Feynman's fallacy



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Topic: Science > Physics
User: ""
Date: 07 Jan 2005 10:39:09 AM
Object: Feynman's fallacy
I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.
In his first chapter he makes the point that, because the laws of the
universe will be perceived the same from wherever the person observes
it, there is no way to find the center of the universe.
That is a fallacy. That any given point can provide the vintage point
of observation of the laws of the universe, means not that any point
can be the center of the universe but rather that the laws of the
universe are omnipresent within the universe - which, of course, they
would be expected to be.
In no way does that state that there is no such thing as the center
of the universe, or the starting point for the laws of the universe,
or a substance or a creator or a divine essence from which the universe
comes.
Ilya Shambat.
.

User: "Old Man"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 07 Jan 2005 09:31:41 PM
<ilya_shambat2004@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1105115949.854438.306130@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...

I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

In his first chapter he makes the point that, because the laws of the
universe will be perceived the same from wherever the person observes
it, there is no way to find the center of the universe.

That is a fallacy. ...

With out a doubt, Shambat's straw man speaks with
crooked tongue. Feynman's argument is logically
self-consistent. The laws of physics are predicted to
be invariant under translations in space and time. An
observable center for space is inconsistent with that
invariance. Only empirical falsification can beat it.
The invariance of physical law is sufficient to that
observed in Nature. For necessary conditions, go
to church or dabble in philosophy, but don't come
begging to sci.physics.
All points in space appear as the "center". All
supposed "edges" are out of space and time. Your
light cone defines that which is observable, and
therefore, causal.
[Old Man]

Ilya Shambat.

.
User: "Edward Green"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 08 Jan 2005 12:33:52 AM
Old Man wrote:

<ilya_shambat2004@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1105115949.854438.306130@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...

I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

In his first chapter he makes the point that, because the laws of

the

universe will be perceived the same from wherever the person

observes

it, there is no way to find the center of the universe.

That is a fallacy. ...


With out a doubt, Shambat's straw man speaks with
crooked tongue. Feynman's argument is logically
self-consistent. The laws of physics are predicted to
be invariant under translations in space and time. An
observable center for space is inconsistent with that
invariance.

What constitute "the laws of physics" and "an observable center" are
not unambiguous constructions beyond all possibility of reasonable
doubt.
For example, suppose the universe had an isomorphism with R^3, and a
sufficient system of physical laws existed whose statement was
invariant with respect to shift of the origin in R^3. Now let us
deposit a three dimensional Gaussian distribution of feature X in this
universe, subject to the above postulated laws, and presume this does
not break the symmetry of the underlying laws.
Does this universe have an "observable center"?
The answer is yes insofar as the distribution of X is concerned, no
insofar as the symmetry of the original physical laws is concerned, but
again yes insofar as the symmetry of a possible modified set of
physical laws is concerned which absorb the effect of X into the
background.
.
User: "Old Man"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 08 Jan 2005 05:24:39 PM
"Edward Green" <spamspamspam3@netzero.com> wrote in message
news:1105166032.423568.320000@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...

Old Man wrote:

<ilya_shambat2004@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1105115949.854438.306130@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...

I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

In his first chapter he makes the point that, because the laws of

the

universe will be perceived the same from wherever the person

observes

it, there is no way to find the center of the universe.

That is a fallacy. ...


With out a doubt, Shambat's straw man speaks with
crooked tongue. Feynman's argument is logically
self-consistent. The laws of physics are predicted to
be invariant under translations in space and time. An
observable center for space is inconsistent with that
invariance.


What constitute "the laws of physics" and "an observable center" are
not unambiguous constructions beyond all possibility of reasonable
doubt.

For example, suppose the universe had an isomorphism with R^3, and a
sufficient system of physical laws existed whose statement was
invariant with respect to shift of the origin in R^3. Now let us
deposit a three dimensional Gaussian distribution of feature X in this
universe, subject to the above postulated laws, and presume this does
not break the symmetry of the underlying laws.

Does this universe have an "observable center"?

The answer is yes insofar as the distribution of X is concerned, no
insofar as the symmetry of the original physical laws is concerned, but
again yes insofar as the symmetry of a possible modified set of
physical laws is concerned which absorb the effect of X into the
background.

Ed Green has exceeded Old Man's thinking capacity.
However, it may be pertinent to note that the invariance
of physical law is sufficient to, but isn't a necessary
condition for, the observed uniformity of space.
The invariance of physical law ought to guarantee that
there are no observable physical consequences in
specifying a particular origin for the space-time metric.
[Old Man]
.
User: ""

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 09 Jan 2005 09:26:25 AM
Imagine an infinite row of identical bins. That's "spatially invariant
physical law". Now, let's distribute something in the bins, and say
again that the distribution is Guassian. Is the resulting structure --
bins + contents -- translationally invariant? No. Does "physical law"
remain translationally invariant? Apprently yes, since we identify
this with the underlying invariant structure of the bins. Does this
universe have an observable center? No, in terms of physical law; yes,
in terms of structure imposed in accordance with physical law.
Beyond this initial ambiguity, complications ensue. Say we subsume the
effects of the initial Guassian distribution into background, so
"physical law" is now no longer the role of the bins, but of the bins +
initial content. Now, describing the same situation, we have broken
the symmetry of physical law. And there is one other wrinkle, which is
even worse. Suppose the contents of the bins in turn distorts the
structure of the bins!
Whether or not Feynman is guilty of it, supposing that translational
invariance of physical law precludes the universe having a center is
not even fallacious.
.
User: "Old Man"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 10 Jan 2005 01:44:41 PM
<spamspamspam3@netzero.com> wrote in message
news:1105284384.985224.47210@c13g2000cwb.googlegroups.com...

Imagine an infinite row of identical bins. That's "spatially invariant
physical law". Now, let's distribute something in the bins, and say
again that the distribution is Guassian. Is the resulting structure --
bins + contents -- translationally invariant? No. Does "physical law"
remain translationally invariant? Apprently yes, since we identify
this with the underlying invariant structure of the bins. Does this
universe have an observable center? No, in terms of physical law; yes,
in terms of structure imposed in accordance with physical law.

Spam3 plays games with words. Spam3's entire universe
of "bins" is local.
The local distance between bins, the kinetic ene5gy and
temperature of each bin's contents, the number density
and mass density of the bins, the bin size, when the bins
were filled, all taken separately, aren't invariant physical
quantities, even if all of free-space were uniform or local.
If all of free space were uniform, other physical quantities,
such as, the number of bins, the number of wheat grains
in each bin, the order in which the bins were or will be
filled, the rest mass of each bin's contents, the speed of
light between the bins, all taken separately, are invariant
physical quantities.
If free-space were not uniform, for example, if the observed
speed of light varied from point to point, then the order in
which the bins were filled and the rest mass of each bin,
both invariant under uniform free space, wouldn't be
invariant.
The invariance of physical law depends upon the uniform
properties of free-space. Physical law provides appropriate
global transformations between localities wherof the
properties of space and time are, for example, altered by
local energy density.
The invariance of the space-time metric for free-space is a
sufficient condition for the invariance of physical law , and,
in our universe, the uniformity of the space-time metric for
free-space depends only upon the constancy of one physical
parameter: the locally observed speed of light.
Feynman wasn't speaking about locally observed variations
in energy density. He was speaking about the uniformity of
free-space. The constancy of the speed of light is a sufficient
condition for the invariance of free-space, and therefore, for
the invariance of physical law.
If free-space is uniform, then free-space has no center (a rather
trivial conclusion), and, regardless of energy density
distribution, physical law is invariant throughout the observable
universe (a most elegant conclusion).
[Old Man]

Beyond this initial ambiguity, complications ensue. Say we subsume the
effects of the initial Guassian distribution into background, so
"physical law" is now no longer the role of the bins, but of the bins +
initial content. Now, describing the same situation, we have broken
the symmetry of physical law. And there is one other wrinkle, which is
even worse. Suppose the contents of the bins in turn distorts the
structure of the bins!

Whether or not Feynman is guilty of it, supposing that translational
invariance of physical law precludes the universe having a center is
not even fallacious.

.





User: "Rob Dekker"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 11 Jan 2005 07:10:17 PM
<ilya_shambat2004@yahoo.com> wrote in message news:1105115949.854438.306130@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...


I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

In his first chapter he makes the point that, because the laws of the
universe will be perceived the same from wherever the person observes
it, there is no way to find the center of the universe.

That is a fallacy. That any given point can provide the vintage point
of observation of the laws of the universe, means not that any point
can be the center of the universe but rather that the laws of the
universe are omnipresent within the universe - which, of course, they
would be expected to be.

Let me try something :
If there IS a center of the Universe, then there must also be an edge
(otherwize there is no way to determine the center).
Now, how can you determine the edge of the Universe, if the laws of
physics are the same for all observers in the Universe ?
If you are standing 1m from the edge of the Universe, and you kick a
ball over the edge, and you see it 'disappear' or explode or whatever
else would happen at the edge, then your observations of the laws of
physics are different from another observer 1 km away from the edge
(who sees the ball disappear 1km away).
If you would draft the laws of physics, you would draft them as
'ball behaves normal until 1m away from me', and the other observer the laws
of physics would be drafted 'ball behaves normal until 1km away from me'.
Clearly different laws.
So in itself, Feynman's statement is a self-fulfilling prophecy :
If everyone sees the laws of physics the same, then there is
no point of reference (such as an edge or a center of the Universe).


In no way does that state that there is no such thing as the center
of the universe, or the starting point for the laws of the universe,
or a substance or a creator or a divine essence from which the universe
comes.

It DOES state that there is no center of the universe, but it does not
say that there was no beginning :
There could still be a 'beginning' of time, but that can only have happened if
it was also the beginning of space. Otherwize, the laws of physics would differ per observer.
But also a 'ever-existing' Universe, without a beginning is possible under this statement.
The statement does not say anything about where the Universe came from.


Ilya Shambat.

.
User: "PD"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 12 Jan 2005 09:16:19 AM
Rob Dekker wrote:

<ilya_shambat2004@yahoo.com> wrote in message

news:1105115949.854438.306130@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...


I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

In his first chapter he makes the point that, because the laws of

the

universe will be perceived the same from wherever the person

observes

it, there is no way to find the center of the universe.

That is a fallacy. That any given point can provide the vintage

point

of observation of the laws of the universe, means not that any

point

can be the center of the universe but rather that the laws of the
universe are omnipresent within the universe - which, of course,

they

would be expected to be.


Let me try something :
If there IS a center of the Universe, then there must also be an edge
(otherwize there is no way to determine the center).

This is not necessarily the case. Consider an infinite rod with tick
marks on it, and an infinite number line next to it. Now let the rod
expand in both positive and negative directions, so that the tick mark
on the rod next to the origin of the number line stays where it is, but
all the other tick marks are observed to move past the numbers on the
number line. In this sense, there is a center to the rod without there
being any edges.
What is interesting about this case, of course, is that the rate at
which the rod's tick marks move past numbers on the number line is
proportional to the distance of the tick mark from the origin. That
doesn't necessarily violate any isotropy of the laws of physics, but it
does indicate that there is an observable difference between different
parts of the "universe".
To apply this concept to our universe would demand an immovable analog
to the number line. Perhaps Ilya is proposing that an ether serves that
function?
PD

Now, how can you determine the edge of the Universe, if the laws of
physics are the same for all observers in the Universe ?
If you are standing 1m from the edge of the Universe, and you kick a
ball over the edge, and you see it 'disappear' or explode or whatever
else would happen at the edge, then your observations of the laws of
physics are different from another observer 1 km away from the edge
(who sees the ball disappear 1km away).
If you would draft the laws of physics, you would draft them as
'ball behaves normal until 1m away from me', and the other observer

the laws

of physics would be drafted 'ball behaves normal until 1km away from

me'.

Clearly different laws.

So in itself, Feynman's statement is a self-fulfilling prophecy :
If everyone sees the laws of physics the same, then there is
no point of reference (such as an edge or a center of the Universe).


In no way does that state that there is no such thing as the center
of the universe, or the starting point for the laws of the

universe,

or a substance or a creator or a divine essence from which the

universe

comes.


It DOES state that there is no center of the universe, but it does

not

say that there was no beginning :

There could still be a 'beginning' of time, but that can only have

happened if

it was also the beginning of space. Otherwize, the laws of physics

would differ per observer.

But also a 'ever-existing' Universe, without a beginning is possible

under this statement.


The statement does not say anything about where the Universe came

from.



Ilya Shambat.

.
User: "Charles Hill"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 13 Jan 2005 06:08:05 AM
On 12 Jan 2005 07:16:19 -0800, "PD" <pdraper@yahoo.com> wrote:

Perhaps Ilya is proposing that an ether serves that
function?

You mean as an anesthetic. Your concept might appear meaningful in that state.
.


User: "Jesse Mazer"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 12 Jan 2005 08:35:41 AM
Rob Dekker wrote:

<ilya_shambat2004@yahoo.com> wrote in message news:1105115949.854438.306130@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...


I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

In his first chapter he makes the point that, because the laws of the
universe will be perceived the same from wherever the person observes
it, there is no way to find the center of the universe.

That is a fallacy. That any given point can provide the vintage point
of observation of the laws of the universe, means not that any point
can be the center of the universe but rather that the laws of the
universe are omnipresent within the universe - which, of course, they
would be expected to be.



Let me try something :
If there IS a center of the Universe, then there must also be an edge
(otherwize there is no way to determine the center).
Now, how can you determine the edge of the Universe, if the laws of
physics are the same for all observers in the Universe ?
If you are standing 1m from the edge of the Universe, and you kick a
ball over the edge, and you see it 'disappear' or explode or whatever
else would happen at the edge, then your observations of the laws of
physics are different from another observer 1 km away from the edge
(who sees the ball disappear 1km away).
If you would draft the laws of physics, you would draft them as
'ball behaves normal until 1m away from me', and the other observer the laws
of physics would be drafted 'ball behaves normal until 1km away from me'.
Clearly different laws.

So in itself, Feynman's statement is a self-fulfilling prophecy :
If everyone sees the laws of physics the same, then there is
no point of reference (such as an edge or a center of the Universe).

In theory, one can imagine a universe where all the matter is collected
in a sphere of finite radius, but space goes on forever beyond the edge
of the sphere. So while the distribution of matter would have an edge,
the laws of physics would continue to work the same way beyond this edge.
Jesse
.
User: "tadchem"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 12 Jan 2005 09:14:52 AM
Jesse Mazer wrote:
<snip>

In theory, one can imagine a universe where all the matter is

collected

in a sphere of finite radius, but space goes on forever beyond the

edge

of the sphere. So while the distribution of matter would have an

edge,

the laws of physics would continue to work the same way beyond this

edge.
You could never know.
In a universe in which the space available to matter has an 'edge,' one
cannot "do physics" (observe the interactions of matter and energy)
beyond the edge to determine empirically whether or not the laws of
physics would continue to work the same way 'out there.'
The situation is analogous to the conundrum of the 'multiple universes'
models - they are impossible to empirically validate, and therefore
cannot be subject to the scientific method - they are not "scientific"
models.
Tom Davidson
Richmond, VA
.
User: "Jesse Mazer"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 12 Jan 2005 09:35:41 AM
tadchem wrote:

Jesse Mazer wrote:

<snip>



In theory, one can imagine a universe where all the matter is


collected


in a sphere of finite radius, but space goes on forever beyond the


edge


of the sphere. So while the distribution of matter would have an


edge,


the laws of physics would continue to work the same way beyond this


edge.

You could never know.

In a universe in which the space available to matter has an 'edge,' one
cannot "do physics" (observe the interactions of matter and energy)
beyond the edge to determine empirically whether or not the laws of
physics would continue to work the same way 'out there.'

My description was unclear, I didn't really mean *all* matter, just
galaxies and such--in such a universe you could in principle travel
beyond the edge and do physics experiments out there. Maybe it'd make
more sense to imagine a universe where, instead of there being an edge,
the average density of atoms in space tapers off in a fairly continuous
way from some central point--this would be another way for the universe
to have a "center", but without any edge.
Jesse
.
User: "Charles Hill"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 13 Jan 2005 06:03:30 AM
On Wed, 12 Jan 2005 15:35:41 GMT, Jesse Mazer <vze2ztqw@mail.verizon.net> wrote:

My description was unclear, I didn't really mean *all* matter, just
galaxies and such--in such a universe you could in principle travel
beyond the edge and do physics experiments out there.

Blind leading the blind into a dark universe? Better take a few matches along
if you have experiments to do.
.



User: "robert j. kolker"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 12 Jan 2005 08:38:03 AM
Jesse Mazer wrote:


In theory, one can imagine a universe where all the matter is collected
in a sphere of finite radius, but space goes on forever beyond the edge
of the sphere. So while the distribution of matter would have an edge,
the laws of physics would continue to work the same way beyond this edge.

How do you know? Vas you dere charley?
Bob Kolker
.

User: "Charles Hill"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 13 Jan 2005 05:59:19 AM
On Wed, 12 Jan 2005 14:35:41 GMT, Jesse Mazer <vze2ztqw@mail.verizon.net> wrote:



Rob Dekker wrote:

<ilya_shambat2004@yahoo.com> wrote in message news:1105115949.854438.306130@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...


I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

In his first chapter he makes the point that, because the laws of the
universe will be perceived the same from wherever the person observes
it, there is no way to find the center of the universe.

That is a fallacy.


In theory, one can imagine a universe where all the matter is collected
in a sphere of finite radius, but space goes on forever beyond the edge
of the sphere. So while the distribution of matter would have an edge,
the laws of physics would continue to work the same way beyond this edge.

Jesse

It appears to me that you both are trifling with a basic premise of
Einstein and relativity.
.
User: "Jesse Mazer"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 13 Jan 2005 09:54:07 PM
Charles Hill wrote:

On Wed, 12 Jan 2005 14:35:41 GMT, Jesse Mazer <vze2ztqw@mail.verizon.net> wrote:



Rob Dekker wrote:



<ilya_shambat2004@yahoo.com> wrote in message news:1105115949.854438.306130@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...




I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

In his first chapter he makes the point that, because the laws of the
universe will be perceived the same from wherever the person observes
it, there is no way to find the center of the universe.

That is a fallacy.






In theory, one can imagine a universe where all the matter is collected
in a sphere of finite radius, but space goes on forever beyond the edge
of the sphere. So while the distribution of matter would have an edge,
the laws of physics would continue to work the same way beyond this edge.

Jesse



It appears to me that you both are trifling with a basic premise of
Einstein and relativity.





I don't think so, see the quote I posted from the sci.physics FAQ earlier:
http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/physics/Relativity/BlackHoles/universe.html


Could the big bang be a black or white hole all the same?

In the previous answer I was careful to only argue that the standard
FRW big bang model is distinct from a black or white hole. The real
universe may be different from the FRW universe so can we rule out the
possibility that it is a black or white hole? I am not going to enter
into such issues as to whether there was actually a singularity and I
will assume that general relativity is effectively correct as for as
we are concerned here.

The previous argument against the big bang being a black hole still
applies. The black hole singularity always lies in the future light
cone whereas astronomical observation clearly indicate a hot big bang
in the past. The possibility that the big bang is actually a white
hole remains.

The major assumption of the FRW cosmologies is that the universe is
homogeneous and isotropic on large scales. That is to say that it
looks the same everywhere and in every direction at any given
cosmological time. There is good astronomical evidence that the
distribution of galaxies is fairly homogeneous and isotropic on scales
larger than a few hundred million light years. The high level of
isotropy of the cosmic background radiation (CBR) is strong supporting
evidence for homogeneity. However, the size of the observable
universe is limited by the speed of light, and the age of the
universe. We see only as far as about ten to twenty billion light
years which is about 100 times larger than the scales on which
structure is seen in galaxy distributions.

Homogeniety has always been a debated topic. The universe itself may
well be many orders of magnitude larger than what we can observe, or
it may be infinite. Astronomer Martin Rees compares our view like
looking out to sea from a ship in the middle of the ocean. As we look
out beyond the local disturbances of the waves we see an apparently
endless and featureless seascape. From a ship the horizon will be only
a few miles away and the ocean may stretch for hundreds of miles
before there is land. When we look out into space with our largest
telescopes our view is also limited to a finite distance. No matter
how smooth it seems, we cannot assume that it continues like that
beyond where we can see. So homogeneity is not certain on scales much
larger than the observable universe. We might argue in favour of it
on philosophical grounds but we cannot prove it.

In that case we must ask if there is a white hole model for the
universe which would be as consistent with observations as the FRW
models. Some people initially think that the answer must be no
because white holes (like black holes) have tidal forces which stretch
and compress in different directions. Hence they are quite different
from what we observe. This is not conclusive because it applies only
to the space-time of a black hole in the absence of matter. Inside a
star the tidal forces can be absent.

A white hole model which fitted cosmological observation would have to
be the time reversal of a star collapsing to form a black hole. To a
good approximation we could ignore pressure and treat it like a
spherical cloud of dust with no internal forces other than gravity.
Stellar collapse has been intensively studied since the seminal work
of Snyder and Oppenheimer in 1939 and this simple case is well
understood. It is possible to construct an exact model of stellar
collapse in the absence of pressure by gluing together any FRW
solution inside the spherical star and a Schwarzschild solution
outside. Space-time within the star remains homogeneous and isotropic
during the collapse.

It follows that the time reversal of this model for a collapsing
sphere of dust is indistinguishable from the FRW models if the dust
sphere is larger than the observable universe. In other words, we
cannot rule out the possibility that the universe is a very large
white hole. Only by waiting many billions of years until the edge of
the sphere comes into view could we know.

It has to be admitted that if we drop the assumptions of homogeneity
and isotropy then there are many other possible cosmological models
including many with non-trivial topologies. This makes it difficult
to derive anything concrete from such theories. But this has not
stopped some brave and imaginative cosmologists thinking about them.
One of the most exciting possibilities was considered by C. Hellaby,
in 1987 who envisaged the Universe being created as a string of beads
of isolated while holes that explode independently and coalesce into
one Universe at a certain moment. This is all described by a single
exact solution of general relativity.

.
User: "vonroach"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 14 Jan 2005 09:03:21 AM
On Fri, 14 Jan 2005 03:54:07 GMT, Jesse Mazer <vze2ztqw@mail.verizon.net> wrote:

I don't think so, see the quote I posted from the sci.physics FAQ earlier:

I suggest that you revisit it and reflect more deeply on what it means,
.
User: "Jesse Mazer"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 14 Jan 2005 01:25:00 PM
vonroach wrote:

On Fri, 14 Jan 2005 03:54:07 GMT, Jesse Mazer <vze2ztqw@mail.verizon.net> wrote:



I don't think so, see the quote I posted from the sci.physics FAQ earlier:



I suggest that you revisit it and reflect more deeply on what it means,


Can you explain what you mean? Einstein originally set the cosmological
constant to give a static universe, so wouldn't it be a valid solution
to the equations of GR to have a static universe containing a single
white hole?
Jesse
.
User: "glbrad01"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 19 Jan 2005 06:10:36 AM
"Jesse Mazer" <vze2ztqw@mail.verizon.net> wrote in message
news:41E8467C.7080206@mail.verizon.net...



vonroach wrote:

On Fri, 14 Jan 2005 03:54:07 GMT, Jesse Mazer <vze2ztqw@mail.verizon.net>
wrote:


I don't think so, see the quote I posted from the sci.physics FAQ
earlier:


I suggest that you revisit it and reflect more deeply on what it means,


Can you explain what you mean? Einstein originally set the cosmological
constant to give a static universe, so wouldn't it be a valid solution to
the equations of GR to have a static universe containing a single white
hole?

Jesse

I ask you this, if you have a spatially infinite Universe (thus uniformly
indeterminate), could it in any way be a static Universe? Does my question
contain its own answer?
A cosmological constant of zero would necessarily apply to the overall
timelessness of an infinite (of an indeterminate) Universe. It would apply
to an infinite Universe's equivalent of Greenwich Mean Time, in this case
real-time zero or Universal Real Time. Einstein put this time as time at the
speed of light. Hawking put it as the forever frozen time on the clock in
Grand Central Station Universe through which all the Universe passes at all
times. Static, absolute, unchanging, constant (cosmologically constant).
Considering Einstein's and Hawking's placements of "timelessness" on the
one hand and "zero" on the other, WHEN in the time of the Universe is this
'timeless zero'? Neither Einstein nor Hawking specifically identified
"when", but the "when" should be as obvious as "real-time." It should be all
too obvious, so obvious it has been overlooked and completely missed.
Obviously it would be the beginning time of the Universe. Just as
obviously it would the end time of the Universe, rather the leading edge of
the time of the Universe since per Einstein it has to be the time at the
speed of light, the one and ultimate light-time constant to which all time
ultimately points (all times ultimately point). So to close to it is to
close to Universal Real Time (the cosmological constant of zero). Pasts via
futures to zero.
Past, present, future, should be changed in order to reflect the above,
past, future, zero (-t +t = 0). We can't possibly pin down the present,
there is no "instant" in time, never was, never will be, just a very loose
expression of some relativity being indistinguishable from "instant." We
can't see or detect a "present" two mille-meters in front of, out from, our
eyeballs since the limitations of the constant of the velocity of light even
forbids it at that distance. A "history" must cross the distance--in the
distance-time between two points two millimeters apart--while in the
meantime time passed in even that space in that short of a time (thus
arrival to the eyeball of a light-time "history" frame). Space exists two
millimeters from the eyeball. The eyeball exists. the light beam or wave, or
burst, exists, but the time marked in the two-dimensionally 'flat'
light-time picture frame arriving to the eyeball no longer exists. We can't
catch up to 'now'. We can't catch up to 'real-time' or 'cosmological
constant zero'. The closest anything gets to catching up with it is in
atomic collisions. Yet even then there is always an [indeterminate] margin,
always a margin of [uncertainty].
All it really means is that the Universe carries a zero balance of time,
forever. It doesn't accumulate time. It doesn't accumulate such a
catastrophic, apocalyptic, liability. It isn't that stupid; it never was
that stupid; and it never will be that stupid. Only astronomers,
cosmologists, physicists, and people of certain religions, were and still
are so stupid as to believe it's that stupid.
A wheel of time turning on a hub of zero with no ground and no external
references whatever, turns in how many directions? Four! Hub zero. At top of
rim, right directional arrow. At bottom of rim, left directional arrow.
Right rim, down directional arrow. Left rim, up directional arrow.
Clockwise. Or, if you are counter-clockwise orientated, reverse the
directions of the four arrows. The big picture is mirror same in any case,
the wheel just also turning perpendicular to turn, where bottom is then top,
and top is then bottom, all directional arrows of time then reversing.
Remember, no ground and no external references.
If God stood at the side of a narrow fish tank full of light (the water),
indeterminate in length going off to right and to left of him, and with the
side of His hand chopped the light one chop per second there would be two
light-waves at once traveling away from his chopping, one to the left of His
timely chopping going away to the left in the tank, and one to the right of
His timely chopping going away to the right in the tank. The first
light-wave left and right reflecting the light-time of the first chop, the
second light-wave reflecting the time of the second chop, and so on. The
first light-wave moving away to His left and right, light-second distance to
light-second distance, away from His steady chopping each and every second,
will always reflect the first chop, never the second, never the third, never
the latest chop by the source propagator. Since each light-wave traveling
away from the source reflects a later time than the previous light wave
farther away in distance from the source, why is it a physicist believes
time to run face-forward, forward toward him as the distant observer rather
than *****-forward, forward toward him? Relatively speaking, the past arrives
to the observer at location zero in time, while the future is farthest
distant, also at a location zero in time, from that arrived past and from
that observer it has arrived to.
Does the stupid observer think he can observe any traveler traveling
directly away from him into time-future lines (relatively speaking)? when
all that arrives to him are time-past frames? Will time actually slow for
the traveler traveling time-future lines and he remain young while the
observer grows old? What is the traveler's starting point per the light-time
frames arriving to him before he even starts his travel? Relatively speaking
he is negative in the time-line at his starting point to zero at his
destination, and he must travel positively in space and time along the
time-future line just to arrive and break even in time with any observer at
his destination, and at his starting point as well. No, he will not remain
young while observers grow old. The Universe, or God, or both, putting him
back in [apparent] time with regard to any distant travel destination, at
any distance whatsoever, permits him to only break even in time--break even
with the cosmological constant of zero--in all time travels through space.
Brad
.
User: "vonroach"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 19 Jan 2005 08:45:44 AM
On Wed, 19 Jan 2005 12:10:36 GMT, "glbrad01" <glbrad01@insightbb.com> wrote:

I ask you this, if you have a spatially infinite Universe (thus uniformly
indeterminate), could it in any way be a static Universe? Does my question
contain its own answer?

A 'static' universe? Wake up and smell the coffee! Where is this imaginary
'static' universe? Change is ceaselessly evident.
.
User: "glbrad01"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 20 Jan 2005 01:11:21 AM
"vonroach" <hadrainc@earthlink.net> wrote in message
news:gcssu0l4pmlk4af4qc9acvuoc95s1etdb5@4ax.com...

On Wed, 19 Jan 2005 12:10:36 GMT, "glbrad01" <glbrad01@insightbb.com>
wrote:

I ask you this, if you have a spatially infinite Universe (thus uniformly
indeterminate), could it in any way be a static Universe? Does my question
contain its own answer?


A 'static' universe? Wake up and smell the coffee! Where is this
imaginary
'static' universe? Change is ceaselessly evident.

It is obvious you can't comprehend what you read. I ask, "could it in any
way be a static Universe?" The contained answer is no! Reason? It is
"indeterminate." A static Universe is anything but indeterminate.
Brad
.
User: "vonroach"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 20 Jan 2005 07:39:38 AM
On Thu, 20 Jan 2005 07:11:21 GMT, "glbrad01" <glbrad01@insightbb.com> wrote:

It is obvious you can't comprehend what you read. I ask, "could it in any
way be a static Universe?" The contained answer is no! Reason? It is
"indeterminate." A static Universe is anything but indeterminate.

Brad

Indeterminate? We have observed and determined a great deal about the portion
of the dynamic universe that we can 'sense'. Your feeble attempt to characterize
the universe has failed.
.
User: "robert j. kolker"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 20 Jan 2005 07:39:41 AM
vonroach wrote:

Indeterminate? We have observed and determined a great deal about the portion
of the dynamic universe that we can 'sense'. Your feeble attempt to characterize
the universe has failed.

But that portion of the Kosmos is very limited. We are fifteen orders of
magnitude removed from Planck Length even with our best instruments. We
will never really get to Rock Bottom.
bob Kolker
.
User: "vonroach"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 22 Jan 2005 10:26:42 AM
On Thu, 20 Jan 2005 08:39:41 -0500, "robert j. kolker" <nowhere@nowhere.net>
wrote:

We
will never really get to Rock Bottom.

That was not your thesis.
.






User: "vonroach"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 15 Jan 2005 08:24:39 AM
On Fri, 14 Jan 2005 19:25:00 GMT, Jesse Mazer <vze2ztqw@mail.verizon.net> wrote:



vonroach wrote:

On Fri, 14 Jan 2005 03:54:07 GMT, Jesse Mazer <vze2ztqw@mail.verizon.net> wrote:



I don't think so, see the quote I posted from the sci.physics FAQ earlier:



I suggest that you revisit it and reflect more deeply on what it means,



Can you explain what you mean? Einstein originally set the cosmological
constant to give a static universe, so wouldn't it be a valid solution
to the equations of GR to have a static universe containing a single
white hole?

Jesse

In a word, no.
.
User: "Jesse Mazer"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 24 Jan 2005 08:41:06 PM
vonroach wrote:

On Fri, 14 Jan 2005 19:25:00 GMT, Jesse Mazer <vze2ztqw@mail.verizon.net> wrote:



vonroach wrote:



On Fri, 14 Jan 2005 03:54:07 GMT, Jesse Mazer <vze2ztqw@mail.verizon.net> wrote:





I don't think so, see the quote I posted from the sci.physics FAQ earlier:




I suggest that you revisit it and reflect more deeply on what it means,




Can you explain what you mean? Einstein originally set the cosmological
constant to give a static universe, so wouldn't it be a valid solution
to the equations of GR to have a static universe containing a single
white hole?

Jesse



In a word, no.


Why not? Einstein originally set the cosmological constant so that the
universe as a whole would neither be expanding nor contracting, so
obviously a static universe is compatible with the equations of GR, even
if the cosmological evidence rules against it.
Jesse
.








User: "Uncle Al"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 07 Jan 2005 11:58:47 AM
wrote:


I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

In his first chapter he makes the point that, because the laws of the
universe will be perceived the same from wherever the person observes
it, there is no way to find the center of the universe.

Lorentz invariance. It is a founding postulate of both metric
gravitation and quantum mechanics. If space is homogeneous and
isotropic then linear and angular momenta are both conserved through
Noether's theorem. All physical rules are empirically the same
everywhere and everywhen to the limits of observational uncertainty.

That is a fallacy. That any given point can provide the vintage point
of observation of the laws of the universe, means not that any point
can be the center of the universe but rather that the laws of the
universe are omnipresent within the universe - which, of course, they
would be expected to be.

You are an idiot. All points within the unverse are exatly at its
center. All 4(pi) steradians point exactly at the Big Bang.

In no way does that state that there is no such thing as the center
of the universe, or the starting point for the laws of the universe,
or a substance or a creator or a divine essence from which the universe
comes.

Fine, idiot. In what direction would you look and not see back
exactly to the Bg Bang?
--
Uncle Al
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/
(Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals)
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/qz.pdf
.

User: "Dan Baldwin"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 07 Jan 2005 12:01:15 PM
wrote:


I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

Did you buy a copy for yourself, or did you trespass into a library
you'd been asked to keep out of again?
--
Dan Baldwin, unethical *by design*
I am a minion of Satan, but my powers are mainly administrative.
Hail the un-alive
.

User: "Arcturian 1"

Title: Re: Ilya's Phallousy 07 Jan 2005 11:15:26 PM
wrote:

I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

While wanking your ***** off at a private library you've been told to
stay away from, criminal?
.

User: "Edward Green"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 07 Jan 2005 04:57:39 PM
wrote:

I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

In his first chapter he makes the point that, because the laws of the
universe will be perceived the same from wherever the person observes
it, there is no way to find the center of the universe.

That is a fallacy.

I don't have the book here, so I can't tell what is garbled in your
translation, but you've certainly reported a fallacy, whatever Feynman
was guilty of; i.e. if "fallacy" isn't too strong, because your alleged
argument isn't even wrong.
.

User: "PD"

Title: Re: Feynman's fallacy 07 Jan 2005 12:06:36 PM
wrote:

I've been reading Richard Feynman's Six Not-So-Easy Pieces.

In his first chapter he makes the point that, because the laws of the
universe will be perceived the same from wherever the person observes
it, there is no way to find the center of the universe.

That is a fallacy. That any given point can provide the vintage point
of observation of the laws of the universe, means not that any point
can be the center of the universe but rather that the laws of the
universe are omnipresent within the universe - which, of course, they
would be expected to be.

In no way does that state that there is no such thing as the center
of the universe, or the starting point for the laws of the universe,
or a substance or a creator or a divine essence from which the

universe

comes.

You haven't thought this out carefully enough yet. If there were a
center of the universe, it would define the origin of a preferential
inertial frame, a "rest frame" that could be distinguished from other
frames in motion relative to that frame. However, the laws of physics
do not distinguish between frames that are in relative inertial motion.
That is, there is no way to tell, from the laws of physics, which frame
is the preferred frame. Since there is no detectable preferred frame,
there can be no detectable center.
I agree with you, however, that this does not imply anything about the
creation of the universe or a divine essence from which it comes.
Indeed, anyone who says that there must be a center for there to be a
divine essence has a rather limited concept of the divine.
PD
.


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