephone directory

At least it doesn't contradict itself

===>It would if you combined the directories of
various cities and different years, as the case in
the "BIBLE". ;-) -- L.
.


User: "Bible Bob"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 09:11:49 AM
On Mon, 07 Nov 2005 21:51:49 -0800, Bible John
<john.doggett@x-files.gov> wrote:

If only the 4 gospels including the 3 synoptics was all we had to know
as christians? Sure Christ is all we need to know for salvation, but
God wants us to memorize and understand his entire bible after we are
saved.


John

John,
That makes no sense. Why does your sentence begin with "If" and end
with a question mark? Why is it that you do not capitalize Christian
or Bible? Don't you have any respect for either?
Where does the Bible say that all we need to know for salvation is
Christ? Where does it say that God wants us to memorize and
understand His entire Bible after we are saved (why didn't you
capitalize His; don't you respect God)?
Why do you use the heathen term "synoptic" which refers to the
doctrine of devils? You are not so stupid as to believe what the
Synoptic Gospel doctrine teaches are you? If you are; explain Q
Theory.
......
BB
http://www.biblebob.net
.
User: "TomP"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 11:30:18 AM
"Bible Bob" <biblebobnospam@biblebob.net> wrote in message
news:rmf1n1t22s7c4uu4is1tcv2um8vsthnd5c@4ax.com...

On Mon, 07 Nov 2005 21:51:49 -0800, Bible John
<john.doggett@x-files.gov> wrote:

If only the 4 gospels including the 3 synoptics was all we had to know
as christians? Sure Christ is all we need to know for salvation, but
God wants us to memorize and understand his entire bible after we are
saved.


John


John,

That makes no sense. Why does your sentence begin with "If" and end
with a question mark? Why is it that you do not capitalize Christian
or Bible? Don't you have any respect for either?

Where does the Bible say that all we need to know for salvation is
Christ?

It seems to me that Matthew 25:31-46 is a pretty safe guide to what Christ
expects of those who follow Him, and also summarizes what we will all be
judged on. Would those verses apply here? If these do not apply, can you
please explain why?

Where does it say that God wants us to memorize and
understand His entire Bible after we are saved (why didn't you
capitalize His; don't you respect God)?

Why do you use the heathen term "synoptic" which refers to the
doctrine of devils? You are not so stupid as to believe what the
Synoptic Gospel doctrine teaches are you? If you are; explain Q
Theory.

I am curious and also I admit confused by your language here. Would you
mind taking a few minutes to explain your position a bit by answering a few
questions? Thanks in advance.
Why is a word based on the Greek words for "same" and "eye" either heathen
or the doctrine of devils?
I am pretty sure I have never heard the terminology "Synoptic Gospel
doctrine" before. I looked around your web page and could find anything, but
that could simply be my own ineptitude. Would you mind explaining what you
mean by that? Or could you please provide a link or two to web pages that
explains that doctrine? Thank you.
What do you have against "Q[uelle]" theory? I thought it pretty obvious
that certain passages in Matthew and Luke are nearly identical, thus there
is an increased probability they shared a common source independent of
Mark's gospel. I presume you disagree with my judgment. If so, why?


.....
BB
http://www.biblebob.net

.
User: "Bible Bob"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 08 Nov 2005 11:50:15 AM
On Tue, 8 Nov 2005 11:30:18 -0600, "TomP" <thom_as_p@yahoo.com> wrote:


"Bible Bob" <biblebobnospam@biblebob.net> wrote in message
news:rmf1n1t22s7c4uu4is1tcv2um8vsthnd5c@4ax.com...

On Mon, 07 Nov 2005 21:51:49 -0800, Bible John
<john.doggett@x-files.gov> wrote:

If only the 4 gospels including the 3 synoptics was all we had to know
as christians? Sure Christ is all we need to know for salvation, but
God wants us to memorize and understand his entire bible after we are
saved.


John


John,

That makes no sense. Why does your sentence begin with "If" and end
with a question mark? Why is it that you do not capitalize Christian
or Bible? Don't you have any respect for either?

Where does the Bible say that all we need to know for salvation is
Christ?


It seems to me that Matthew 25:31-46 is a pretty safe guide to what Christ
expects of those who follow Him, and also summarizes what we will all be
judged on. Would those verses apply here? If these do not apply, can you
please explain why?

Sure.
Here is what the verses say in context. Notice the first word in
verse 31. It is the word "when" a word that refers to a time
described in the words that follow. Then look at the words in verse
46 which speak of that time in regard to the righteous and the
unrighteous.
Matthew 25:31-46 KJV
31 When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy
angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
32 And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall
separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth [his] sheep
from the goats:
33 And he shall set the sheep on his right hand, but the goats on the
left.
34 Then shall the King say unto them on his right hand, Come, ye
blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the
foundation of the world:
35 For I was an hungred, and ye gave me meat: I was thirsty, and ye
gave me drink: I was a stranger, and ye took me in:
36 Naked, and ye clothed me: I was sick, and ye visited me: I was in
prison, and ye came unto me.
37 Then shall the righteous answer him, saying, Lord, when saw we
thee an hungred, and fed [thee]? or thirsty, and gave [thee] drink?
38 When saw we thee a stranger, and took [thee] in? or naked, and
clothed [thee]?
39 Or when saw we thee sick, or in prison, and came unto thee?
40 And the King shall answer and say unto them, Verily I say unto
you, Inasmuch as ye have done [it] unto one of the least of these my
brethren, ye have done [it] unto me.
41 Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me,
ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his
angels:
42 For I was an hungred, and ye gave me no meat: I was thirsty, and
ye gave me no drink:
43 I was a stranger, and ye took me not in: naked, and ye clothed me
not: sick, and in prison, and ye visited me not.
44 Then shall they also answer him, saying, Lord, when saw we thee an
hungred, or athirst, or a stranger, or naked, or sick, or in prison,
and did not minister unto thee?
45 Then shall he answer them, saying, Verily I say unto you, Inasmuch
as ye did [it] not to one of the least of these, ye did [it] not to
me.
46 And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the
righteous into life eternal.
The Gospel of Matthew presents Jesus Christ as God's Perfect King who
came as the heir apparent to the throne of David to call out the lost
sheep of the house of Israel. His ministry was not to Gentiles or to
the church of God. The latter because the church of God did not exist
until after the resurrection and ascencion. Israel rejected her King
and His kingdom is held in abeyance until a future time when he
returns as king of kings and lord of lords. Matthew has its
fulfillment in the book of Revelation. It is not within the scope of
this post to explain the whole thing; but what Jesus is referring to
is the judgements in Revelation 20 which take place long after Christ
has returned "for" his church (not "with" His saints) (1 Th 4:13-18).
The Gospels are not written "to" the church in the same way that the
Chruch Epistles are written "to" the church. The Gospels contain a
record of the earthly ministry of Christ "for" our learning; but not
"for" our application. People get real confused when they try to
harmonize the Gospels and the Church Epistles. For example, Jesus
speaking to Israel told them they needed to forgive to get forgiven;
but we are told in 1 John 1:9 that all we (the church) has to do is
confess. Our forgiveness is not tied to whether we forgive. We are
saved by grace through the faith of Jesus Christ. Israel was not
saved by grace through the faith of Jesus Christ because was not yet
available and even though He was present He did not have jurisdiction
to give it until he was seated at the right hand of the Father.
Biblical research is the careful systematic study of the Scriptures to
learn what the Scriptures say. This systematic study includes paying
attention to "to whom," "place," "time," "context" and other
considerations. There are three classes of people in the Bible; Jews,
Gentiles, and church of God. God is not a respector of persons but of
conditions and we must know to which group the passages we are reading
apply so that we can rightly divide the word of truth.
Remember, Christ came to be King of Israel. A king only has legal
jurisdiction over the people that are in his kingdom. He has no
authority over those from other kingdoms. He had no authority with
regard to Gentiles when he was on the earth; but was able to bless
those who were willing to do things God's way (as in the case of the
woman from Canaan). His kingdom will one day be restored; then he
will have jurisdiction and do what needs to be done.
One other consideration and that is that Christ is the head of the
body which is the church; the bridegroom. Israel is the bride. The
church is not and never has been the bride of Christ. Israel will be
the bride prepared for the bridegroom after Christ assumes control of
His kingdom.
Hope that helps.


Where does it say that God wants us to memorize and
understand His entire Bible after we are saved (why didn't you
capitalize His; don't you respect God)?

Why do you use the heathen term "synoptic" which refers to the
doctrine of devils? You are not so stupid as to believe what the
Synoptic Gospel doctrine teaches are you? If you are; explain Q
Theory.


I am curious and also I admit confused by your language here. Would you
mind taking a few minutes to explain your position a bit by answering a few
questions? Thanks in advance.

Why is a word based on the Greek words for "same" and "eye" either heathen
or the doctrine of devils?

I am pretty sure I have never heard the terminology "Synoptic Gospel
doctrine" before. I looked around your web page and could find anything, but
that could simply be my own ineptitude. Would you mind explaining what you
mean by that? Or could you please provide a link or two to web pages that
explains that doctrine? Thank you.

What do you have against "Q[uelle]" theory? I thought it pretty obvious
that certain passages in Matthew and Luke are nearly identical, thus there
is an increased probability they shared a common source independent of
Mark's gospel. I presume you disagree with my judgment. If so, why?


.....
BB
http://www.biblebob.net


......
BB
http://www.biblebob.net
.
User: "TomP"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 09 Nov 2005 09:38:32 PM
"Bible Bob" <biblebobnospam@biblebob.net> wrote in message
news:d5o1n15lobk0dt9mmqg8bnn80hbibq2i24@4ax.com...

On Tue, 8 Nov 2005 11:30:18 -0600, "TomP" <thom_as_p@yahoo.com> wrote:


"Bible Bob" <biblebobnospam@biblebob.net> wrote in message
news:rmf1n1t22s7c4uu4is1tcv2um8vsthnd5c@4ax.com...

On Mon, 07 Nov 2005 21:51:49 -0800, Bible John
<john.doggett@x-files.gov> wrote:

If only the 4 gospels including the 3 synoptics was all we had to know
as christians? Sure Christ is all we need to know for salvation, but
God wants us to memorize and understand his entire bible after we are
saved.


John


John,

That makes no sense. Why does your sentence begin with "If" and end
with a question mark? Why is it that you do not capitalize Christian
or Bible? Don't you have any respect for either?

Where does the Bible say that all we need to know for salvation is
Christ?


It seems to me that Matthew 25:31-46 is a pretty safe guide to what

Christ

expects of those who follow Him, and also summarizes what we will all be
judged on. Would those verses apply here? If these do not apply, can

you

please explain why?


Sure.

Thank you for your thoughtful answer below.

Here is what the verses say in context. Notice the first word in
verse 31. It is the word "when" a word that refers to a time
described in the words that follow. Then look at the words in verse
46 which speak of that time in regard to the righteous and the
unrighteous.

Isn't that a "de . . . kai" construct with an "otan" inserted? That is the
case even in the majority texts, including various versions of Textus
Receptus. By the way, the King James Version does not translate the second
Greek word ("de") found in Textus Receptus at Matthew 25:31. Anyway, that
particular use of the conjunctions is generally translated into English as
"but also" or "but even." So I agree that "when" (or "otan") indicates a
specific time, and is governed by the verb transliterated as "elthay" which
is the 3rd person, singular, aorist, active, subjunctive form of the
deponent verb "erkomai" which is translated as "I come" or "I go." There
are special rules in Greek grammar regarding the translation of the tenses
in the subjunctive, because, as I am sure you already know and will agree,
the subjunctive tenses are not translated as the act occurring in the
present time or the past time, but in the subjunctive mood the use of the
present or aorist tense determines only the duration or repetition of the
act, thus the translation governs the repetition of the action in this case.
And since the correct application of grammatical rules tell us that the
subjunctive present indicates continuing actions or acts repeated multiple
times, the use of the aorist by Matthew tells us the correct translation of
the verb in Matthew 25:31 that Jesus only comes once. (For some reason the
King James Version translates "elthay," clearly an aorist subjunctive, as a
future indicative, which doesn't make much sense to me, but then I am just a
truck driver.) And even though "erkomai" can mean either "I go" or "I
come," "when the son of man comes" (one time and one time only) is the
proper translation for this particular grammatical structure. Don't you
agree?
The verb in Matthew 25:46 is "apeleusontai" which is the 3rd person, future
tense, middle voice, indicative mood of the verb "aperkomai" which is
translated as "they will go away" or "they will depart." "They" in this
case are "those men" (outoi) of "all the nations" (from verse 32 "panta ta
ethnay") who "will go away" into either punishment eternal or life eternal.
Don't you agree?
Today and yesterday evening I did some research, looking up various
manuscripts that contain Matthew 25:31-46 and rather closely checked the
Greek, translated this passage, and checked mine against several other
published English translations. I also read some historical and literary
criticism of Matthew and 1 John to put the whole thing in context. As an
aside, Matthew 25:40-46 are in the early 3rd century Papyrus Chester Beatty
I, leaf 2 verso, thus the oldest extant manuscript of these verses, but I
checked others and even included the most modern, the 1550 Majority text by
Stephanus, and for our purposes here I stayed with the text of Stephanus
whenever there were slight differences in the Greek texts. From all that, I
have determined that the time context that governs this pericope is when
Jesus comes with the angels and will sit on his throne in glory (one time
and one time only) to judge those men from all nations, the righteous and
the unrighteous, and at that time when Jesus comes the righteous go away
into life eternal and the unrighteous go away into punishment eternal. And
verses 32-45 contain the only criteria mentioned to separate those who go
away into life eternal from those who go away into punishment eternal.
Wouldn't you agree? Please, do correct me if I am mistaken.
The historical and literary context of Matthew 25:31-46 is that this
pericope of the final judgment is the last of a series of parables sometimes
called the little apocalypse, set in time between the triumphal entry in
Jerusalem and the crucifixion of Jesus. Don't you agree? Please, do
correct me if I am mistaken.

Matthew 25:31-46 KJV
31 When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy
angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
32 And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall
separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth [his] sheep
from the goats:
33 And he shall set the sheep on his right hand, but the goats on the
left.
34 Then shall the King say unto them on his right hand, Come, ye
blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the
foundation of the world:
35 For I was an hungred, and ye gave me meat: I was thirsty, and ye
gave me drink: I was a stranger, and ye took me in:
36 Naked, and ye clothed me: I was sick, and ye visited me: I was in
prison, and ye came unto me.
37 Then shall the righteous answer him, saying, Lord, when saw we
thee an hungred, and fed [thee]? or thirsty, and gave [thee] drink?
38 When saw we thee a stranger, and took [thee] in? or naked, and
clothed [thee]?
39 Or when saw we thee sick, or in prison, and came unto thee?
40 And the King shall answer and say unto them, Verily I say unto
you, Inasmuch as ye have done [it] unto one of the least of these my
brethren, ye have done [it] unto me.
41 Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me,
ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his
angels:
42 For I was an hungred, and ye gave me no meat: I was thirsty, and
ye gave me no drink:
43 I was a stranger, and ye took me not in: naked, and ye clothed me
not: sick, and in prison, and ye visited me not.
44 Then shall they also answer him, saying, Lord, when saw we thee an
hungred, or athirst, or a stranger, or naked, or sick, or in prison,
and did not minister unto thee?
45 Then shall he answer them, saying, Verily I say unto you, Inasmuch
as ye did [it] not to one of the least of these, ye did [it] not to
me.
46 And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the
righteous into life eternal.

The Gospel of Matthew presents Jesus Christ as God's Perfect King who
came as the heir apparent to the throne of David to call out the lost
sheep of the house of Israel. His ministry was not to Gentiles or to
the church of God. The latter because the church of God did not exist
until after the resurrection and ascencion. Israel rejected her King
and His kingdom is held in abeyance until a future time when he
returns as king of kings and lord of lords. Matthew has its
fulfillment in the book of Revelation. It is not within the scope of
this post to explain the whole thing; but what Jesus is referring to
is the judgements in Revelation 20 which take place long after Christ
has returned "for" his church (not "with" His saints) (1 Th 4:13-18).

The Gospels are not written "to" the church in the same way that the
Chruch Epistles are written "to" the church. The Gospels contain a
record of the earthly ministry of Christ "for" our learning; but not
"for" our application. People get real confused when they try to
harmonize the Gospels and the Church Epistles. For example, Jesus
speaking to Israel told them they needed to forgive to get forgiven;
but we are told in 1 John 1:9 that all we (the church) has to do is
confess. Our forgiveness is not tied to whether we forgive. We are
saved by grace through the faith of Jesus Christ. Israel was not
saved by grace through the faith of Jesus Christ because was not yet
available and even though He was present He did not have jurisdiction
to give it until he was seated at the right hand of the Father.

Biblical research is the careful systematic study of the Scriptures to
learn what the Scriptures say. This systematic study includes paying
attention to "to whom," "place," "time," "context" and other
considerations. There are three classes of people in the Bible; Jews,
Gentiles, and church of God. God is not a respector of persons but of
conditions and we must know to which group the passages we are reading
apply so that we can rightly divide the word of truth.

Remember, Christ came to be King of Israel. A king only has legal
jurisdiction over the people that are in his kingdom. He has no
authority over those from other kingdoms. He had no authority with
regard to Gentiles when he was on the earth; but was able to bless
those who were willing to do things God's way (as in the case of the
woman from Canaan). His kingdom will one day be restored; then he
will have jurisdiction and do what needs to be done.

One other consideration and that is that Christ is the head of the
body which is the church; the bridegroom. Israel is the bride. The
church is not and never has been the bride of Christ. Israel will be
the bride prepared for the bridegroom after Christ assumes control of
His kingdom.

Hope that helps.

It is quite plain to me that the words of Jesus as reported at Matthew
25:31-46 apply to everyone. Jesus imposed the affirmative duties on
everyone who will call themselves his followers or Christians to feed the
hungry, slake the thirsty, offer hospitality to strangers, clothe the naked,
treat the sick, and care for prisoners. And Jesus did so in no uncertain
terms nor did Jesus use any qualifiers, nor did Jesus Christ himself
differentiate among his followers, Jews, gentiles, or any churches. And
Jesus also told us we would be punished if we failed to care for our fellow
human beings Again, Jesus used no qualifiers or hyperbole or obfuscation.
Jesus said do it or be punished. There is not a single qualifier anywhere
in these verses referring to people with one exception, and that sole
qualifier is "all," as in "all the nations" in verse 32. The use of the
word "all" ("panta" in Greek) doesn't leave much wiggle room. Especially
when Jesus is reported to have said "all the nations." Israel was certainly
a member of the set called "all the nations," and the Jews were certainly
members of a nation. The gentiles, all of them, are certainly members of the
set of "all the nations." And so are all members of the church of God
included in the set of "all the nations."
So how can you conceivably make the claim that 1 John 1:9 relieves
Christians from the duties Jesus himself clearly imposed upon all who follow
him? Besides, isn't the failure to feed the hungry, slake the thirsty,
offer hospitality to strangers, clothe the naked, treat the sick, and care
for prisoners precisely some of the sins that 1 John 1:1-10 requires
Christians to admit committing and confess to? And 1 John 1:9 asserts that
"If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and
to cleanse us from all unrightousness." In the Greek of Textus Recptus,
that is a classic example of a purpose clause using specific constructs
unique to the subjunctive mood, yet the King James Version translates the
verbs as the indicative mood. The verb "afay" is the 3rd person, singular,
aorist, active, subjunctive form, and the verb "katharisay" is also the 3rd
person, singular, aorist, active, subjunctive form. Those two subjunctive
verbs combined with "ina" is most correctly translated as "in order that . .
.." A more correct translation would be "If we confess our sins, he is
faithful and righteous, in order that he might forgive us the sins and he
might cleanse us from all iniquity." Do you understand that this
grammatical construct is a set of future more vivid and purpose clauses
using the subjunctive mood? Those grammatical facts just leap off the page,
and there is no uncertainty about those constructions at all. None. In
fact, beginning with 1 John 1:6 through 1 John 1:10, there is an
uninterrupted sequence of conditional, purpose, and future more vivid
clauses chasing each other around the page. And none, not one, of these
verses can be correctly and accurately translated as a firm promise of
salvation because "all we (the church) has to do is confess." There was no
outright promise of salvation in 1 John 1:9 in the earliest Greek
manuscripts, nor is there in any honest English translation of that verse.
Besides, 1 John 2:3-11 reinforces the command (yes, command, check the
grammar) of Jesus to love our neighbors and love our enemies at Matthew 5:43
(among other places.) Doesn't 1 John 2:8-11 state that the man who loves
his brother walks in light and the man who hates his brother walks in
darkness? And remember that the same Greek words we commonly translate as
brother was used in Matthew 5:22-26 and 1 John 2:9-11. And doesn't 1 John
2:6 call on those who would follow Jesus Christ to act like Jesus did, more
specifically "to walk as he (Jesus) walked"? Yes, 1 John does call on us to
do exactly that. No mistranslations or slippery grammar involved there.
I don't think you can produce any writing before the Reformation that makes
such theological claims, and maybe not even until the 20th century in the
United States. In fact, 1 John 2:7 specifically denies containing any new
commandments or doctrines: "Brethren, I write no new commandment unto you,
but an old commandment ye had from the beginning." Furthermore, at 1 John
1:9, the beginning of this verse is obviously a gloss of Psalm 32:4 and
Proverbs 28:13 ( And possibly a direct quote, but I have not had time to
check Septuagint manuscripts.). That seems to confirm my impression that
the author of 1 John intended nothing new, but was merely affirming the
Jewish traditions of asking God to forgive sins that was transmitted through
Jesus. What do you think?
1 John was written early in the second century as a response to docetism,
probably in what is now western Turkey. Clearly, 1 John was addressed to a
gentile assembly (or church if you will) fully separated from Judaism, yet
under threat from docetic doctrines and docetic preachers. The letter is
traditionally attributed to a man named John who is probably connected in
some way to the author of the Gospel of John, but there are various cogent
arguments from various points of view concerning differing authorship and
occasion. The earliest manuscript of 1 John known to be extant is Papyrus
Oxyrhynchus 402 (P-9 in the Gregory-Aland catalogue) dated to the third
century, but this fragment only contains 1 John 4:11-12 on the recto and
verses 14-17 on the verso. As far as I know, the earliest complete copy of
1 John is Codex Vaticanus Graece (Manuscript B/03 in the Gregory-Aland
catalogue). Please, kindly correct me if that is mistaken.
And that is a short linguistic, grammatical, literary, and historical
context of 1 John. I left out lots of detail, obviously.
Yours seems a highly idiosyncratic theology, at least it appears so to me.
Is it yours personally or are you describing the Christology of an organized
church?
Your idea of "the church of God" also appears to me to be a very tiny and
singularly exclusive club whose members must believe absolutely in salvation
by scripture only, so that every word in the entire Bible has equal weight
and is equally true. Is my conception of your church true? Please, do
correct me if I am mistaken.
After all this, is it your position that the last judgment as Matthew
reports Jesus Christ described it at 25:31-46, only applies to Jews? And
more especially only to those Jews of Jesus' lifetime? Or do I have that
wrong?


Where does it say that God wants us to memorize and
understand His entire Bible after we are saved (why didn't you
capitalize His; don't you respect God)?

Why do you use the heathen term "synoptic" which refers to the
doctrine of devils? You are not so stupid as to believe what the
Synoptic Gospel doctrine teaches are you? If you are; explain Q
Theory.


I am curious and also I admit confused by your language here. Would you
mind taking a few minutes to explain your position a bit by answering a

few

questions? Thanks in advance.

If you have time, could you give the three issues below a shot? Thanks.

Why is a word based on the Greek words for "same" and "eye" either

heathen

or the doctrine of devils?

I am pretty sure I have never heard the terminology "Synoptic Gospel
doctrine" before. I looked around your web page and could find anything,

but

that could simply be my own ineptitude. Would you mind explaining what

you

mean by that? Or could you please provide a link or two to web pages

that

explains that doctrine? Thank you.

What do you have against "Q[uelle]" theory? I thought it pretty obvious
that certain passages in Matthew and Luke are nearly identical, thus

there

is an increased probability they shared a common source independent of
Mark's gospel. I presume you disagree with my judgment. If so, why?


.....
BB
http://www.biblebob.net




.....
BB
http://www.biblebob.net

.
User: "Libertarius"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 09 Nov 2005 09:37:45 PM
===>He was cleaning out his library of all that old stuff. -- L.
.
User: "TomP"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible? 10 Nov 2005 10:58:08 AM
"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:4372C089.EEFA432B@Nothing_But_The.Truth...

===>He was cleaning out his library of all that old stuff. -- L.

What?
When are you going to respond and debate "The Bible Unearthed"? I have been
poking around in it, kind of rereading it over the past couple weeks.
Finkelstein and Silberman sure do equivocate. On page 141, the page that
begins his discussion of dating materials, the phrases " . . .we can no
longer be sure . . .," " . . .renewed analysis . . . indicates . . .," " . .
..carbon 14 dating, now seems to clinch the case," " . . .seem to support . .
..," "only the latest dates in the series can safely indicate . . ." Not
exactly firm and unequivocal conclusions, eh?
When you read this book, did you notice that Finkelstein and Silberman never
discuss the 1- Sigma and 2-Sigma values? Why do you think that is? As I am
certain you are well aware, Sigma values describe the range of probability
for a given range of dates obtained from carbon 14 or accelerator mass
spectrometry analyses. And as I am also certain you know, all dates from
carbon 14 and accelerator mass spectrometry analyses are probabilities
within a given set of environmental conditions, and the 1- Sigma and 2 -
Sigma values determine the range of probability, don't they? And while a
2- Sigma value provides a narrower range of dating probabilities about
50-100 years in the case of the Davidic era, it is only somewhere in the 65%
range correct, right? And the 1- Sigma value provides a substantially
longer time frame for the dating such as 2 to 3 centuries, the probability
is that the dating is about 90+% accurate. I noticed that Finkelstein and
Silberman never stated which Sigma value they relied upon to formulate their
conclusions. I could have missed that part, but I have looked a couple
times. Did you happen to notice a discussion of sigma values? Or even a
statement concerning which they used?
Why would Finkelstein and Silberman not clearly indicate such elementary
description of their research method? Supposedly, according to you, "The
Bible Unearthed" is somehow supposed to have dehistoricized pieces of the
Old Testament finally and forever amen. Then why not publish the details
and their method? Aren't those supposed to be included in peer reviewed
professional research? I will answer my own question: Yes, those elements
must be included. Oops, wait a minute. "The Bible Unearthed" is not a peer
reviewed research work, is it, Libertarius?
Actually, it is a popularization of some very idiosyncratic conclusions
based upon "research" that is not fully described. And those reviews done
by working historians and archaeologists were not exactly fully supportive,
were they?
Personally, since their highly idiosyncratic conclusions rely on datings
that only vary one or two generations, they must be using a 2 - Sigma value,
because only a 2- Sigma value is capable of discriminating between dates
within a range of 50 years. What do you think?
Why do you believe the theories of Finkelstein and Silberman are some kind
of essential and immutable truth?
.
User: "Libertarius"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible?. 10 Nov 2005 11:15:45 AM
TomP wrote:

"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:4372C089.EEFA432B@Nothing_But_The.Truth...

===>He was cleaning out his library of all that old stuff. -- L.

What?

When are you going to respond and debate "The Bible Unearthed"? I have been
poking around in it, kind of rereading it over the past couple weeks.
Finkelstein and Silberman sure do equivocate. On page 141, the page that
begins his discussion of dating materials, the phrases " . . .we can no
longer be sure . . .," " . . .renewed analysis . . . indicates . . .," " . .
.carbon 14 dating, now seems to clinch the case," " . . .seem to support . .
.," "only the latest dates in the series can safely indicate . . ." Not
exactly firm and unequivocal conclusions, eh?

===>Why ask such a silly question?
A scientific book is not the Bible.
In science we speak in the language of PROBABILITIES.
Your reference to "sigmas" indicates you ought to know that.
Especially, since Archaeology is not an exact science.

When you read this book, did you notice that Finkelstein and Silberman never
discuss the 1- Sigma and 2-Sigma values? Why do you think that is? As I am
certain you are well aware, Sigma values describe the range of probability
for a given range of dates obtained from carbon 14 or accelerator mass
spectrometry analyses. And as I am also certain you know, all dates from
carbon 14 and accelerator mass spectrometry analyses are probabilities
within a given set of environmental conditions, and the 1- Sigma and 2 -
Sigma values determine the range of probability, don't they? And while a
2- Sigma value provides a narrower range of dating probabilities about
50-100 years in the case of the Davidic era, it is only somewhere in the 65%
range correct, right? And the 1- Sigma value provides a substantially
longer time frame for the dating such as 2 to 3 centuries, the probability
is that the dating is about 90+% accurate. I noticed that Finkelstein and
Silberman never stated which Sigma value they relied upon to formulate their
conclusions. I could have missed that part, but I have looked a couple
times. Did you happen to notice a discussion of sigma values? Or even a
statement concerning which they used?

Why would Finkelstein and Silberman not clearly indicate such elementary
description of their research method? Supposedly, according to you, "The
Bible Unearthed" is somehow supposed to have dehistoricized pieces of the
Old Testament finally and forever amen. Then why not publish the details
and their method? Aren't those supposed to be included in peer reviewed
professional research? I will answer my own question: Yes, those elements
must be included. Oops, wait a minute. "The Bible Unearthed" is not a peer
reviewed research work, is it, Libertarius?

===>It is BASED ON, a SUMMARY OF such research.


Actually, it is a popularization of some very idiosyncratic conclusions
based upon "research" that is not fully described. And those reviews done
by working historians and archaeologists were not exactly fully supportive,
were they?

Personally, since their highly idiosyncratic conclusions rely on datings
that only vary one or two generations, they must be using a 2 - Sigma value,
because only a 2- Sigma value is capable of discriminating between dates
within a range of 50 years. What do you think?

===>As I stated, Archaeology is not an exact science.
However, the findings are findings, not words from ancient mythological
writings for which no evidence exist.

Why do you believe the theories of Finkelstein and Silberman are some kind
of essential and immutable truth?

===>They confirm what we have known all along: that the OT stories are
myths, legends, FABLES. No more "true" than the EPIC OF GILGAMESH
of other similar stories from that period. However,
only Bible worshipers claim to have "essential and immutable truths". -- L.
.
User: "TomP"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible?. 11 Nov 2005 01:29:15 PM
"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:43738041.362BC46C@Nothing_But_The.Truth...



TomP wrote:

"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:4372C089.EEFA432B@Nothing_But_The.Truth...

===>He was cleaning out his library of all that old stuff. -- L.

What?

When are you going to respond and debate "The Bible Unearthed"? I have

been

poking around in it, kind of rereading it over the past couple weeks.
Finkelstein and Silberman sure do equivocate. On page 141, the page

that

begins his discussion of dating materials, the phrases " . . .we can no
longer be sure . . .," " . . .renewed analysis . . . indicates . . .," "

.. .

.carbon 14 dating, now seems to clinch the case," " . . .seem to support

.. .

.," "only the latest dates in the series can safely indicate . . ." Not
exactly firm and unequivocal conclusions, eh?


===>Why ask such a silly question?

Because you seem to be recommending this book as some sort of unequivocal
truth and as the only interpretation of recent archaeology in the Near East.
And that is not precisely the case, is it?

A scientific book is not the Bible.

Do you think so? Honest? But "The Bible Unearthed" is not a scientific
book. The authors attempted a bit of revisionist history based upon some
very uncertain, tentative, and idiosyncratic interpretations of certain
carbon 14 and mass accelerator spectrometry datings. The whole theory is
wholly dependent upon re-dating artifacts from specific levels, and making
historical judgments based upon the probabilities. One should not find
certitude in mere probability.

In science we speak in the language of PROBABILITIES.

"We"? Are you a scientist?
Does that mean gravitation is a probability? Death? How about the speed of
light? The structure of the neutron? Just probabilities? The map of human
DNA? Merely a probability too?
I rather think that dating of artifacts always concludes with a range of
dates depending upon the Sigma values of the statistical models applied.
And then all other data from all other sources is applied to the specific
historical problem, and then historical judgments are made based upon all
information from all sources. And over the past 30 years or so, a body of
data increases every year that most papyrus and parchment documents dated by
paleography and internal factors tend to be most accurately dated to (or
even earlier than) the earliest carbon 14 and mass accelerator spectrometry
dates. Do I have that mostly right? As a scientist, you surely must keep
up developments in the field you post on so much, don't you?

Your reference to "sigmas" indicates you ought to know that.

I do. That is why I discussed it. Why do you think Finkelstein and
Silberman left that discussion out of their book? Why do you invariably
ignore this key bit of evidence?

Especially, since Archaeology is not an exact science.

I am not sure I would call archaeology a science. Rather, think it is an
art like medicine that uses science to further the clinical arts. How do
you totally quantify and qualify an archaeological hypothesis?

When you read this book, did you notice that Finkelstein and Silberman

never

discuss the 1- Sigma and 2-Sigma values? Why do you think that is? As

I am

certain you are well aware, Sigma values describe the range of

probability

for a given range of dates obtained from carbon 14 or accelerator mass
spectrometry analyses. And as I am also certain you know, all dates

from

carbon 14 and accelerator mass spectrometry analyses are probabilities
within a given set of environmental conditions, and the 1- Sigma and 2 -
Sigma values determine the range of probability, don't they? And while

a

2- Sigma value provides a narrower range of dating probabilities about
50-100 years in the case of the Davidic era, it is only somewhere in the

65%

range correct, right? And the 1- Sigma value provides a substantially
longer time frame for the dating such as 2 to 3 centuries, the

probability

is that the dating is about 90+% accurate. I noticed that Finkelstein

and

Silberman never stated which Sigma value they relied upon to formulate

their

conclusions. I could have missed that part, but I have looked a couple
times. Did you happen to notice a discussion of sigma values? Or even a
statement concerning which they used?

Why would Finkelstein and Silberman not clearly indicate such elementary
description of their research method? Supposedly, according to you,

"The

Bible Unearthed" is somehow supposed to have dehistoricized pieces of

the

Old Testament finally and forever amen. Then why not publish the

details

and their method? Aren't those supposed to be included in peer reviewed
professional research? I will answer my own question: Yes, those

elements

must be included. Oops, wait a minute. "The Bible Unearthed" is not a

peer

reviewed research work, is it, Libertarius?


===>It is BASED ON, a SUMMARY OF such research.

Huh? Why would they base this book on a summary of research? I kind of
thought that books that are summaries of research at least reproduce
summaries of the data and method and always tell the reader where the
details can be found. Why wouldn't they bother to at least footnote the
book so the reader can find and examine the data and method? I think that
is pretty standard, even in popular works of archaeology. Unless, of
course, their method was flawed, the data can be interpreted by many other
theories that actually account more accurately for more factors, or the
authors don't want anyone else looking at the data for various and sundry
reasons. Which reasons do you think account for the failure of Finkelstein
and Silberman to do this?


Actually, it is a popularization of some very idiosyncratic conclusions
based upon "research" that is not fully described. And those reviews

done

by working historians and archaeologists were not exactly fully

supportive,

were they?

Personally, since their highly idiosyncratic conclusions rely on datings
that only vary one or two generations, they must be using a 2 - Sigma

value,

because only a 2- Sigma value is capable of discriminating between dates
within a range of 50 years. What do you think?


===>As I stated, Archaeology is not an exact science.

No, actually, as I said, archaeology is an art that uses certain scientific
instruments that tend to confirm or disprove certain archaeological and
historical conclusions. But sometimes data from fields not considered to be
scientific tends to cast doubt upon the accuracy of certain carbon 14 and
other dating methods.

However, the findings are findings, not words from ancient mythological
writings for which no evidence exist.

How do you define "findings"? Do you mean to imply that the "findings" in
"The Bible Unearthed" are somehow the results of scientific testing that can
lead to only one possible conclusion?
If that is the case, why haven't the archaeological and historical
professions confirmed the conclusions of "The Bible Unearthed"? I mean,
geez, this book has been around for more than 4 years. And it made some
headlines, but it turned out to be a flash in the pan of little substance.
Haven't some recent excavations in Jerusalem and elsewhere tended to derail
certain conclusions of Finkelstein and Siberman?

Why do you believe the theories of Finkelstein and Silberman are some

kind

of essential and immutable truth?


===>They confirm what we have known all along: that the OT stories are
myths, legends, FABLES.

So you do think the theories of Finkelstein and Silberman are some kind of
essential and immutable truth because, "They confirm what we have known all
along: that the OT stories are myths, legends, FABLES"? Are you sure you
want to stick with that story? I mean. your answer is not exactly the
pinnacle of logic, is it? It seems to me that what you are saying here is
that you believe the theories of Finkelstein and Silberman are true because
they confirm what you believe. Isn't that kind of a circular argument? But
I am no logician. Why don't you post that to alt.atheism? I am sure some of
the logicians that hang out there can name a few logical fallacies that
apply to your premise and conclusion.
How exactly does "The Bible Unearthed" unearth the Bible? I kind of think
there is some reasonably accurate history in the Old Testament. Not every
word, of course. Do you really wish to defend your apparent position that
the Old Testament contains nothing but "myths, legends, FABLES"? Or would
you care to moderate your conclusions a bit?
Why don't you explain to all of us how valid and probable conclusions are
based upon carbon 14 datings of 3,000 year old artifacts to within a range
of 50 years? Those have to be based upon 2-Sigma values, don't they? That
question can be answered with a simple yes or no. Which is it?
Or do 1-Sigma values apply? I think so. Oops, if we use 1-Sigma values,
the whole theory kind of collapses doesn't it? Tell us all what the range
of dates is for a 1-Sigma value on 3,000 year old artifacts, can you please?
Then apply range that to the theories of Finkelstein and Silberman. What do
you get? Isn't it something like the application of 1-Sigma values puts
just about every artifact Finkelstein bases his theory on within the
traditional dating ranges so that the artifacts neither prove nor disprove
Finkelstein's or Silberman's theory?
Recall the words of Finkelstein and Silberman on page vi: "Readers must
judge for themselves if our reconstruction fits the evidence." This reader
has judged that only one highly unlikely chain of interpretation for the
evidence supports the conclusions of Finkelstein and Silberman, and that
chain of probabilities is broken by the improbabilities inherent in reliance
upon 2-Sigma values at every single point. Something the authors never
quite get around to telling their readers.
Which led me in an unkind moment to consider the possibility that coming up
with a highly controversial theory about Jewish and Christian origins, then
publishing it in a popular format is a great way to make lots of money.

No more "true" than the EPIC OF GILGAMESH
of other similar stories from that period.

Actually, historians and archaeologists find a wealth of useful information
in Gilgamesh and Homer and the Norse Sagas and a whole slew of religious
tracts and monuments from the ancient world. Seems to me a guy named
Schliemann found a pretty spectacular site to excavate based upon the
descriptions in the Iliad. Remember that? Heck, even literary critical
method applied to ancient epics can reveal all kinds of information about
the people and culture that produced such an ancient work. Which doesn't
mean that every word contained in the epics is historically true. And you
should know those things. I think you do, actually.

However,
only Bible worshipers claim to have "essential and immutable truths". --

L.


Do you think I am a "Bible worshiper"? Strange, I don't recall ever making
the "claim to have 'essential and immutable truths'" in the Old Testament.
Got me confused with someone else, do you think?
Actually, I think Buddhists, and Hindi and atheists and agnostics and a
whole bunch of other groups and individuals "claim to have 'essential and
immutable truths'," not just Christians and Jews in the Old Testament. And
atheists seem to me to be the most certain of their "claim to have
'essential and immutable truths'."
I think you have walked into embarrassing trap. Just because certain
frequent posters here who believe every word in the bible is literally true
are pretty obviously mistaken and wrong on so many levels doesn't make
Finkelstein and Silberman, or you, right. If they were such great scholars
and their theories as enunciated in "The Bible Unearthed" were unmistakably
true, don't you think their theories would have become mainstream after 4
years? Personally, I think Finkelstein and Silberman made some points, but
then got carried away by their brush with glory and went off the deep end.
Or least went far beyond what was justified by the most reasonable and the
most probable interpretation of the data indicated. Just a truck driver's
opinion though.
Just because certain of the most idiotic fundamentalist religious kooks are
obviously full of sanctimonious doo-doo and have little idea of what they
are posting about, does not mean that the most idiotic atheist kooks are
right. The atheist kooks are every bit as kooky and sanctimonious and
mistaken and just flat wrong as the Christian kooks.


.
User: "Libertarius"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible?. 11 Nov 2005 10:18:06 PM
TomP wrote:

"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:43738041.362BC46C@Nothing_But_The.Truth...



TomP wrote:

"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:4372C089.EEFA432B@Nothing_But_The.Truth...

===>He was cleaning out his library of all that old stuff. -- L.

What?

When are you going to respond and debate "The Bible Unearthed"? I have

been

poking around in it, kind of rereading it over the past couple weeks.
Finkelstein and Silberman sure do equivocate. On page 141, the page

that

begins his discussion of dating materials, the phrases " . . .we can no
longer be sure . . .," " . . .renewed analysis . . . indicates . . .," "

. .

.carbon 14 dating, now seems to clinch the case," " . . .seem to support

. .

.," "only the latest dates in the series can safely indicate . . ." Not
exactly firm and unequivocal conclusions, eh?


===>Why ask such a silly question?


Because you seem to be recommending this book as some sort of unequivocal
truth and as the only interpretation of recent archaeology in the Near East.
And that is not precisely the case, is it?

===>No, the case is NOT that I am, as you say,
"recommending this book as some sort of unequivocal
truth and as the only interpretation of recent archaeology in the Near East."

A scientific book is not the Bible.


Do you think so? Honest? But "The Bible Unearthed" is not a scientific
book.

===>You don't think so? Honest?
But that's exactly what it is: a summary of conclusions from scientific
findings. Too bad biblicists like you get so disturbed by the facts.

The authors attempted a bit of revisionist history based upon some
very uncertain, tentative, and idiosyncratic interpretations of certain
carbon 14 and mass accelerator spectrometry datings. The whole theory is
wholly dependent upon re-dating artifacts from specific levels, and making
historical judgments based upon the probabilities. One should not find
certitude in mere probability.

In science we speak in the language of PROBABILITIES.


"We"? Are you a scientist?

===>Yes.

Does that mean gravitation is a probability? Death? How about the speed of
light? The structure of the neutron? Just probabilities? The map of human
DNA? Merely a probability too?

===>Yes, in science we have probabilities, not "proof".
If you understood this, perhaps you'd ask fewer silly questions.

I rather think that dating of artifacts always concludes with a range of
dates depending upon the Sigma values of the statistical models applied.
And then all other data from all other sources is applied to the specific
historical problem, and then historical judgments are made based upon all
information from all sources. And over the past 30 years or so, a body of
data increases every year that most papyrus and parchment documents dated by
paleography and internal factors tend to be most accurately dated to (or
even earlier than) the earliest carbon 14 and mass accelerator spectrometry
dates. Do I have that mostly right? As a scientist, you surely must keep
up developments in the field you post on so much, don't you?

Your reference to "sigmas" indicates you ought to know that.


I do. That is why I discussed it. Why do you think Finkelstein and
Silberman left that discussion out of their book? Why do you invariably
ignore this key bit of evidence?

===>What do YOU call "key bit of evidence"? The Bible?

Especially, since Archaeology is not an exact science.

I am not sure I would call archaeology a science.

===>I am pretty sure you would not.
It is much too threatening to Bible worshipers like you.

Rather, think it is an
art like medicine that uses science to further the clinical arts. How do
you totally quantify and qualify an archaeological hypothesis?

===>You confuse scientific research with the applied practices,
showing an argumentative stance that is based on misinterpretations
and false objections.
You are BORING!
Bye, bye! -- L.
.
User: "TomP"

Title: Re: Why did God give us the bible?. 12 Nov 2005 04:06:16 PM
"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:43756CFE.5F71C2D5@Nothing_But_The.Truth...



TomP wrote:

"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:43738041.362BC46C@Nothing_But_The.Truth...



TomP wrote:

"Libertarius" <Libertarius@Nothing_But_The.Truth> wrote in message
news:4372C089.EEFA432B@Nothing_But_The.Truth...

===>He was cleaning out his library of all that old stuff. -- L.

What?

When are you going to respond and debate "The Bible Unearthed"? I

have

been

poking around in it, kind of rereading it over the past couple

weeks.

Finkelstein and Silberman sure do equivocate. On page 141, the page

that

begins his discussion of dating materials, the phrases " . . .we can

no

longer be sure . . .," " . . .renewed analysis . . . i