If space is non-Euclidean, then are the inverse-square laws really
inverse-square?
e.g. F<sub G> = (G * m * M) / (r^2)
and Coulomb's Law?
Would in m = E / (c^2) the denominator be c^(2 +/- epsilon)?
Multiplying through by time squared, one gets
m * (t^2) = E / (r^2) an inverse-square law?
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Regards,
Casey
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