Could I be dreaming?



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Topic: Science > Philosophy
User: "Immortalist"
Date: 16 Dec 2006 12:33:31 PM
Object: Could I be dreaming?
- Can't always be dreaming
It would not make sense to say that my whole life is a dream. If I were
dreaming all the time, then I would have no concept of a dream: I would
have nothing with which to contrast dreaming since I would have no
concept of being awake. We can only make sense of the idea of a forged
banknote when genuine banknotes exist with which to compare it;
similarly the idea of a dream only makes sense when we can compare it
to waking life.
This is true, but it does not destroy the sceptic's position. What the
sceptic is arguing is not that we might be dreaming all the time, but
rather that at any one moment we cannot know for certain whether or not
we are actually dreaming.
PHILOSOPHY: THE BASICS
Nigel Warburton
http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0415146941/
.

User: "a_friend"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 16 Dec 2006 02:57:56 PM
Immortalist wrote:

- Can't always be dreaming

It would not make sense to say that my whole life is a dream. If I were
dreaming all the time, then I would have no concept of a dream: I would
have nothing with which to contrast dreaming since I would have no
concept of being awake. We can only make sense of the idea of a forged
banknote when genuine banknotes exist with which to compare it;
similarly the idea of a dream only makes sense when we can compare it
to waking life.

This is true, but it does not destroy the sceptic's position. What the
sceptic is arguing is not that we might be dreaming all the time, but
rather that at any one moment we cannot know for certain whether or not
we are actually dreaming.

PHILOSOPHY: THE BASICS
Nigel Warburton
http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0415146941/

Dreaming is usually used to contrast reality. Is this real or is it a
dream. All reality is subjective, so considering it dreaming is not a
far stretch. Although I was curious how being in a dream would preclude
any conceptualizing about an awake or dream state.
.
User: "Wordsmith"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 16 Dec 2006 03:10:05 PM
On Dec 16, 1:57 pm, "a_friend" <a_f_r_i_e_...@hotmail.com> wrote:

Immortalist wrote:

- Can't always be dreaming


It would not make sense to say that my whole life is a dream. If I were
dreaming all the time, then I would have no concept of a dream: I would
have nothing with which to contrast dreaming since I would have no
concept of being awake. We can only make sense of the idea of a forged
banknote when genuine banknotes exist with which to compare it;
similarly the idea of a dream only makes sense when we can compare it
to waking life.


This is true, but it does not destroy the sceptic's position. What the
sceptic is arguing is not that we might be dreaming all the time, but
rather that at any one moment we cannot know for certain whether or not
we are actually dreaming.


PHILOSOPHY: THE BASICS
Nigel Warburton
http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0415146941/Dreaming is usually used to contrast reality. Is this real or is it a

dream. All reality is subjective, so considering it dreaming is not a
far stretch. Although I was curious how being in a dream would preclude
any conceptualizing about an awake or dream state.

If real life truly is an illusion, then dreams are even further removed
from "reality," and a dream within a dream would be...hey, I'm dizzy.
*falls on floor*
W ; )
.

User: "Wordsmith"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 16 Dec 2006 03:11:14 PM
On Dec 16, 1:57 pm, "a_friend" <a_f_r_i_e_...@hotmail.com> wrote:

Immortalist wrote:

- Can't always be dreaming


It would not make sense to say that my whole life is a dream. If I were
dreaming all the time, then I would have no concept of a dream: I would
have nothing with which to contrast dreaming since I would have no
concept of being awake. We can only make sense of the idea of a forged
banknote when genuine banknotes exist with which to compare it;
similarly the idea of a dream only makes sense when we can compare it
to waking life.


This is true, but it does not destroy the sceptic's position. What the
sceptic is arguing is not that we might be dreaming all the time, but
rather that at any one moment we cannot know for certain whether or not
we are actually dreaming.


PHILOSOPHY: THE BASICS
Nigel Warburton
http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0415146941/Dreaming is usually used to contrast reality. Is this real or is it a

dream. All reality is subjective, so considering it dreaming is not a
far stretch. Although I was curious how being in a dream would preclude
any conceptualizing about an awake or dream state.

If real life truly is an illusion, then dreams are even further removed
from "reality," and a dream within a dream would be...hey, I'm dizzy.
*falls on floor*
W ; )
.
User: "Sir Frederick"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 16 Dec 2006 07:29:10 PM
On 16 Dec 2006 13:11:14 -0800, "Wordsmith" <wordsmith@rocketmail.com> wrote:



On Dec 16, 1:57 pm, "a_friend" <a_f_r_i_e_...@hotmail.com> wrote:

Immortalist wrote:

- Can't always be dreaming


It would not make sense to say that my whole life is a dream. If I were
dreaming all the time, then I would have no concept of a dream: I would
have nothing with which to contrast dreaming since I would have no
concept of being awake. We can only make sense of the idea of a forged
banknote when genuine banknotes exist with which to compare it;
similarly the idea of a dream only makes sense when we can compare it
to waking life.


This is true, but it does not destroy the sceptic's position. What the
sceptic is arguing is not that we might be dreaming all the time, but
rather that at any one moment we cannot know for certain whether or not
we are actually dreaming.


PHILOSOPHY: THE BASICS
Nigel Warburton
http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0415146941/Dreaming is usually used to contrast reality. Is this real or is it a

dream. All reality is subjective, so considering it dreaming is not a
far stretch. Although I was curious how being in a dream would preclude
any conceptualizing about an awake or dream state.


If real life truly is an illusion, then dreams are even further removed
from "reality," and a dream within a dream would be...hey, I'm dizzy.
*falls on floor*

W ; )

Not completely. Qualia are a kind of sensor and memory driven dream,
sleeping dreams and day dreams have qualia without the direct sensor control.
The qualia remain mysterious though their use as representations
in our mental models is understood. Thus a dream within a dream relies on
memory of dreaming. No need for dizziness, though perhaps a dream of
dizziness would be interesting.
.


User: "Immortalist"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 19 Dec 2006 01:07:00 PM
a_friend wrote:

Immortalist wrote:

- Can't always be dreaming

It would not make sense to say that my whole life is a dream. If I were
dreaming all the time, then I would have no concept of a dream: I would
have nothing with which to contrast dreaming since I would have no
concept of being awake. We can only make sense of the idea of a forged
banknote when genuine banknotes exist with which to compare it;
similarly the idea of a dream only makes sense when we can compare it
to waking life.

This is true, but it does not destroy the sceptic's position. What the
sceptic is arguing is not that we might be dreaming all the time, but
rather that at any one moment we cannot know for certain whether or not
we are actually dreaming.

PHILOSOPHY: THE BASICS
Nigel Warburton
http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0415146941/


Dreaming is usually used to contrast reality. Is this real or is it a
dream. All reality is subjective, so considering it dreaming is not a
far stretch. Although I was curious how being in a dream would preclude
any conceptualizing about an awake or dream state.

I don't knows that it were cause no precclusions efin the
conceptuaralizations but ar may ee be that these are moreso jest a
guess or luck and not er fact?
.


User: "Wanker"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 20 Dec 2006 04:45:30 AM
Immortalist wrote:

- Can't always be dreaming

It would not make sense to say that my whole life is a dream. If I were
dreaming all the time, then I would have no concept of a dream: I would
have nothing with which to contrast dreaming since I would have no
concept of being awake. We can only make sense of the idea of a forged
banknote when genuine banknotes exist with which to compare it;
similarly the idea of a dream only makes sense when we can compare it
to waking life.

This is true, but it does not destroy the sceptic's position. What the
sceptic is arguing is not that we might be dreaming all the time, but
rather that at any one moment we cannot know for certain whether or not
we are actually dreaming.

If my perceptual life consists of moments, and if I can't know for any
given moment whether or not I'm dreaming then for any and all the
moments of my perceived life I can't know for certain whether or not
I'm dreaming. In which case I can't know for certain whether or not my
entire life is a dream and we're back where we started.
But then who said that the applicability of concepts depends on
isolated moments in time? It's not the isolated moments in time that
make up a dream, nor is it necessarily the events that occur therein:
It's what comes before and after the dream / waking state that
determines the applicability of the concept 'dream' or 'wakefulness'.
(Novels like 'Ubik' play with this notion - the idea that one can wake
from successive states of apparent wakefulness only to discover that
one has actually been dreaming).

PHILOSOPHY: THE BASICS
Nigel Warburton
http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0415146941/

.

User: "chazwin"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 20 Dec 2006 10:46:36 AM
Immortalist wrote:

- Can't always be dreaming

It would not make sense to say that my whole life is a dream. If I were
dreaming all the time, then I would have no concept of a dream: I would
have nothing with which to contrast dreaming since I would have no
concept of being awake. We can only make sense of the idea of a forged
banknote when genuine banknotes exist with which to compare it;
similarly the idea of a dream only makes sense when we can compare it
to waking life.

This is true, but it does not destroy the sceptic's position. What the
sceptic is arguing is not that we might be dreaming all the time, but
rather that at any one moment we cannot know for certain whether or not
we are actually dreaming.

When you are dreaming you can imagine being awake - in fact most dreams
seem to fulfil the illusion of a waking state, but I know that some
dreams can include sleeping. In a like way we can dream whilst awake :
day dream, or imagine and remember the sate of dreaming. So maybe life
is but a dream is a possiblity too?


PHILOSOPHY: THE BASICS
Nigel Warburton
http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0415146941/

.
User: "Citizen Bob"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 20 Dec 2006 01:16:30 PM
On 20 Dec 2006 08:46:36 -0800, "chazwin" <chazwyman@yahoo.com> wrote:

When you are dreaming you can imagine being awake - in fact most dreams
seem to fulfil the illusion of a waking state, but I know that some
dreams can include sleeping. In a like way we can dream whilst awake :
day dream, or imagine and remember the sate of dreaming. So maybe life
is but a dream is a possiblity too?

You are totally beyond redemption.
--
Government's view of the economy could be summed up in a
few short phrases: If it moves, tax it. If it keeps moving,
regulate it. And if it stops moving, subsidize it.
--Ronald Reagan
.
User: "chazwin"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 21 Dec 2006 03:33:28 AM
Citizen Bob wrote:

On 20 Dec 2006 08:46:36 -0800, "chazwin" <chazwyman@yahoo.com> wrote:

When you are dreaming you can imagine being awake - in fact most dreams
seem to fulfil the illusion of a waking state, but I know that some
dreams can include sleeping. In a like way we can dream whilst awake :
day dream, or imagine and remember the sate of dreaming. So maybe life
is but a dream is a possiblity too?


You are totally beyond redemption.

Everything you beleive is beyond reason, so I can safely ignore that
idiotic and meaningless statement.



--

Government's view of the economy could be summed up in a
few short phrases: If it moves, tax it. If it keeps moving,
regulate it. And if it stops moving, subsidize it.
--Ronald Reagan

.
User: ""

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 21 Dec 2006 04:37:52 AM
On Dec 21, 7:33 pm, "chazwin"

Everything you beleive is beyond reason,

And that coming from a dopey moronic Randaphobic Kantian, who has
claimed that it is the truth that the truth has many definitions and
philosophic meanings, but who wont say which one he is using for truth
in that that mindless Kantian regurgitation just what were you hoping
to acheive chazzzzz?
MG
.
User: "Citizen Bob"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 21 Dec 2006 07:55:03 AM
On 21 Dec 2006 02:37:52 -0800,
wrote:

Everything you beleive is beyond reason,

And that coming from a dopey moronic Randaphobic Kantian, who has
claimed that it is the truth that the truth has many definitions and
philosophic meanings,

That's called a Fantasy World.

but who wont say which one he is using for truth
in that that mindless Kantian regurgitation just what were you hoping
to acheive chazzzzz?

And that's called Living In A Fantasy World.
Chaz is a frustrated woman who is trying desperately to find
justification for her irresponsible lifestyle. If the world is
meaningless, as she insists, then she has no obligation to live up to
the dictates of being a human. She can live her life any way she wants
as long as she can get by with it.
Every person who denies reality is a person who does not want to face
up to the responsibilities of existing in the real world.
--
"All men seek to be enlightened. Religion is but the most ancient
and honorable way in which men have striven to make sense out of
God's universe. Scientists seek the lawfulness of events. It is
the task of religion to fit man into this lawfulness. Religion
must remain an outlet for people who say to themsleves, 'I am
not the kind of person I want to be'."
--Frank Herbert, "Dune"
.
User: "chazwin"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 21 Dec 2006 03:21:16 PM
Hey Bob, I see you have been reunited with your bum-buddy MG.
I'm sure you two will be very happy together sheepshagging.
Chazwin
Citizen Bob wrote:

On 21 Dec 2006 02:37:52 -0800,

wrote:

Everything you beleive is beyond reason,


And that coming from a dopey moronic Randaphobic Kantian, who has
claimed that it is the truth that the truth has many definitions and
philosophic meanings,


That's called a Fantasy World.

but who wont say which one he is using for truth
in that that mindless Kantian regurgitation just what were you hoping
to acheive chazzzzz?


And that's called Living In A Fantasy World.

Chaz is a frustrated woman who is trying desperately to find
justification for her irresponsible lifestyle. If the world is
meaningless, as she insists, then she has no obligation to live up to
the dictates of being a human. She can live her life any way she wants
as long as she can get by with it.

Every person who denies reality is a person who does not want to face
up to the responsibilities of existing in the real world.


--

"All men seek to be enlightened. Religion is but the most ancient
and honorable way in which men have striven to make sense out of
God's universe. Scientists seek the lawfulness of events. It is
the task of religion to fit man into this lawfulness. Religion
must remain an outlet for people who say to themsleves, 'I am
not the kind of person I want to be'."
--Frank Herbert, "Dune"

.
User: "Citizen Bob"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 22 Dec 2006 07:49:27 AM
On 21 Dec 2006 13:21:16 -0800, "chazwin" <chazwyman@yahoo.com> wrote:

Hey Bob, I see you have been reunited with your bum-buddy MG.
I'm sure you two will be very happy together sheepshagging.

You have gone over the top.
--
"All men seek to be enlightened. Religion is but the most ancient
and honorable way in which men have striven to make sense out of
God's universe. Scientists seek the lawfulness of events. It is
the task of religion to fit man into this lawfulness. Religion
must remain an outlet for people who say to themsleves, 'I am
not the kind of person I want to be'."
--Frank Herbert, "Dune"
.




User: "LauLuna"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 22 Dec 2006 02:02:25 PM
Please, consider the following argument founded on causality.
Scholastics said 'nihil agit in se ipsum', i.e. nothing acts upon
itself. According to this a mind could never provoke the changes it
undergoes. So, something else must cause them. These changes, as
effects of external causes, could be taken by the mind as
representations of the external world that acts upon it.
This would require an interpretation of those effects by the mind. If
this interpretation is reasonably adequate, those effects become a true
representation of the external world, as usually happens when we're
awake; when we're dreaming we just perform an inadequate interpretation
of the external causes of our dreams; that dreams are illusory means
only this.
Can we know that our awake experiences are adequate interpretations?
Perhaps we can: we manage to predict part of the behavior of the world,
so we must be performing an adequate interpretation (categorization,
conceptualization) of our sense data.
Regards
.
User: "Daniel T."

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 22 Dec 2006 03:41:21 PM
"LauLuna" <laureanoluna@yahoo.es> wrote:

Please, consider the following argument founded on causality.

Scholastics said 'nihil agit in se ipsum', i.e. nothing acts upon
itself. According to this a mind could never provoke the changes it
undergoes. So, something else must cause them. These changes, as
effects of external causes, could be taken by the mind as
representations of the external world that acts upon it.

This would require an interpretation of those effects by the mind. If
this interpretation is reasonably adequate, those effects become a true
representation of the external world, as usually happens when we're
awake; when we're dreaming we just perform an inadequate interpretation
of the external causes of our dreams; that dreams are illusory means
only this.

Can we know that our awake experiences are adequate interpretations?
Perhaps we can: we manage to predict part of the behavior of the world,
so we must be performing an adequate interpretation (categorization,
conceptualization) of our sense data.

As important -- we sometimes fail to predict part of the behavior of the
world. Because of this fact, we can assert that some perceptions of the
world are more accurate than others (because some have shown that they
are more likely to correctly predict future events.)
Now, if you water down the skeptical position to the point that it is
merely an assertion that we cannot know reality with absolute certainty,
I will happily agree with it, but since no position claims we can know
reality with absolute certainty, I don't see where that is useful.
.
User: "Allan C Cybulskie"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 24 Dec 2006 09:30:33 AM
Daniel T. wrote:

"LauLuna" <laureanoluna@yahoo.es> wrote:

Please, consider the following argument founded on causality.

Scholastics said 'nihil agit in se ipsum', i.e. nothing acts upon
itself. According to this a mind could never provoke the changes it
undergoes. So, something else must cause them. These changes, as
effects of external causes, could be taken by the mind as
representations of the external world that acts upon it.

This would require an interpretation of those effects by the mind. If
this interpretation is reasonably adequate, those effects become a true
representation of the external world, as usually happens when we're
awake; when we're dreaming we just perform an inadequate interpretation
of the external causes of our dreams; that dreams are illusory means
only this.

Can we know that our awake experiences are adequate interpretations?
Perhaps we can: we manage to predict part of the behavior of the world,
so we must be performing an adequate interpretation (categorization,
conceptualization) of our sense data.


As important -- we sometimes fail to predict part of the behavior of the
world. Because of this fact, we can assert that some perceptions of the
world are more accurate than others (because some have shown that they
are more likely to correctly predict future events.)

But the question is: Accurate about what?
Take the "brain in the vat" example. Certain perceptual experiences
fit inside the reality that is being generated for the brain in the
vat. Yet sometimes "real" experiences bleed through. But since those
aren't consistent with the generated reality, those experiences fail to
predict future events and so are "less accurate". But less accurate
about what? The false reality. It's the less accurate experiences
that are about REAL reality.
So we may assert that some perceptions are "more accurate", but that
assumes that our perceptions are at all accurate to start with.


Now, if you water down the skeptical position to the point that it is
merely an assertion that we cannot know reality with absolute certainty,
I will happily agree with it, but since no position claims we can know
reality with absolute certainty, I don't see where that is useful.

There are two key skeptical views that have major consequences. I'll
call the first the pragmatic objection and the second the
epistemological objection (but they are very similar).
The pragmatic objection is that if we do not know that our perceptions
are general, then we cannot absolutely trust what they tell us. So
imagine that we have a clash between perceptions (colour-blindness
being a good example). Can we say that some people are colour-blind
and see colours "incorrectly"? Well, as seen in the above example we
don't know which set of examples is more accurate about reality. And
appealing to numbers doesn't help because that would only work if we
knew that most people saw reality accurately. Thus, disputes over
experiences can never be settled by claiming that one person has
"hallucinated" because that would require that we know the difference
.... but we can't.
The epistemological objection is that we do not have justification for
thinking that our perceptions are accurate. This makes any knowledge
that we have that is based on perceptual evidence unjustified ... and
thus not knowledge at all. And the skeptical claim is that we CANNOT
justify sense experiences. So if that is the case we have no knowledge
of anything based primarily on sense experiences, as those claims are
now unjustified. Since most of our knowledge IS based primarily on
sense experiences, that's a devastating blow to epistemology and to our
knowledge.
.
User: "Daniel T."

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 24 Dec 2006 10:21:32 AM
"Allan C Cybulskie" <allan_c_cybulskie@yahoo.ca> wrote:

Daniel T. wrote:

"LauLuna" <laureanoluna@yahoo.es> wrote:

Please, consider the following argument founded on causality.

Scholastics said 'nihil agit in se ipsum', i.e. nothing acts
upon itself. According to this a mind could never provoke the
changes it undergoes. So, something else must cause them. These
changes, as effects of external causes, could be taken by the
mind as representations of the external world that acts upon it.

This would require an interpretation of those effects by the
mind. If this interpretation is reasonably adequate, those
effects become a true representation of the external world, as
usually happens when we're awake; when we're dreaming we just
perform an inadequate interpretation of the external causes of
our dreams; that dreams are illusory means only this.

Can we know that our awake experiences are adequate
interpretations? Perhaps we can: we manage to predict part of
the behavior of the world, so we must be performing an adequate
interpretation (categorization, conceptualization) of our sense
data.


As important -- we sometimes fail to predict part of the behavior
of the world. Because of this fact, we can assert that some
perceptions of the world are more accurate than others (because
some have shown that they are more likely to correctly predict
future events.)


But the question is: Accurate about what?

Take the "brain in the vat" example. Certain perceptual experiences
fit inside the reality that is being generated for the brain in the
vat. Yet sometimes "real" experiences bleed through. But since those
aren't consistent with the generated reality, those experiences fail
to predict future events and so are "less accurate". But less
accurate about what? The false reality. It's the less accurate
experiences that are about REAL reality.

To say that "real" experiences bleed through is to once again assert
that some experiences are correct (even if they are in the minority.) An
assertion that the skeptic refuses to make.
To honestly argue the skeptics position, you must do so without any
reference to any experience being "real" or even more real than any
other. Once that is done, we find that your rational is completely
meaningless.

So we may assert that some perceptions are "more accurate", but that
assumes that our perceptions are at all accurate to start with.

Exactly. Such an assertion is inescapable.

Now, if you water down the skeptical position to the point that it
is merely an assertion that we cannot know reality with absolute
certainty, I will happily agree with it, but since no position
claims we can know reality with absolute certainty, I don't see
where that is useful.


There are two key skeptical views that have major consequences. I'll
call the first the pragmatic objection and the second the
epistemological objection (but they are very similar).

The pragmatic objection is that if we do not know that our
perceptions are general, then we cannot absolutely trust what they
tell us. So imagine that we have a clash between perceptions
(colour-blindness being a good example). Can we say that some people
are colour-blind and see colours "incorrectly"? Well, as seen in the
above example we don't know which set of examples is more accurate
about reality. And appealing to numbers doesn't help because that
would only work if we knew that most people saw reality accurately.
Thus, disputes over experiences can never be settled by claiming
that one person has "hallucinated" because that would require that
we know the difference ... but we can't.

It's a matter of prediction. Upon looking at a particular piece of
paper, I can predict what wavelength will be detected by a spectrometer.
For example, I can say that piece of paper A will return a value closer
to 650 nm, while piece of paper B will report a value closer to 510 nm.
A person with red-green color blindness will be unable to make that
prediction.
In the face of such an experiment, it is ridiculous to claim that the
color blind person's perception is no less accurate than mine. Unless,
of course, you choose to deny *all* perception (i.e., you are willing to
assert that neither of us are able to read the output of the
spectrometer.) If you do that though, you must also deny that you are
currently reading this sentence.

The epistemological objection is that we do not have justification
for thinking that our perceptions are accurate. This makes any
knowledge that we have that is based on perceptual evidence
unjustified ... and thus not knowledge at all. And the skeptical
claim is that we CANNOT justify sense experiences. So if that is the
case we have no knowledge of anything based primarily on sense
experiences, as those claims are now unjustified. Since most of our
knowledge IS based primarily on sense experiences, that's a
devastating blow to epistemology and to our knowledge.

Someone who accepts the above argument, cannot state it. The mere fact
that you are able to write the above, and proof it to make sure is says
what you want it to say, refutes the argument you are presenting.
.
User: "Allan C Cybulskie"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 24 Dec 2006 01:42:28 PM
Daniel T. wrote:

"Allan C Cybulskie" <allan_c_cybulskie@yahoo.ca> wrote:

As important -- we sometimes fail to predict part of the behavior
of the world. Because of this fact, we can assert that some
perceptions of the world are more accurate than others (because
some have shown that they are more likely to correctly predict
future events.)


But the question is: Accurate about what?

Take the "brain in the vat" example. Certain perceptual experiences
fit inside the reality that is being generated for the brain in the
vat. Yet sometimes "real" experiences bleed through. But since those
aren't consistent with the generated reality, those experiences fail
to predict future events and so are "less accurate". But less
accurate about what? The false reality. It's the less accurate
experiences that are about REAL reality.


To say that "real" experiences bleed through is to once again assert
that some experiences are correct (even if they are in the minority.) An
assertion that the skeptic refuses to make.

Ah, but the skeptic can indeed accept the assertion in order to show
that it leads to a contradiction. He can allow you to assume that some
experiences are accurate and some are not and that you can tell the
difference, and then challenge that. And that is what this example
shows: that the experiences that you think are accurate may be
inaccurate and the experiences that you think are inaccurate may be
accurate. Thus your "accuracy of prediction" criteria may indeed get
it all completely wrong. And then the question returns to you of what
justification you have for asserting that ANY perceptions accurately
reflect reality.


To honestly argue the skeptics position,

Well, first we have to clarify the skeptic arguments. In any field, a
skeptic tries to occupy the position that if one cannot justify the
claims of that field the skeptic wins. Thus, using your own examples
and criteria against you to show that your arguments do not hold, and
therefore that your claims are not justified. There is no reason to
assign any positive claim to a skeptic, or in fact any position at all
beyond "You are not justified in the claim you are making".
you must do so without any

reference to any experience being "real" or even more real than any
other. Once that is done, we find that your rational is completely
meaningless.

If you make reference to that, they can use it to show that your
position leads to a contradiction and so is clearly wrong. And in this
case, what they are doing is giving a clear counter-example where the
accuracy of prediction model would mislead you utterly. And the
skeptic can indeed claim that there is a reality and that some of our
perceptions may reflect that reality. All that they are committed to
claiming is that they -- and everyone else -- do not know (and likely,
in fact, have no idea) which ones are indeed accurate perceptions of
reality. In THIS field, the claim is simply that we do not know what
perceptions accurately reflect reality, not that there is no reality to
perceive or that perception never gives us an accurate view of reality.


So we may assert that some perceptions are "more accurate", but that
assumes that our perceptions are at all accurate to start with.


Exactly. Such an assertion is inescapable.

Actually, no it isn't. Take Kant, for example. He avoids this
assertion by claiming that he has no idea if our perceptions are at all
accurate but that they are how things appear to us and that it is
useful for us to follow them. Also the solipsist avoids this by
claiming that they are only justified in asserting that THEY exist but
again that it benefits them to act on the appearances that are being
generated by their own mind. None of these assume that perceptions are
accurate -- at least, about any sort of OBJECTIVE reality -- yet still
accept that acting on them is acceptable. If the claim was that we can
only be justified in trusting a perception because it reflected an
objective reality, both Kant and the solipsist would reject either that
that is the only way to interpret justification or would claim that
therefore justified beliefs are not required to act "in the world".


Now, if you water down the skeptical position to the point that it
is merely an assertion that we cannot know reality with absolute
certainty, I will happily agree with it, but since no position
claims we can know reality with absolute certainty, I don't see
where that is useful.


There are two key skeptical views that have major consequences. I'll
call the first the pragmatic objection and the second the
epistemological objection (but they are very similar).

The pragmatic objection is that if we do not know that our
perceptions are general, then we cannot absolutely trust what they
tell us. So imagine that we have a clash between perceptions
(colour-blindness being a good example). Can we say that some people
are colour-blind and see colours "incorrectly"? Well, as seen in the
above example we don't know which set of examples is more accurate
about reality. And appealing to numbers doesn't help because that
would only work if we knew that most people saw reality accurately.
Thus, disputes over experiences can never be settled by claiming
that one person has "hallucinated" because that would require that
we know the difference ... but we can't.


It's a matter of prediction. Upon looking at a particular piece of
paper, I can predict what wavelength will be detected by a spectrometer.
For example, I can say that piece of paper A will return a value closer
to 650 nm, while piece of paper B will report a value closer to 510 nm.
A person with red-green color blindness will be unable to make that
prediction.

Well, as you stated it this is certainly not true. You seem to be
assuming that they consider the red experience to be the red wavelight
and the green experience to be the green wavelength, but they SEE the
inverted experience. But if they had learned that what they
experienced as green -- ie that all the things they see as green -- was
the red wavelength, they would make the correct prediction. Thus, this
example seems to end up being over terminology that you translated to
wavelengths ... but it doesn't work with wavelengths, since they can
assign wavelengths to the right experience FOR them. Even people who
are colour-blind to only see shades of grey can in general make that
sort of distinction.
Now, what you MIGHT have been getting at is another test where they
will not predict how things proceed on a spectrum accurately because
where red appears on the spectrum for most people is not really that
near where green appears for most people. So they won't perceive or
predict the spectrum effects -- colours starting on one end and
blending to the other properly. But here they could quite rightly
protest that you are basing the test on a subjective idea of how
colours SHOULD be perceived across a spectrum. But there is no reason
to think that perception of colours should proceed as per wavelength as
a natural fact, and we can clearly imagine cases -- our colour-blind
persons, for example -- who DO NOT see that "natural progression".
Thus it can be protested that you are using the "non-colour-blind"
model as a test for correctness with no justification for insisting
that that model is correct. Thus your prediction model fails if it
depends on qualities that non-colour-blind people have.
Okay, okay, this is a but harsh. One can try to claim that that theory
is cleaner and since non-colour-blind people's perceptions follow the
wavelength progressions that they are more likely to be perceiving it
"properly". The counter to this might be to claim that perceptions
that follow a convenient progression are more likely to be selected by
evolution regardless of correctness, and so that becomes scant
justification for claiming its accuracy.


In the face of such an experiment, it is ridiculous to claim that the
color blind person's perception is no less accurate than mine.

Well, if you can provide the details of such an experiment that
actually works, then I'd agree with you. So far, I haven't seen it
[grin].

The epistemological objection is that we do not have justification
for thinking that our perceptions are accurate. This makes any
knowledge that we have that is based on perceptual evidence
unjustified ... and thus not knowledge at all. And the skeptical
claim is that we CANNOT justify sense experiences. So if that is the
case we have no knowledge of anything based primarily on sense
experiences, as those claims are now unjustified. Since most of our
knowledge IS based primarily on sense experiences, that's a
devastating blow to epistemology and to our knowledge.


Someone who accepts the above argument, cannot state it. The mere fact
that you are able to write the above, and proof it to make sure is says
what you want it to say, refutes the argument you are presenting.

Again, you are assigning an argument to the skeptic that the skeptic
need not make. The skeptic need not claim that one cannot BELIEVE
statements that are not justified. The claim you make here only
applies to people who claim that you cannot believe or act on either a)
propositions that you don't know (justified true beliefs) or b)
propositions that are not justified (the direct approach). The reason
most claims against the skeptic fall into responses like yours is that
most of the people arguing against skepticism take it as true that you
cannot believe things that you don't know or that are at least not
justified. If the skeptic -- as is his right -- declines to give an
opinion on the matter, the argument is turned back on the originator:
given that the originator of the argument refuses to believe in
propositions that are not justified, and the skeptic has shown that
propositions justified by sense experience are not justified, how can
the originator of the reply accept or believe any of those
propositions? But the skeptic is not bound to accept that claim. They
can sit back and say that they believe all of those propositions and
act on them. They are not foolish enough to claim that they are
JUSTIFIED in doing so, but they simply deny that one cannot believe an
unjustified proposition.
In short, the contradiction here comes into play with a person who
requires justification for belief. The skeptic is not bound to that
position in any way, and so can reject it at their leisure. If they do
so, the skeptic is not refuted by that argument, and it is returned to
the person who brings up the claim that this leaves them unable to
believe anything to argue for why they believe anything when the
skeptic has shown them that those beliefs are not justified. To escape
the bouncing of the argument, the person then has to follow the skeptic
and deny that as well. But few people are willing to do so. This
leaves them no other option than to attempt to justify those beliefs.
.
User: "Daniel T."

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 24 Dec 2006 06:44:37 PM
"Allan C Cybulskie" <allan_c_cybulskie@yahoo.ca> wrote:

Daniel T. wrote:

"Allan C Cybulskie" <allan_c_cybulskie@yahoo.ca> wrote:

As important -- we sometimes fail to predict part of the
behavior of the world. Because of this fact, we can assert
that some perceptions of the world are more accurate than
others (because some have shown that they are more likely to
correctly predict future events.)


But the question is: Accurate about what?

Take the "brain in the vat" example. Certain perceptual
experiences fit inside the reality that is being generated for
the brain in the vat. Yet sometimes "real" experiences bleed
through. But since those aren't consistent with the generated
reality, those experiences fail to predict future events and so
are "less accurate". But less accurate about what? The false
reality. It's the less accurate experiences that are about REAL
reality.


To say that "real" experiences bleed through is to once again
assert that some experiences are correct (even if they are in the
minority.) An assertion that the skeptic refuses to make.


Ah, but the skeptic can indeed accept the assertion in order to show
that it leads to a contradiction.

In order to accept the assertion, even for the purposes you state, he
must first claim knowledge that the assertion has been made. He cannot
do that without undermining his position.

So we may assert that some perceptions are "more accurate", but
that assumes that our perceptions are at all accurate to start
with.


Exactly. Such an assertion is inescapable.


Actually, no it isn't. Take Kant, for example. He avoids this
assertion by claiming that he has no idea if our perceptions are at
all accurate but that they are how things appear to us and that it
is useful for us to follow them. Also the solipsist avoids this by
claiming that they are only justified in asserting that THEY exist
but again that it benefits them to act on the appearances that are
being generated by their own mind.

They cannot claim that any act benefits them more than another, they
cannot even claim that they are acting. To claim that one act is more
beneficial than another, they must first assert that they have knowledge
of the results such that they can make a distinction. To claim they are
acting, they must first assert that they can accurately distinguish
between acting and not acting. All of which defeats their initial
assumption.
No assertion, no matter how obvious, can be either true or false to the
skeptic. A skeptic can't even distinguish between a valid and invalid
argument because he can't assert the truth or falsity of logic itself.
He is left, literally, without reason.

In the face of such an experiment, it is ridiculous to claim that
the color blind person's perception is no less accurate than mine.


Well, if you can provide the details of such an experiment that
actually works, then I'd agree with you. So far, I haven't seen it
[grin].

A thought experiment then. Albert can paint two pictures that look
absolutely identical to the rest of us. We will, for the sake of
argument, label one a "red picture" and the other a "green picture". No
matter how anyone else tries to confuse the issue, no matter how
scientifically sound the experiment, Albert can always tell which
picture is red and which is green. We, on the other hand, have to rely
on elaborate means to keep track of the distinction between the two
pictures (a very careful tracking system, after all we don't want to
mark either picture.)
Note, Albert is very much in the minority yet the non-skeptic has to
admit that Albert is able to perceive something distinctive between the
two pictures. Your whole argument about majority rule becomes moot.
Of course the skeptic is free to deny that any of the experiments have
taken place, deny that Albert ever claimed to have knowledge about the
pictures such that he could tell the difference between them, hell he
can even deny that Albert (and I) exist.
By doing so, he removes all cognition from himself, by doubting
everything he can no longer distinguish between the truth or falsity of
any claim including his own claim. His position is contradictory.
BTW, this isn't far removed from reality. The Inuit have vocalizations
that westerners simply cannot hear. Not that a skeptic will be willing
to accept any of it of course...

The epistemological objection is that we do not have
justification for thinking that our perceptions are accurate.
This makes any knowledge that we have that is based on
perceptual evidence unjustified ... and thus not knowledge at
all. And the skeptical claim is that we CANNOT justify sense
experiences. So if that is the case we have no knowledge of
anything based primarily on sense experiences, as those claims
are now unjustified. Since most of our knowledge IS based
primarily on sense experiences, that's a devastating blow to
epistemology and to our knowledge.


Someone who accepts the above argument, cannot state it. The mere
fact that you are able to write the above, and proof it to make
sure is says what you want it to say, refutes the argument you are
presenting.


Again, you are assigning an argument to the skeptic that the skeptic
need not make. The skeptic need not claim that one cannot BELIEVE
statements that are not justified. The claim you make here only
applies to people who claim that you cannot believe or act on either
a) propositions that you don't know (justified true beliefs) or b)
propositions that are not justified (the direct approach). The
reason most claims against the skeptic fall into responses like
yours is that most of the people arguing against skepticism take it
as true that you cannot believe things that you don't know or that
are at least not justified. If the skeptic -- as is his right --
declines to give an opinion on the matter, the argument is turned
back on the originator: given that the originator of the argument
refuses to believe in propositions that are not justified, and the
skeptic has shown that propositions justified by sense experience
are not justified, how can the originator of the reply accept or
believe any of those propositions? But the skeptic is not bound to
accept that claim. They can sit back and say that they believe all
of those propositions and act on them. They are not foolish enough
to claim that they are JUSTIFIED in doing so, but they simply deny
that one cannot believe an unjustified proposition.

In short, the contradiction here comes into play with a person who
requires justification for belief. The skeptic is not bound to that
position in any way, and so can reject it at their leisure. If they
do so, the skeptic is not refuted by that argument, and it is
returned to the person who brings up the claim that this leaves them
unable to believe anything to argue for why they believe anything
when the skeptic has shown them that those beliefs are not
justified. To escape the bouncing of the argument, the person then
has to follow the skeptic and deny that as well. But few people are
willing to do so. This leaves them no other option than to attempt
to justify those beliefs.

The skeptic *has* asserted a belief he *is* making a claim to knowledge
when he asserts that all claims to knowledge should be doubted. When
asked to justify this claim, by his own rules he cannot do it.
.
User: "Allan C Cybulskie"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 24 Dec 2006 07:49:26 PM
Daniel T. wrote:

"Allan C Cybulskie" <allan_c_cybulskie@yahoo.ca> wrote:

Daniel T. wrote:

"Allan C Cybulskie" <allan_c_cybulskie@yahoo.ca> wrote:


As important -- we sometimes fail to predict part of the
behavior of the world. Because of this fact, we can assert
that some perceptions of the world are more accurate than
others (because some have shown that they are more likely to
correctly predict future events.)


But the question is: Accurate about what?

Take the "brain in the vat" example. Certain perceptual
experiences fit inside the reality that is being generated for
the brain in the vat. Yet sometimes "real" experiences bleed
through. But since those aren't consistent with the generated
reality, those experiences fail to predict future events and so
are "less accurate". But less accurate about what? The false
reality. It's the less accurate experiences that are about REAL
reality.


To say that "real" experiences bleed through is to once again
assert that some experiences are correct (even if they are in the
minority.) An assertion that the skeptic refuses to make.


Ah, but the skeptic can indeed accept the assertion in order to show
that it leads to a contradiction.


In order to accept the assertion, even for the purposes you state, he
must first claim knowledge that the assertion has been made. He cannot
do that without undermining his position.

Well the skeptic can step around this challenge: As seen below, the
skeptic can simply state that they need no such knowledge. They can
claim that they do not KNOW that the proposition has been made, but
that they believe that it has. Thus they can act on it without having
to justify it, and they don't undermine their position at all.


So we may assert that some perceptions are "more accurate", but
that assumes that our perceptions are at all accurate to start
with.


Exactly. Such an assertion is inescapable.


Actually, no it isn't. Take Kant, for example. He avoids this
assertion by claiming that he has no idea if our perceptions are at
all accurate but that they are how things appear to us and that it
is useful for us to follow them. Also the solipsist avoids this by
claiming that they are only justified in asserting that THEY exist
but again that it benefits them to act on the appearances that are
being generated by their own mind.


They cannot claim that any act benefits them more than another, they
cannot even claim that they are acting. To claim that one act is more
beneficial than another, they must first assert that they have knowledge
of the results such that they can make a distinction. To claim they are
acting, they must first assert that they can accurately distinguish
between acting and not acting. All of which defeats their initial
assumption.

Well, let me start with Kant, since his way around it is the most
obvious: What Kant would likely claim is that the conclusions he would
draw are indeed true ... about the world of appearances. But you
didn't think that the world of appearances was the REAL world, did you?
It's utterly arrogant to think that how you perceive things is how the
world really is. So you can act as if something has been proven to
your benefit in the world of appearances, but you can't assert that you
have any justification for thinking that that is the way it REALLY is.
The solipsist, then, can be seen to take a similar tack. They can act
as if the act benefits them based on what they know about their own
subjective experiences. But there's no reason to think that that
reflects any sort of OBJECTIVE reality. And if they cannot know that
it reflects an objective reality, then they have no reason to think
there is one. But they can still act according to the rules of their
subjective reality.
You may ask at this point: so what's the big deal? They end up acting
the same way as the realists anyway. The reply is that it matters when
perceptions of ourselves and others differ. In the solipsist case,
their answer is generally obvious -- doubt the experiences of the
"others" in their subjective reality. For Kant, it's a little harder.
But for the realist, it's incredibly difficult unless they take the
same way out and claim that perceptions do not necessarily reflect
reality. But then it seems odd to claim that they do reflect reality
in any case without sufficient justification.


No assertion, no matter how obvious, can be either true or false to the
skeptic. A skeptic can't even distinguish between a valid and invalid
argument because he can't assert the truth or falsity of logic itself.
He is left, literally, without reason.

Well, there are a number of ways out here:
1) They can say they believe in logic, but don't know that it is valid.
2) They can claim that the laws of logic (and likely mathematics) are
necessarily true.
3) They can claim that the laws of logic are a priori and thus
necessary. They can then claim only to doubt perceptual experiences
and not a priori truths (there is some doubt to this).
4) They can claim that the laws of logic and mathematics are analytic
truths ... truth by virtue of the meanings of the laws. Or, if you
like, true by definition (not quite the same thing, but it will suffice
for now). The realist then cannot turn around and grant the same
status to perceptual truths because then why couldn't someone do that
willy-nilly for ANYTHING they wanted to justify? Gods, ghosts,
supernatural claims, and so on? Most realists won't accept this.
5) This move is mostly a summation: Since you accept above that without
believing in the laws of logic no argument or anything else can be
done, the skeptic can say that we MUST accept and believe them even if
they are not justified. At least SOME form of logic must be employed.
But they could point out that that is not the case for perceptual
beliefs ... or, at least the case that perceptual beliefs reflect the
or a real objective reality. So while they think it certainly
reasonable to accept some form of logic without justification because
of the utter import of those beliefs, perceptual beliefs do not get
such a free ride.
The key thing you keep missing is that the skeptic does not in any way
need to claim that they know anything. They can simply claim to
believe it, unjustified. This causes them little grief but much to the
person who wants to claim that one should only hold justified beliefs.
The second key issue here is that I think the distinction between
"reality-skepticism" and "epistemological skepticism" is being missed.
The reality skeptic -- the solipsist, for example -- will claim that he
is skeptical that an objective reality exists at all. His reasons will
be that he thinks he should only accept beliefs that are justified and
that the only belief that he has that is justified is that he is having
experiences. The epistemological skeptic simply says that perceptual
beliefs are UNJUSTIFIED. What that means is left to those who care
about justification (and the skeptic may or may not be such a person).


In the face of such an experiment, it is ridiculous to claim that
the color blind person's perception is no less accurate than mine.


Well, if you can provide the details of such an experiment that
actually works, then I'd agree with you. So far, I haven't seen it
[grin].


A thought experiment then. Albert can paint two pictures that look
absolutely identical to the rest of us. We will, for the sake of
argument, label one a "red picture" and the other a "green picture". No
matter how anyone else tries to confuse the issue, no matter how
scientifically sound the experiment, Albert can always tell which
picture is red and which is green. We, on the other hand, have to rely
on elaborate means to keep track of the distinction between the two
pictures (a very careful tracking system, after all we don't want to
mark either picture.)

Note, Albert is very much in the minority yet the non-skeptic has to
admit that Albert is able to perceive something distinctive between the
two pictures. Your whole argument about majority rule becomes moot.

Hmmm. I'm not sure how this relates to what I was talking about with
colour-blindness, but let me take a stab at the example and explaining
what I was saying using it:
What we have is the case that Albert can tell the difference between
two pictures and we cannot. So for us the pictures are identical and
for Albert they are not. So what can we say here about the way things
REALLY? Well, we can say that the pictures, in reality, really ARE
identical and that Albert's perception of a difference is really an
illusion, like others that we know we have. Or we can say that there
really is a difference in the pictures but that we simply can't see it
and yet Albert can. Which of these is right?
What we'd say is that it is likely -- and more reasonable -- to think
that Albert is perceiving it correctly mostly because we can't see what
could form such an illusion. But this is certainly not certain. We
cannot plead that reality must be a certain way because of ignorance of
how it could be otherwise. So here we don't really KNOW which
proposition is true -- or even if they are both false -- but that we
take a stance on it. But is this sufficient for justification?
My comment on colour-blindness was attempting to highlight this exact
point: Are what most people see as the colours correct, or are the
"colour-blind" people correct? And the critical answer has to be that
we don't really know. Now colour is a bad example because a lot of
people claim quite justifiably that that quality isn't in the object
itself anyway, but is in the perceiver. But the question applies
itself to any qualities: how do you know which quality really belongs
to the object itself independent of your perceptions? The skeptic
answer is that you don't.

The epistemological objection is that we do not have
justification for thinking that our perceptions are accurate.
This makes any knowledge that we have that is based on
perceptual evidence unjustified ... and thus not knowledge at
all. And the skeptical claim is that we CANNOT justify sense
experiences. So if that is the case we have no knowledge of
anything based primarily on sense experiences, as those claims
are now unjustified. Since most of our knowledge IS based
primarily on sense experiences, that's a devastating blow to
epistemology and to our knowledge.


Someone who accepts the above argument, cannot state it. The mere
fact that you are able to write the above, and proof it to make
sure is says what you want it to say, refutes the argument you are
presenting.


Again, you are assigning an argument to the skeptic that the skeptic
need not make. The skeptic need not claim that one cannot BELIEVE
statements that are not justified. The claim you make here only
applies to people who claim that you cannot believe or act on either
a) propositions that you don't know (justified true beliefs) or b)
propositions that are not justified (the direct approach). The
reason most claims against the skeptic fall into responses like
yours is that most of the people arguing against skepticism take it
as true that you cannot believe things that you don't know or that
are at least not justified. If the skeptic -- as is his right --
declines to give an opinion on the matter, the argument is turned
back on the originator: given that the originator of the argument
refuses to believe in propositions that are not justified, and the
skeptic has shown that propositions justified by sense experience
are not justified, how can the originator of the reply accept or
believe any of those propositions? But the skeptic is not bound to
accept that claim. They can sit back and say that they believe all
of those propositions and act on them. They are not foolish enough
to claim that they are JUSTIFIED in doing so, but they simply deny
that one cannot believe an unjustified proposition.

In short, the contradiction here comes into play with a person who
requires justification for belief. The skeptic is not bound to that
position in any way, and so can reject it at their leisure. If they
do so, the skeptic is not refuted by that argument, and it is
returned to the person who brings up the claim that this leaves them
unable to believe anything to argue for why they believe anything
when the skeptic has shown them that those beliefs are not
justified. To escape the bouncing of the argument, the person then
has to follow the skeptic and deny that as well. But few people are
willing to do so. This leaves them no other option than to attempt
to justify those beliefs.


The skeptic *has* asserted a belief he *is* making a claim to knowledge
when he asserts that all claims to knowledge should be doubted. When
asked to justify this claim, by his own rules he cannot do it.

As I have said before, the skeptic does not need to make any claim to
knowledge or justified belief. All the skeptic has to do in this case
is get you to accept that unjustified claims should be doubted. Once
he has that acceptance, then he wins unless you can justify, at a
minimum, perceptual beliefs. The skeptic doesn't even need to hold
that belief himself; as long as YOU believe that, he can show that you
have serious problems with, at least, perceptual beliefs. And if you
want to carry it down to logic, note that you cause yourself far more
problems than you cause him, because he can bail out of caring for
justification at any point if he wants to.
.
User: "Randroid Terminator"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 25 Dec 2006 08:31:41 PM
Allan C Cybulskie wrote:

Daniel T. wrote:

They cannot claim that any act benefits them more than another, they
cannot even claim that they are acting. To claim that one act is more
beneficial than another, they must first assert that they have knowledge
of the results such that they can make a distinction. To claim they are
acting, they must first assert that they can accurately distinguish
between acting and not acting. All of which defeats their initial
assumption.


Well, let me start with Kant, since his way around it is the most
obvious: What Kant would likely claim is that the conclusions he would
draw are indeed true ... about the world of appearances. But you
didn't think that the world of appearances was the REAL world, did you?

Yes. In fact, one of the categories of the understanding is Reality.
.
User: "Virgil"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 27 Dec 2006 03:30:51 PM
In article <45926b5e.22549953@news-server.houston.rr.com>,
(Citizen Bob) wrote:

On 26 Dec 2006 16:22:48 -0800, "chazwin" <chazwyman@yahoo.com> wrote:

Surely the world of appearances is the only reality we can have, if a
little embellished with reason. The fact that there may or may not be
another "REAL" world is of not the slightest interest of significance.


What a total load of complete bullcrap.

No wonder you don't understand physics.

Is CB under the delusion that what he perceives is "reality"?
.
User: "Citizen Bob"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 28 Dec 2006 10:26:14 AM
On Wed, 27 Dec 2006 14:30:51 -0700, Virgil <virgil@comcast.net> wrote:

What a total load of complete bullcrap.


No wonder you don't understand physics.

Is CB under the delusion that what he perceives is "reality"?

If what I perceive is not reality, then how could I accurately predict
the behavior of the material world in some instances?
You can indulge in your idealist subjective epistemological fantasy
world of cognitive psychology all you want but you will never predict
anything accurately about the material world.
--
"You can't conquer a free man; the most you can do is kill him."
--Robert A. Heinlein
.


User: "Randroid Terminator"

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 27 Dec 2006 01:47:07 PM
chazwin wrote:

Randroid Terminator wrote:

Allan C Cybulskie wrote:

Daniel T. wrote:


They cannot claim that any act benefits them more than another, they
cannot even claim that they are acting. To claim that one act is more
beneficial than another, they must first assert that they have knowledge
of the results such that they can make a distinction. To claim they are
acting, they must first assert that they can accurately distinguish
between acting and not acting. All of which defeats their initial
assumption.


Well, let me start with Kant, since his way around it is the most
obvious: What Kant would likely claim is that the conclusions he would
draw are indeed true ... about the world of appearances. But you
didn't think that the world of appearances was the REAL world, did you?


Yes. In fact, one of the categories of the understanding is Reality.


Surely the world of appearances is the only reality we can have, if a
little embellished with reason. The fact that there may or may not be
another "REAL" world is of not the slightest interest of significance.

Your focus here is overly empirical, it neglects the turn toward the
transcendental. Such a discussion would not revolve around
empirical objects, but on forms, concepts, representations, ideas,
and faculties.
The whole point of making the appearance/thing-in-itself distinction is
to create that very turn toward the transcendental approach. It is not
a commentary on the reality of anything or on our ability to know it.
It is to say: if one CAN consider things as appearance, then this
very fact brings the focus over to how this is possible at all. The
simple fact that this can be done is all Kant needs to begin
dispensing with Hume's critique of causality. The ontology of
appearance versus the thing-in-itself is completely irrelevant.
.


User: "Daniel T."

Title: Re: Could I be dreaming? 25 Dec 2006 09:42:44 AM
Allan,
My rebuttal was taking so long to write, I had to take a break. During
that time, I realized that my entire rebuttal, everything I write below
is wholly unnecessary. The skeptic's position can be defeated easily.
All one needs to do is agree with the skeptic that our perceptions
really do detect reality to some degree of precession, that he is right
to trust his senses.
Of course, in reading the above, you are probably thinking I'm confused
and you will make some claim to knowledge about my confusion, the
skeptic however *cannot* make such a claim to knowledge. He is left
without the ability to agree or disagree with any statement I make
because to do so tacitly assumes he is able to correctly discern the
statement.
You have attempted below to argue for the skeptic, but in every case you
assume that the skeptic has some claim to knowledge. You keep having him
positively assert things which is anathema to his basic position. To
successfully respond as a skeptic to this, you... you can't, because any
response at all again tacitly asserts that you actually received it.
"Allan C Cybulskie" <allan_c_cybulskie@yahoo.ca> wrote:

Daniel T. wrote:

"Allan C Cybulskie" <allan_c_cybulskie@yahoo.ca> wrote:

Daniel T. wrote:

"Allan C Cybulskie" <allan_c_cybulskie@yahoo.ca> wrote:

As important -- we sometimes fail to predict part of the
behavior of the world. Because of this fact, we can assert
that some perceptions of the world are more accurate than
others (because some have shown that they are more likely
to correctly predict future events.)


But the question is: Accurate about what?

Take the "brain in the vat" example. Certain perceptual
experiences fit inside the reality that is being generated
for the brain in the vat. Yet sometimes "real" experiences
bleed through. But since those aren't consistent with the
generated reality, those experiences fail to predict future
events and so are "less accurate". But less accurate about
what? The false reality. It's the less accurate experiences
that are about REAL reality.


To say that "real" experiences bleed through is to once again
assert that some experiences are correct (even if they are in
the minority.) An assertion that the skeptic refuses to make.


Ah, but the skeptic can indeed accept the assertion in order to
show that it leads to a contradiction.


In order to accept the assertion, even for the purposes you state,
he must first claim knowledge that the assertion has been made. He
cannot do that without undermining his position.


Well the skeptic can step around this challenge: As seen below, the
skeptic can simply state that they need no such knowledge. They can
claim that they do not KNOW that the proposition has been made, but
that they believe that it has.

That in itself is a claim to knowledge. They have once again refuted
their position in an attempt to defend it.

So we may assert that some perceptions are "more accurate",
but that assumes that our perceptions are at all accurate to
start with.


Exactly. Such an assertion is inescapable.


Actually, no it isn't. Take Kant, for example. He avoids this
assertion by claiming that he has no idea if our perceptions are
at all accurate but that they are how things appear to us and
that it is useful for us to follow them. Also the solipsist
avoids this by claiming that they are only justified in
asserting that THEY exist but again that it benefits them to act
on the appearances that are being generated by their own mind.


They cannot claim that any act benefits them more than another,
they cannot even claim that they are acting. To claim that one act
is more beneficial than another, they must first assert that they
have knowledge of the results such that they can make a
distinction. To claim they are acting, they must first assert that
they can accurately distinguish between acting and not acting. All
of which defeats their initial assumption.


Well, let me start with Kant, since his way around it is the most
obvious: What Kant would likely claim is that the conclusions he
would draw are indeed true ... about the world of appearances.

There he goes making claims that, by his own rules, he can't justify.
Everything that follows is irrelevant without that justification.

The solipsist, then, can be seen to take a similar tack. They can
act as if the act benefits them based on what they know about their
own subjective experiences.

They can't even know their own subjective experiences, so how are they
going to do anything based on them?

You may ask at this point: so what's the big deal? They end up
acting the same way as the realists anyway. The reply is that it
matters when perceptions of ourselves and others differ.

Since they doubt even the existence of others, and can't even prove
their own existence (because that too relies on perception) they are
left with literally nothing to reply to, or with.

No assertion, no matter how obvious, can be either true or false
to the skeptic. A skeptic can't even distinguish between a valid
and invalid argument because he can't assert the truth or falsity
of logic itself. He is left, literally, without reason.


Well, there are a number of ways out here:

1) They can say they believe in logic, but don't know that it is valid.

Thus they use the very thing they can't justify to justify the belief
that it is unjustifiable.

2) They can claim that the laws of logic (and likely mathematics) are
necessarily true.

Which denies their basic premise. A skeptic cannot make a claim to
knowledge.

3) They can claim that the laws of logic are a priori and thus
necessary. They can then claim only to doubt perceptual experiences
and not a priori truths (there is some doubt to this).

Which denies their basic premise. A skeptic cannot make a claim to
knowledge.
They cannot establish any proof of the laws of logic without perception.
I.E., their fundamental position is to doubt the very thing that proves
their claim.

4) They can claim that the laws of logic and mathematics are analytic
truths ... truth by virtue of the meanings of the laws. Or, if you
like, true by definition (not quite the same thing, but it will suffice
for now).

Which, once again, makes a claim to knowledge.

The realist then cannot turn around and grant the same
status to perceptual truths because then why couldn't someone do that
willy-nilly for ANYTHING they wanted to justify? Gods, ghosts,
supernatural claims, and so on? Most realists won't accept this.

The distinction is consistency. A claim to knowledge requires the
claimet to answer questions about the subject in some sort of consistent
manner. Claims of gods, ghosts and such fail on that exact point.

5) This move is mostly a summation: Since you accept above that without
believing in the laws of logic no argument or anything else can be
done, the skeptic can say that we MUST accept and believe them even if
they are not justified. At least SOME form of logic must be employed.

And that is an attempt to justify his claim! He can't even do that.

But they could point out that that is not the case for perceptual
beliefs ...

They can't point out anything without first accepting some perceptual
belief (for example that they are actually pointing to something or for
someone's benefit.)

or, at least the case that perceptual beliefs reflect the
or a real objective reality. So while they think it certainly
reasonable to accept some form of logic without justification because
of the utter import of those beliefs, perceptual beliefs do not get
such a free ride.

The key thing you keep missing is that the skeptic does not in any
way need to claim that they know anything. They can simply claim to
believe it, unjustified. This causes them little grief but much to
the person who wants to claim that one should only hold justified
beliefs.

That would only be valid if they accept every claim as equally
valid/invalid. Of course they don't do that. For example the claim that
all knowledge should be doubted is something they believe, but the claim
that some knowledge is justifiable is something they don't accept. By
their own rules, they have absolutely no justification for accepting one
and refuting the other.
Each of their beliefs becomes completely arbitrary, yet there are a
whole host of beliefs that every skeptic relies on to survive. Amazing
consistency for there to be no basis.

The second key issue here is that I think the distinction between
"reality-skepticism" and "epistemological skepticism" is being
missed. The reality skeptic -- the solipsist, for example -- will
claim that he is skeptical that an objective reality exists at all.

Sorry, his position doesn't allow him to make any claim to knowledge so
he cannot make such a claim.

His reasons will be that he thinks he should only accept beliefs
that are justified and that the only belief that he has that is
justified is that he is having experiences.

What might his justification be? Since his basic position is that no
claim is justifiable, it seems to me he would have a hard time answering
that question.

The epistemological skeptic simply says that perceptual beliefs are
UNJUSTIFIED. What that means is left to those who care about
justification (and the skeptic may or may not be such a person).

Well, if he has no meaning attached to the word "unjustified" then his
statement is literally meaningless. He is once again, left without
reason.

In the face of such an experiment, it is ridiculous to claim
that the color blind person's perception is no less accurate
than mine.


Well, if you can provide the details of such an experiment that
actually works, then I'd agree with you. So far, I haven't seen
it [grin].


A thought experiment then. Albert can paint two pictures that look
absolutely identical to the rest of us. We will, for the sake of
argument, label one a "red picture" and the other a "green
picture". No matter how anyone else tries to confuse the issue, no
matter how scientifically sound the experiment, Albert can always
tell which picture is red and which is green. We, on the other
hand, have to rely on elaborate means to keep track of the
distinction between the two pictures (a very careful tracking
system, after all we don't want to mark either picture.)

Note, Albert is very much in the minority yet the non-skeptic has
to admit that Albert is able to perceive something distinctive
between the two pictures. Your whole argument about majority rule
becomes moot.


Hmm. I'm not sure how this relates to what I was talking about with
colour-blindness, but let me take a stab at the example and
explaining what I was saying using it:

What we have is the case that Albert can tell the difference between
two pictures and we cannot. So for us the pictures are identical and
for Albert they are not. So what can we say here about the way
things REALLY? Well, we can say that the pictures, in reality,
really ARE identical and that Albert's perception of a difference is
really an illusion, like others that we know we have. Or we can say
that there really is a difference in the pictures but that we simply
can't see it and yet Albert can. Which of these is right?

What we'd say is that it is likely -- and more reasonable -- to
think that Albert is perceiving it correctly mostly because we can't
see what could form such an illusion. But this is certainly not
certain. We cannot plead that reality must be a certain way because
of ignorance of how it could be otherwise. So here we don't really
KNOW which proposition is true -- or even if they are both false --
but that we take a stance on it. But is this sufficient for
justification?

Now carry that out to all perception. The skeptic cannot accept that
Albert is perceiving anything correctly, he cannot claim that *he* is
perceiving anything correctly, he literally cannot claim anything at all
(for to do so would tacitly assert the reality of the very perception he
is denying.)
So we assert that there really is something different between the
pictures that Albert can detect, while the skeptic must remain mute. To
do otherwise tacitly asserts that we said something.

My comment on colour-blindness was attempting to highlight this
exact point: Are what most people see as the colours correct, or are
the "colour-blind" people correct?

To even ask that question is to deny the skeptics position. For you are
accepting that there exists some people who are colorblind and others
who are not. The skeptic can't accept that people exist at all, much
less that different people have different traits.

And the critical answer has to be
that we don't really know. Now colour is a bad example because a lot
of people claim quite justifiably that that quality isn't in the
object itself anyway, but is in the perceiver. But the question
applies itself to any qualities: how do you know which quality
really belongs to the object itself independent of your perceptions?
The skeptic answer is that you don't.

The skeptic can't answer at all, because making any reply proves that
they perceived something.

The epistemological objection is that we do not have
justification for thinking that our perceptions are
accurate. This makes any knowledge that we have that is
based on perceptual evidence unjustified ... and thus not
knowledge at all. And the skeptical claim is that we CANNOT
justify sense experiences. So if that is the case we have no
knowledge of anything based primarily on sense experiences,
as those claims are now unjustified. Since most of our
knowledge IS based primarily on sense experiences, that's a
devastating blow to epistemology and to our knowledge.


Someone who accepts the above argument, cannot state it. The
mere fact that you are able to write the above, and proof it
to make sure is says what you want it to say, refutes the
argument you are presenting.


Again, you are assigning an argument to the skeptic that the
skeptic need not make. The skeptic need not claim that one