Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective???



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Topic: Science > Physics
User: "kenseto"
Date: 12 Feb 2006 10:02:57 AM
Object: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective???
Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective???
Some runts of the SRians argued that length contraction of a rod is real. I
disagreed. I think length contraction of a rod is a perspective effect.
Here's why:
1. observers A, B and C are looking at a meter stick moving wrt them.
2. observer A calculates its length to be 0.9 meter.
3. observer B calculates its length to be 0.5 meter.
4. observer C calculates its length to be 0.2 meter.
Now if length contraction is real that would mean that the meter stick would
have to have three different real length simultaneously. I think such an
assertion is a bunch of bull. What do you think?
OTOH, if length contraction is a perspective effect then there is no problem
with the above calculated lengths of the meter stick by the different
observers.
Ken Seto
.

User: "kenseto"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 14 Feb 2006 03:09:29 PM
"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1139863353.621269.56590@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com...


Martin Hogbin wrote:

"kenseto" <kenseto@erinet.com> wrote in message

news:ZlLHf.98161$Q11.25303@tornado.ohiordc.rr.com...


"Martin Hogbin" <goatREMOVETHIS123@hogbin.org> wrote in message
news:dsnnv4$8pk$1@nwrdmz03.dmz.ncs.ea.ibs-infra.bt.com...


"kenseto" <kenseto@erinet.com> wrote in message

news:R_IHf.97975$Q11.18493@tornado.ohiordc.rr.com...

Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective???
Some runts of the SRians argued that length contraction of a rod

is

real. I

disagreed.


As an official 'runt of the SRians', I am fully qualified to answer
your questions.

I think length contraction of a rod is a perspective effect.
Here's why:
1. observers A, B and C are looking at a meter stick moving wrt

them.

2. observer A calculates its length to be 0.9 meter.
3. observer B calculates its length to be 0.5 meter.
4. observer C calculates its length to be 0.2 meter.

Now if length contraction is real that would mean that the meter

stick

would

have to have three different real length simultaneously. I think

such an

assertion is a bunch of bull. What do you think?


I think you are absolutely right! Length contraction is a

consequence

of measurement in the universe in which we live, just like

perspective

is a consequence of Euclidean space.


So you runts are disagreeing among yourself??


Martin, I'm one of the ones that has managed to confuse Seto. Since he
gets all of his understanding of SR from this newsgroup, he finds it
hard to sort among the different presentations of SR -- or for that
matter, correct vs incorrect statements about SR.

So let me see if I can relate what I've been telling Seto, and then you
can tell Seto whether or not you agree with it.

1. Length is the result returned from a procedure that inherently
relies on simultaneity in its definition and is therefore inherently
observer-dependent.
2. The fact that length of an object changes with observer does NOT
imply that some physical process has happened to compress the object.
3. The measurement of length is a *real* measurement and therefore
Lorentz contraction is a *real* effect. Saying otherwise gives the
impression that it is an illusion or distortion that implies some fault
with the measurement procedure. There is in fact, nothing wrong with
the procedure -- the operational definition of length is as good as one
can make it. There is no *better* definition that will produce an
observer-independent value of spatial length.
4. There *is* a quantity --the spacetime interval -- that is
observer-independent. However, that is not strictly speaking a
*spatial* length, any more than Euclidean distance is an x-component,
even though there is one frame where the interval coincides with the
spatial length.

Seto, on the other hand, is convinced that there is a *spatial* length
that is a measurable, observer-independent property of an object and
that this implies one of two things: a) either something physical
happens to the object to change its length, or b) what we measure when
we say we're measuring length is not really length. Because he is stuck
in this preconception, he can see no way out other than these two
choices, going so far as to say that it is *physically impossible* to
measure the length of a moving object or any distance from a relatively
moving frame of reference.

Thus, I'm trying to be very careful to specifically dissuade him of
this preconception. Even though there are some expositions of
relativity that use the *analogy* of perspective to make it more
accessible, that analogy has only served to seriously confuse Seto and
give him the impression that "SRians" don't even agree on the reality.

Does this help to explain what's going on?

Word salad based on assertions.
Ken Seto
.
User: "PD"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 14 Feb 2006 04:44:45 PM
kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1139863353.621269.56590@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com...


Martin Hogbin wrote:

"kenseto" <kenseto@erinet.com> wrote in message

news:ZlLHf.98161$Q11.25303@tornado.ohiordc.rr.com...


"Martin Hogbin" <goatREMOVETHIS123@hogbin.org> wrote in message
news:dsnnv4$8pk$1@nwrdmz03.dmz.ncs.ea.ibs-infra.bt.com...


"kenseto" <kenseto@erinet.com> wrote in message

news:R_IHf.97975$Q11.18493@tornado.ohiordc.rr.com...

Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective???
Some runts of the SRians argued that length contraction of a rod

is

real. I

disagreed.


As an official 'runt of the SRians', I am fully qualified to answer
your questions.

I think length contraction of a rod is a perspective effect.
Here's why:
1. observers A, B and C are looking at a meter stick moving wrt

them.

2. observer A calculates its length to be 0.9 meter.
3. observer B calculates its length to be 0.5 meter.
4. observer C calculates its length to be 0.2 meter.

Now if length contraction is real that would mean that the meter

stick

would

have to have three different real length simultaneously. I think

such an

assertion is a bunch of bull. What do you think?


I think you are absolutely right! Length contraction is a

consequence

of measurement in the universe in which we live, just like

perspective

is a consequence of Euclidean space.


So you runts are disagreeing among yourself??


Martin, I'm one of the ones that has managed to confuse Seto. Since he
gets all of his understanding of SR from this newsgroup, he finds it
hard to sort among the different presentations of SR -- or for that
matter, correct vs incorrect statements about SR.

So let me see if I can relate what I've been telling Seto, and then you
can tell Seto whether or not you agree with it.

1. Length is the result returned from a procedure that inherently
relies on simultaneity in its definition and is therefore inherently
observer-dependent.
2. The fact that length of an object changes with observer does NOT
imply that some physical process has happened to compress the object.
3. The measurement of length is a *real* measurement and therefore
Lorentz contraction is a *real* effect. Saying otherwise gives the
impression that it is an illusion or distortion that implies some fault
with the measurement procedure. There is in fact, nothing wrong with
the procedure -- the operational definition of length is as good as one
can make it. There is no *better* definition that will produce an
observer-independent value of spatial length.
4. There *is* a quantity --the spacetime interval -- that is
observer-independent. However, that is not strictly speaking a
*spatial* length, any more than Euclidean distance is an x-component,
even though there is one frame where the interval coincides with the
spatial length.

Seto, on the other hand, is convinced that there is a *spatial* length
that is a measurable, observer-independent property of an object and
that this implies one of two things: a) either something physical
happens to the object to change its length, or b) what we measure when
we say we're measuring length is not really length. Because he is stuck
in this preconception, he can see no way out other than these two
choices, going so far as to say that it is *physically impossible* to
measure the length of a moving object or any distance from a relatively
moving frame of reference.

Thus, I'm trying to be very careful to specifically dissuade him of
this preconception. Even though there are some expositions of
relativity that use the *analogy* of perspective to make it more
accessible, that analogy has only served to seriously confuse Seto and
give him the impression that "SRians" don't even agree on the reality.

Does this help to explain what's going on?


Word salad based on assertions.

Ah. So you started the thread without understanding any of the above?
PD
.


User: "kenseto"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 15 Feb 2006 09:59:28 AM
"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1139863353.621269.56590@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com...


Martin Hogbin wrote:

"kenseto" <kenseto@erinet.com> wrote in message

news:ZlLHf.98161$Q11.25303@tornado.ohiordc.rr.com...


"Martin Hogbin" <goatREMOVETHIS123@hogbin.org> wrote in message
news:dsnnv4$8pk$1@nwrdmz03.dmz.ncs.ea.ibs-infra.bt.com...



Martin, I'm one of the ones that has managed to confuse Seto. Since he
gets all of his understanding of SR from this newsgroup, he finds it
hard to sort among the different presentations of SR -- or for that
matter, correct vs incorrect statements about SR.

So let me see if I can relate what I've been telling Seto, and then you
can tell Seto whether or not you agree with it.

1. Length is the result returned from a procedure that inherently
relies on simultaneity in its definition and is therefore inherently
observer-dependent.

Here's the problem. Relativity of Simultaneity as derived by Einstein using
the train gedanken is bogus. Why? because it violates the isotropy of the
speed of light in the train.

2. The fact that length of an object changes with observer does NOT
imply that some physical process has happened to compress the object.

But you said that length contraction is real....from that one can only
conclude that you meant that if the physical length of a moving rod is
compared to the physical length of your rod ....the moving rod is shorter.

3. The measurement of length is a *real* measurement and therefore
Lorentz contraction is a *real* effect.

Again you misused the word measurement. The only measurement is the
frequency of the incoming light. Therefore any length dserived from this
measurement is a perspective effect.

Saying otherwise gives the
impression that it is an illusion or distortion that implies some fault
with the measurement procedure.

It is a perspective effect and the length is not measured. It is a
prediction of the SR equation..

There is in fact, nothing wrong with
the procedure -- the operational definition of length is as good as one
can make it. There is no *better* definition that will produce an
observer-independent value of spatial length.

Except that the length was not measured.
Ken Seto
.
User: "PD"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 15 Feb 2006 11:15:41 AM
kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1139863353.621269.56590@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com...


Martin Hogbin wrote:

"kenseto" <kenseto@erinet.com> wrote in message

news:ZlLHf.98161$Q11.25303@tornado.ohiordc.rr.com...


"Martin Hogbin" <goatREMOVETHIS123@hogbin.org> wrote in message
news:dsnnv4$8pk$1@nwrdmz03.dmz.ncs.ea.ibs-infra.bt.com...




Martin, I'm one of the ones that has managed to confuse Seto. Since he
gets all of his understanding of SR from this newsgroup, he finds it
hard to sort among the different presentations of SR -- or for that
matter, correct vs incorrect statements about SR.

So let me see if I can relate what I've been telling Seto, and then you
can tell Seto whether or not you agree with it.

1. Length is the result returned from a procedure that inherently
relies on simultaneity in its definition and is therefore inherently
observer-dependent.


Here's the problem. Relativity of Simultaneity as derived by Einstein using
the train gedanken is bogus. Why? because it violates the isotropy of the
speed of light in the train.

No, it doesn't. It stems *directly from* the isotropy of the speed of
light in the train. I see that this fundamental point of SR has eluded
you.


2. The fact that length of an object changes with observer does NOT
imply that some physical process has happened to compress the object.


But you said that length contraction is real....from that one can only
conclude that you meant that if the physical length of a moving rod is
compared to the physical length of your rod ....the moving rod is shorter.

Woah. Where did the phrase "physical length" come in? What makes you so
sure there *is* such a thing as "physical length"?


3. The measurement of length is a *real* measurement and therefore
Lorentz contraction is a *real* effect.


Again you misused the word measurement. The only measurement is the
frequency of the incoming light.

That's crap. Did you not understand the idea of taking a picture (on
black and white film, if you like!) of both ends of a passing object?
Where in there is any sort of a frequency measurement, let alone a
frequency shift, required. Hell, I reminded Greenfield that we could
have made the measurements with sonar detectors and used no light at
all!

Therefore any length dserived from this
measurement is a perspective effect.

Saying otherwise gives the
impression that it is an illusion or distortion that implies some fault
with the measurement procedure.


It is a perspective effect and the length is not measured. It is a
prediction of the SR equation..

There is in fact, nothing wrong with
the procedure -- the operational definition of length is as good as one
can make it. There is no *better* definition that will produce an
observer-independent value of spatial length.


Except that the length was not measured.


Ken Seto

.
User: "kenseto"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 16 Feb 2006 08:55:29 AM
"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140023741.931357.298060@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1139863353.621269.56590@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com...


Martin Hogbin wrote:

"kenseto" <kenseto@erinet.com> wrote in message

news:ZlLHf.98161$Q11.25303@tornado.ohiordc.rr.com...


"Martin Hogbin" <goatREMOVETHIS123@hogbin.org> wrote in message
news:dsnnv4$8pk$1@nwrdmz03.dmz.ncs.ea.ibs-infra.bt.com...




Martin, I'm one of the ones that has managed to confuse Seto. Since he
gets all of his understanding of SR from this newsgroup, he finds it
hard to sort among the different presentations of SR -- or for that
matter, correct vs incorrect statements about SR.

So let me see if I can relate what I've been telling Seto, and then

you

can tell Seto whether or not you agree with it.

1. Length is the result returned from a procedure that inherently
relies on simultaneity in its definition and is therefore inherently
observer-dependent.


Here's the problem. Relativity of Simultaneity as derived by Einstein

using

the train gedanken is bogus. Why? because it violates the isotropy of

the

speed of light in the train.


No, it doesn't. It stems *directly from* the isotropy of the speed of
light in the train. I see that this fundamental point of SR has eluded
you.

No it does not *stem from* the isotropy of the speed of light in the train.
RoS is "stem from" Einstein used the track observer's point of view to reach
the conclusion that the lightning strikes are not simultaneous in the train
due to the train's relative velocity wrt him. In order to reach the the
proper conclusion whether the flashes are simulteneous in the train the
train observer must reach his own conclusion. Since it was stipulated that
the flashes occur simutlaneously while the train observer is at equal
distance from the flashes then the train observer must conclude that the
flashes are simultaneous because the speed of light is isotropic in his
frame.



2. The fact that length of an object changes with observer does NOT
imply that some physical process has happened to compress the object.


But you said that length contraction is real....from that one can only
conclude that you meant that if the physical length of a moving rod is
compared to the physical length of your rod ....the moving rod is

shorter.


Woah. Where did the phrase "physical length" come in? What makes you so
sure there *is* such a thing as "physical length"?

ROTFLOL.....so there is no physical length? Another example of you trying to
redefine length to fit your bogus assertion.


Ken Seto
.
User: "PD"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 16 Feb 2006 10:47:58 AM
kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140023741.931357.298060@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1139863353.621269.56590@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com...


Martin Hogbin wrote:

"kenseto" <kenseto@erinet.com> wrote in message

news:ZlLHf.98161$Q11.25303@tornado.ohiordc.rr.com...


"Martin Hogbin" <goatREMOVETHIS123@hogbin.org> wrote in message
news:dsnnv4$8pk$1@nwrdmz03.dmz.ncs.ea.ibs-infra.bt.com...




Martin, I'm one of the ones that has managed to confuse Seto. Since he
gets all of his understanding of SR from this newsgroup, he finds it
hard to sort among the different presentations of SR -- or for that
matter, correct vs incorrect statements about SR.

So let me see if I can relate what I've been telling Seto, and then

you

can tell Seto whether or not you agree with it.

1. Length is the result returned from a procedure that inherently
relies on simultaneity in its definition and is therefore inherently
observer-dependent.


Here's the problem. Relativity of Simultaneity as derived by Einstein

using

the train gedanken is bogus. Why? because it violates the isotropy of

the

speed of light in the train.


No, it doesn't. It stems *directly from* the isotropy of the speed of
light in the train. I see that this fundamental point of SR has eluded
you.


No it does not *stem from* the isotropy of the speed of light in the train.
RoS is "stem from" Einstein used the track observer's point of view to reach
the conclusion that the lightning strikes are not simultaneous in the train
due to the train's relative velocity wrt him. In order to reach the the
proper conclusion whether the flashes are simulteneous in the train the
train observer must reach his own conclusion. Since it was stipulated that
the flashes occur simutlaneously while the train observer is at equal
distance from the flashes then the train observer must conclude that the
flashes are simultaneous because the speed of light is isotropic in his
frame.

No trick. If I have two clocks immediately adjacent to two things that
happen, and those clocks say they happened at the same time, then
they're simultaneous. If they say they happened at different times,
then they're not simultaneous. Notice there is *no* propagation of
light required because the clocks are immediately adjacent to the
events that happen. How else would *you* define simultaneous?



2. The fact that length of an object changes with observer does NOT
imply that some physical process has happened to compress the object.


But you said that length contraction is real....from that one can only
conclude that you meant that if the physical length of a moving rod is
compared to the physical length of your rod ....the moving rod is

shorter.


Woah. Where did the phrase "physical length" come in? What makes you so
sure there *is* such a thing as "physical length"?


ROTFLOL.....so there is no physical length?

That's right! Now you're getting it. There is *no such thing* as
physical length. There is only the length that we can measure and that
length is observer-dependent. There *is no* physical length that can be
measured and is observer-independent.

Another example of you trying to
redefine length to fit your bogus assertion.

I'm not redefining anything. You simply assumed there *is* such a thing
as physical length. What on earth gave you that idea? Where did you
read that there *is* such a thing as a defined "physical length" and
what is the definition of that "physical length"? Please cite
references.



Ken Seto

.
User: "kenseto"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 17 Feb 2006 08:44:30 AM
"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140108478.345976.112990@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140023741.931357.298060@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1139863353.621269.56590@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com...


Here's the problem. Relativity of Simultaneity as derived by

Einstein

using

the train gedanken is bogus. Why? because it violates the isotropy

of

the

speed of light in the train.


No, it doesn't. It stems *directly from* the isotropy of the speed of
light in the train. I see that this fundamental point of SR has eluded
you.


No it does not *stem from* the isotropy of the speed of light in the

train.

RoS is "stem from" Einstein used the track observer's point of view to

reach

the conclusion that the lightning strikes are not simultaneous in the

train

due to the train's relative velocity wrt him. In order to reach the the
proper conclusion whether the flashes are simulteneous in the train the
train observer must reach his own conclusion. Since it was stipulated

that

the flashes occur simutlaneously while the train observer is at equal
distance from the flashes then the train observer must conclude that the
flashes are simultaneous because the speed of light is isotropic in his
frame.


No trick. If I have two clocks immediately adjacent to two things that
happen, and those clocks say they happened at the same time, then
they're simultaneous. If they say they happened at different times,
then they're not simultaneous. Notice there is *no* propagation of
light required because the clocks are immediately adjacent to the
events that happen. How else would *you* define simultaneous?

The clock in the train will say that the time of the simultaneous events
occur at L/c and the clock at the track will say that the simultaneous
events occur at L/c. So what is your problem? So the events are simultaneous
in the train and the track.




2. The fact that length of an object changes with observer does

NOT

imply that some physical process has happened to compress the

object.


But you said that length contraction is real....from that one can

only

conclude that you meant that if the physical length of a moving rod

is

compared to the physical length of your rod ....the moving rod is

shorter.


Woah. Where did the phrase "physical length" come in? What makes you

so

sure there *is* such a thing as "physical length"?


ROTFLOL.....so there is no physical length?


That's right! Now you're getting it. There is *no such thing* as
physical length. There is only the length that we can measure and that
length is observer-dependent. There *is no* physical length that can be
measured and is observer-independent.

This is so stupid....We use the physical length of a ruler to measure length
everyday. Are you doing physics by assertion??
Ken Seto


.
User: "PD"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 17 Feb 2006 09:56:37 AM
kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140108478.345976.112990@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140023741.931357.298060@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1139863353.621269.56590@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com...


Here's the problem. Relativity of Simultaneity as derived by

Einstein

using

the train gedanken is bogus. Why? because it violates the isotropy

of

the

speed of light in the train.


No, it doesn't. It stems *directly from* the isotropy of the speed of
light in the train. I see that this fundamental point of SR has eluded
you.


No it does not *stem from* the isotropy of the speed of light in the

train.

RoS is "stem from" Einstein used the track observer's point of view to

reach

the conclusion that the lightning strikes are not simultaneous in the

train

due to the train's relative velocity wrt him. In order to reach the the
proper conclusion whether the flashes are simulteneous in the train the
train observer must reach his own conclusion. Since it was stipulated

that

the flashes occur simutlaneously while the train observer is at equal
distance from the flashes then the train observer must conclude that the
flashes are simultaneous because the speed of light is isotropic in his
frame.


No trick. If I have two clocks immediately adjacent to two things that
happen, and those clocks say they happened at the same time, then
they're simultaneous. If they say they happened at different times,
then they're not simultaneous. Notice there is *no* propagation of
light required because the clocks are immediately adjacent to the
events that happen. How else would *you* define simultaneous?


The clock in the train will say that the time of the simultaneous events
occur at L/c and the clock at the track will say that the simultaneous
events occur at L/c. So what is your problem? So the events are simultaneous
in the train and the track.

Not the picture I have in mind. Using your example, let's take a train
and lightning strikes at both ends of the train. There are *two* clocks
on the train, at each end of the train, so that there is a clock *right
next to* where the lightning strikes. The two clocks are synchronized
according to the procedure agreed upon (you do know what that procedure
is, don't you?). Since the clock is *right next to* the lightning
strike, there is no L for light to have to propagate before registering
the event on the clock. There is no propagation delay.
Likewise, since the lightning bolts also hit the track at the ends of
the train, there are two clocks on the track, each one right next to
where the lightning strikes. Each of these clocks is also synchronized
by the *same* procedure that the clocks on the train were synchronized.
Since the clocks are right next to where the lightning strikes, there
is no propagation delay L/c.
Nevertheless, if the track clocks say the strikes are simultaneous, the
train clocks will say they are not. If the train clocks say the strikes
are simultaneous, the track clocks will say they are not.




2. The fact that length of an object changes with observer does

NOT

imply that some physical process has happened to compress the

object.


But you said that length contraction is real....from that one can

only

conclude that you meant that if the physical length of a moving rod

is

compared to the physical length of your rod ....the moving rod is

shorter.


Woah. Where did the phrase "physical length" come in? What makes you

so

sure there *is* such a thing as "physical length"?


ROTFLOL.....so there is no physical length?


That's right! Now you're getting it. There is *no such thing* as
physical length. There is only the length that we can measure and that
length is observer-dependent. There *is no* physical length that can be
measured and is observer-independent.


This is so stupid....We use the physical length of a ruler to measure length
everyday.

No we don't. We use the *rest length* of the ruler. The rest length of
the ruler is that length the ruler has when it is at rest in the frame
of the observer. We use the rest length because the instruction manual
for the ruler says it has to be used that way, or the length warranty
is void.
There is no such thing as the "physical length" of a ruler. I have no
idea where you got the notion there was.

Are you doing physics by assertion??

No, I'm trying to explain to you what we know about nature. I'm not
going to win you over by argument. Physical theories don't win by
"argument". They win by agreeing with, and accurately predicting,
experiment.
PD
.
User: "kenseto"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 17 Feb 2006 02:48:55 PM
"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140191797.828846.301690@f14g2000cwb.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140108478.345976.112990@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...



No it does not *stem from* the isotropy of the speed of light in the

train.

RoS is "stem from" Einstein used the track observer's point of view

to

reach

the conclusion that the lightning strikes are not simultaneous in

the

train

due to the train's relative velocity wrt him. In order to reach the

the

proper conclusion whether the flashes are simulteneous in the train

the

train observer must reach his own conclusion. Since it was

stipulated

that

the flashes occur simutlaneously while the train observer is at

equal

distance from the flashes then the train observer must conclude that

the

flashes are simultaneous because the speed of light is isotropic in

his

frame.


No trick. If I have two clocks immediately adjacent to two things that
happen, and those clocks say they happened at the same time, then
they're simultaneous. If they say they happened at different times,
then they're not simultaneous. Notice there is *no* propagation of
light required because the clocks are immediately adjacent to the
events that happen. How else would *you* define simultaneous?


The clock in the train will say that the time of the simultaneous events
occur at L/c and the clock at the track will say that the simultaneous
events occur at L/c. So what is your problem? So the events are

simultaneous

in the train and the track.


Not the picture I have in mind. Using your example, let's take a train
and lightning strikes at both ends of the train. There are *two* clocks
on the train, at each end of the train, so that there is a clock *right
next to* where the lightning strikes. The two clocks are synchronized
according to the procedure agreed upon (you do know what that procedure
is, don't you?). Since the clock is *right next to* the lightning
strike, there is no L for light to have to propagate before registering
the event on the clock. There is no propagation delay.

If you stipulates that the strikes are simultanteous at both end of the
train then the clocks at the ends of the train will record the same time
when the lightning strikes. This is what any body with any common sense will
say. But of course you don't have any common sense. What you have is SR
religion belief.


Likewise, since the lightning bolts also hit the track at the ends of
the train, there are two clocks on the track, each one right next to
where the lightning strikes. Each of these clocks is also synchronized
by the *same* procedure that the clocks on the train were synchronized.
Since the clocks are right next to where the lightning strikes, there
is no propagation delay L/c.

If you stipulates that the strikes are simultaneous at the locations of the
clocks on the track then these clcoks will record the same time when the
lightning strikes occur. This is what any body with any common sense will
say. But of course you don't have any common sense. What you have is SR
religion belief.


Nevertheless, if the track clocks say the strikes are simultaneous, the
train clocks will say they are not. If the train clocks say the strikes
are simultaneous, the track clocks will say they are not.

It appears that you don't know what simultaneous means. Both the train
clocks and the track clocks will say that the strikes are simultaneous.



ROTFLOL.....so there is no physical length?


That's right! Now you're getting it. There is *no such thing* as
physical length. There is only the length that we can measure and that
length is observer-dependent. There *is no* physical length that can

be

measured and is observer-independent.


This is so stupid....We use the physical length of a ruler to measure

length

everyday.


No we don't. We use the *rest length* of the ruler. The rest length of
the ruler is that length the ruler has when it is at rest in the frame
of the observer. We use the rest length because the instruction manual
for the ruler says it has to be used that way, or the length warranty
is void.

Hey idiot rest length is physical length. Furthermore there is no such
thing as rest length. There is the physical length of a rest at rest wrt
you.


There is no such thing as the "physical length" of a ruler. I have no
idea where you got the notion there was.

Are you doing physics by assertion??


No, I'm trying to explain to you what we know about nature. I'm not
going to win you over by argument. Physical theories don't win by
"argument". They win by agreeing with, and accurately predicting,
experiment.

You don't know anything about nature. All you ever do is making assertions.
Ken Seto
.
User: "Dave Adamczyk"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 18 Feb 2006 04:17:34 AM
On Fri, 17 Feb 2006 20:48:55 +0000, kenseto wrote:


"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140191797.828846.301690@f14g2000cwb.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140108478.345976.112990@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...



No it does not *stem from* the isotropy of the speed of light in
the

train.

RoS is "stem from" Einstein used the track observer's point of
view

to

reach

the conclusion that the lightning strikes are not simultaneous in

the

train

due to the train's relative velocity wrt him. In order to reach
the

the

proper conclusion whether the flashes are simulteneous in the
train

the

train observer must reach his own conclusion. Since it was

stipulated

that

the flashes occur simutlaneously while the train observer is at

equal

distance from the flashes then the train observer must conclude
that

the

flashes are simultaneous because the speed of light is isotropic
in

his

frame.


No trick. If I have two clocks immediately adjacent to two things
that happen, and those clocks say they happened at the same time,
then they're simultaneous. If they say they happened at different
times, then they're not simultaneous. Notice there is *no*
propagation of light required because the clocks are immediately
adjacent to the events that happen. How else would *you* define
simultaneous?


The clock in the train will say that the time of the simultaneous
events occur at L/c and the clock at the track will say that the
simultaneous events occur at L/c. So what is your problem? So the
events are

simultaneous

in the train and the track.


Not the picture I have in mind. Using your example, let's take a train
and lightning strikes at both ends of the train. There are *two* clocks
on the train, at each end of the train, so that there is a clock *right
next to* where the lightning strikes. The two clocks are synchronized
according to the procedure agreed upon (you do know what that procedure
is, don't you?). Since the clock is *right next to* the lightning
strike, there is no L for light to have to propagate before registering
the event on the clock. There is no propagation delay.


If you stipulates that the strikes are simultanteous at both end of the
train then the clocks at the ends of the train will record the same time
when the lightning strikes. This is what any body with any common sense
will say. But of course you don't have any common sense. What you have is
SR religion belief.


Likewise, since the lightning bolts also hit the track at the ends of
the train, there are two clocks on the track, each one right next to
where the lightning strikes. Each of these clocks is also synchronized
by the *same* procedure that the clocks on the train were synchronized.
Since the clocks are right next to where the lightning strikes, there is
no propagation delay L/c.


If you stipulates that the strikes are simultaneous at the locations of
the clocks on the track then these clcoks will record the same time when
the lightning strikes occur. This is what any body with any common sense
will say. But of course you don't have any common sense. What you have is
SR religion belief.


Nevertheless, if the track clocks say the strikes are simultaneous, the
train clocks will say they are not. If the train clocks say the strikes
are simultaneous, the track clocks will say they are not.


It appears that you don't know what simultaneous means. Both the train
clocks and the track clocks will say that the strikes are simultaneous.



ROTFLOL.....so there is no physical length?


That's right! Now you're getting it. There is *no such thing* as
physical length. There is only the length that we can measure and
that length is observer-dependent. There *is no* physical length
that can

be

measured and is observer-independent.


This is so stupid....We use the physical length of a ruler to measure

length

everyday.


No we don't. We use the *rest length* of the ruler. The rest length of
the ruler is that length the ruler has when it is at rest in the frame
of the observer. We use the rest length because the instruction manual
for the ruler says it has to be used that way, or the length warranty is
void.


Hey idiot rest length is physical length. Furthermore there is no such
thing as rest length. There is the physical length of a rest at rest wrt
you.


There is no such thing as the "physical length" of a ruler. I have no
idea where you got the notion there was.

Are you doing physics by assertion??


No, I'm trying to explain to you what we know about nature. I'm not
going to win you over by argument. Physical theories don't win by
"argument". They win by agreeing with, and accurately predicting,
experiment.


You don't know anything about nature. All you ever do is making
assertions.

all the srians are idiots. relativity of simultaneity is total rubbish.


Ken Seto

.
User: "PD"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 18 Feb 2006 04:38:45 PM
Dave Adamczyk wrote:

On Fri, 17 Feb 2006 20:48:55 +0000, kenseto wrote:


all the srians are idiots. relativity of simultaneity is total rubbish.


And you know this how? Intuition?
PD
.


User: "PD"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 17 Feb 2006 05:54:44 PM
kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140191797.828846.301690@f14g2000cwb.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140108478.345976.112990@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...



No it does not *stem from* the isotropy of the speed of light in the

train.

RoS is "stem from" Einstein used the track observer's point of view

to

reach

the conclusion that the lightning strikes are not simultaneous in

the

train

due to the train's relative velocity wrt him. In order to reach the

the

proper conclusion whether the flashes are simulteneous in the train

the

train observer must reach his own conclusion. Since it was

stipulated

that

the flashes occur simutlaneously while the train observer is at

equal

distance from the flashes then the train observer must conclude that

the

flashes are simultaneous because the speed of light is isotropic in

his

frame.


No trick. If I have two clocks immediately adjacent to two things that
happen, and those clocks say they happened at the same time, then
they're simultaneous. If they say they happened at different times,
then they're not simultaneous. Notice there is *no* propagation of
light required because the clocks are immediately adjacent to the
events that happen. How else would *you* define simultaneous?


The clock in the train will say that the time of the simultaneous events
occur at L/c and the clock at the track will say that the simultaneous
events occur at L/c. So what is your problem? So the events are

simultaneous

in the train and the track.


Not the picture I have in mind. Using your example, let's take a train
and lightning strikes at both ends of the train. There are *two* clocks
on the train, at each end of the train, so that there is a clock *right
next to* where the lightning strikes. The two clocks are synchronized
according to the procedure agreed upon (you do know what that procedure
is, don't you?). Since the clock is *right next to* the lightning
strike, there is no L for light to have to propagate before registering
the event on the clock. There is no propagation delay.


If you stipulates that the strikes are simultanteous at both end of the
train then the clocks at the ends of the train will record the same time
when the lightning strikes. This is what any body with any common sense will
say. But of course you don't have any common sense. What you have is SR
religion belief.

But I made no such stipulation, and there's a reason for that. *If* the
train clocks say they are simultaneous, then the track clocks will say
they are not. *If* the track clocks say they are simultaneous, then the
train clocks will say they are not. Now, how am I going to take that
information and determine whether the strikes are "really" simultaneous
or not? On what basis would I make any such stipulation?


Likewise, since the lightning bolts also hit the track at the ends of
the train, there are two clocks on the track, each one right next to
where the lightning strikes. Each of these clocks is also synchronized
by the *same* procedure that the clocks on the train were synchronized.
Since the clocks are right next to where the lightning strikes, there
is no propagation delay L/c.


If you stipulates that the strikes are simultaneous at the locations of the
clocks on the track then these clcoks will record the same time when the
lightning strikes occur. This is what any body with any common sense will
say. But of course you don't have any common sense. What you have is SR
religion belief.


Nevertheless, if the track clocks say the strikes are simultaneous, the
train clocks will say they are not. If the train clocks say the strikes
are simultaneous, the track clocks will say they are not.


It appears that you don't know what simultaneous means. Both the train
clocks and the track clocks will say that the strikes are simultaneous.

That is demonstrably and experimentally *not* the case, and the fact
that they do not is *entirely* consistent with the laws of physics.
There is *no physical way* to define a clock synchronization procedure
in such a way that if the train clocks are both synchronized to each
other using this procedure, and the track clocks are both synchronized
to each other using this procedure, then all four clocks will be
synchronized. There is simply no way to do it that is consistent with
the laws of physics. That is the experimental fact.



ROTFLOL.....so there is no physical length?


That's right! Now you're getting it. There is *no such thing* as
physical length. There is only the length that we can measure and that
length is observer-dependent. There *is no* physical length that can

be

measured and is observer-independent.


This is so stupid....We use the physical length of a ruler to measure

length

everyday.


No we don't. We use the *rest length* of the ruler. The rest length of
the ruler is that length the ruler has when it is at rest in the frame
of the observer. We use the rest length because the instruction manual
for the ruler says it has to be used that way, or the length warranty
is void.


Hey idiot rest length is physical length. Furthermore there is no such
thing as rest length. There is the physical length of a rest at rest wrt
you.

Oooh, I like that definition: "...the physical length of a rest at rest
wrt you."


There is no such thing as the "physical length" of a ruler. I have no
idea where you got the notion there was.

Are you doing physics by assertion??


No, I'm trying to explain to you what we know about nature. I'm not
going to win you over by argument. Physical theories don't win by
"argument". They win by agreeing with, and accurately predicting,
experiment.


You don't know anything about nature. All you ever do is making assertions.

Well, Ken, there will always be experiment to determine who's right,
won't there? Hopefully, you'll learn enough about designing
experiments, experimental precision, and choosing parts that you'll be
able to write a grant proposal that isn't round-filed the moment it's
received.
PD
.
User: "kenseto"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 18 Feb 2006 09:23:24 AM
"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140220484.697720.207290@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140191797.828846.301690@f14g2000cwb.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140108478.345976.112990@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...



No it does not *stem from* the isotropy of the speed of light in

the

train.

RoS is "stem from" Einstein used the track observer's point of

view

to

reach

the conclusion that the lightning strikes are not simultaneous

in

the

train

due to the train's relative velocity wrt him. In order to reach

the

the

proper conclusion whether the flashes are simulteneous in the

train

the

train observer must reach his own conclusion. Since it was

stipulated

that

the flashes occur simutlaneously while the train observer is at

equal

distance from the flashes then the train observer must conclude

that

the

flashes are simultaneous because the speed of light is isotropic

in

his

frame.


No trick. If I have two clocks immediately adjacent to two things

that

happen, and those clocks say they happened at the same time, then
they're simultaneous. If they say they happened at different

times,

then they're not simultaneous. Notice there is *no* propagation of
light required because the clocks are immediately adjacent to the
events that happen. How else would *you* define simultaneous?


The clock in the train will say that the time of the simultaneous

events

occur at L/c and the clock at the track will say that the

simultaneous

events occur at L/c. So what is your problem? So the events are

simultaneous

in the train and the track.


Not the picture I have in mind. Using your example, let's take a train
and lightning strikes at both ends of the train. There are *two*

clocks

on the train, at each end of the train, so that there is a clock

*right

next to* where the lightning strikes. The two clocks are synchronized
according to the procedure agreed upon (you do know what that

procedure

is, don't you?). Since the clock is *right next to* the lightning
strike, there is no L for light to have to propagate before

registering

the event on the clock. There is no propagation delay.


If you stipulates that the strikes are simultanteous at both end of the
train then the clocks at the ends of the train will record the same time
when the lightning strikes. This is what any body with any common sense

will

say. But of course you don't have any common sense. What you have is SR
religion belief.


But I made no such stipulation, and there's a reason for that. *If* the
train clocks say they are simultaneous, then the track clocks will say
they are not. *If* the track clocks say they are simultaneous, then the
train clocks will say they are not.

What you said here is based on your naive assertion. You have no arguement
against what I said about Einstein's gedanken. You invented this new
gedanken and then made the above assertions without support.

Now, how am I going to take that
information and determine whether the strikes are "really" simultaneous
or not? On what basis would I make any such stipulation?

What information??? You asserted without support that if the train clocks
say the the strikes are simultaneous then the track clocks will say that the
strikes are not simultaneous.



Likewise, since the lightning bolts also hit the track at the ends of
the train, there are two clocks on the track, each one right next to
where the lightning strikes. Each of these clocks is also synchronized
by the *same* procedure that the clocks on the train were

synchronized.

Since the clocks are right next to where the lightning strikes, there
is no propagation delay L/c.


If you stipulates that the strikes are simultaneous at the locations of

the

clocks on the track then these clcoks will record the same time when the
lightning strikes occur. This is what any body with any common sense

will

say. But of course you don't have any common sense. What you have is SR
religion belief.


Nevertheless, if the track clocks say the strikes are simultaneous,

the

train clocks will say they are not. If the train clocks say the

strikes

are simultaneous, the track clocks will say they are not.


It appears that you don't know what simultaneous means. Both the train
clocks and the track clocks will say that the strikes are simultaneous.


That is demonstrably and experimentally *not* the case, and the fact
that they do not is *entirely* consistent with the laws of physics.
There is *no physical way* to define a clock synchronization procedure
in such a way that if the train clocks are both synchronized to each
other using this procedure, and the track clocks are both synchronized
to each other using this procedure, then all four clocks will be
synchronized. There is simply no way to do it that is consistent with
the laws of physics. That is the experimental fact.

Sigh....the two clocks in the train are synchronized independently by slow
clock transport in the opposite directions. The two clocks on the track are
synchronized independtly by slow clock transport in the opposite directions.
Why do you have to synchronize all four clocks? In fact there is no valid
way to synchronize the four clcoks. Furthermore you stupid gedanken have the
following problem:
1. How far apart do you set the track clocks? What about length contraction
of the train?
2. The strikes have to occur simultaneously when the train clocks are
exactly coincide with the track clocks.
Einstein's gedanken is much better. There is one clock in the middle of the
train and one clock on the track. The strikes occur simutaneously when the
train observer is coincide with the track observer. There is no
synchronization of clocks involved.




ROTFLOL.....so there is no physical length?


That's right! Now you're getting it. There is *no such thing* as
physical length. There is only the length that we can measure and

that

length is observer-dependent. There *is no* physical length that

can

be

measured and is observer-independent.


This is so stupid....We use the physical length of a ruler to

measure

length

everyday.


No we don't. We use the *rest length* of the ruler. The rest length of
the ruler is that length the ruler has when it is at rest in the frame
of the observer. We use the rest length because the instruction manual
for the ruler says it has to be used that way, or the length warranty
is void.


Hey idiot rest length is physical length. Furthermore there is no such
thing as rest length. There is the physical length of a rest at rest wrt
you.


Oooh, I like that definition: "...the physical length of a rest at rest
wrt you."

Sorry a typo it should be "There is the physical length of a rod at rest wrt
you."



There is no such thing as the "physical length" of a ruler. I have no
idea where you got the notion there was.

Are you doing physics by assertion??


No, I'm trying to explain to you what we know about nature. I'm not
going to win you over by argument. Physical theories don't win by
"argument". They win by agreeing with, and accurately predicting,
experiment.


You don't know anything about nature. All you ever do is making

assertions.



Well, Ken, there will always be experiment to determine who's right,
won't there?

Sure there are such experiments but you SRians asserted that they are not
worthwhile to do. For example:
1. Direct measurement of the one way speed of light.
2. Do the MMX with the plane of the light rays oriented in the vertical
direction.
3. Do the experiments in the following link:
http://www.geocities.com/kn_seto/2005Experiment,pdf

Hopefully, you'll learn enough about designing
experiments, experimental precision, and choosing parts that you'll be
able to write a grant proposal that isn't round-filed the moment it's
received.

There is no chance that I can get a grant to do my experiments. You SRians
will simply reject my proposal without comment. This is one sure way to
preserve status quote.
Ken Seto
.
User: "PD"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 18 Feb 2006 04:36:32 PM
kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140220484.697720.207290@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140191797.828846.301690@f14g2000cwb.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140108478.345976.112990@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...



No it does not *stem from* the isotropy of the speed of light in

the

train.

RoS is "stem from" Einstein used the track observer's point of

view

to

reach

the conclusion that the lightning strikes are not simultaneous

in

the

train

due to the train's relative velocity wrt him. In order to reach

the

the

proper conclusion whether the flashes are simulteneous in the

train

the

train observer must reach his own conclusion. Since it was

stipulated

that

the flashes occur simutlaneously while the train observer is at

equal

distance from the flashes then the train observer must conclude

that

the

flashes are simultaneous because the speed of light is isotropic

in

his

frame.


No trick. If I have two clocks immediately adjacent to two things

that

happen, and those clocks say they happened at the same time, then
they're simultaneous. If they say they happened at different

times,

then they're not simultaneous. Notice there is *no* propagation of
light required because the clocks are immediately adjacent to the
events that happen. How else would *you* define simultaneous?


The clock in the train will say that the time of the simultaneous

events

occur at L/c and the clock at the track will say that the

simultaneous

events occur at L/c. So what is your problem? So the events are

simultaneous

in the train and the track.


Not the picture I have in mind. Using your example, let's take a train
and lightning strikes at both ends of the train. There are *two*

clocks

on the train, at each end of the train, so that there is a clock

*right

next to* where the lightning strikes. The two clocks are synchronized
according to the procedure agreed upon (you do know what that

procedure

is, don't you?). Since the clock is *right next to* the lightning
strike, there is no L for light to have to propagate before

registering

the event on the clock. There is no propagation delay.


If you stipulates that the strikes are simultanteous at both end of the
train then the clocks at the ends of the train will record the same time
when the lightning strikes. This is what any body with any common sense

will

say. But of course you don't have any common sense. What you have is SR
religion belief.


But I made no such stipulation, and there's a reason for that. *If* the
train clocks say they are simultaneous, then the track clocks will say
they are not. *If* the track clocks say they are simultaneous, then the
train clocks will say they are not.


What you said here is based on your naive assertion. You have no arguement
against what I said about Einstein's gedanken. You invented this new
gedanken and then made the above assertions without support.

I chose another "gedanken" because I understand what SR says and so
chose it to be more apparent to you, because you are apparently
flummoxed by Einstein's particular choices to illustrate. The
principles of SR extend beyond that particular configuration, you know.


Now, how am I going to take that
information and determine whether the strikes are "really" simultaneous
or not? On what basis would I make any such stipulation?


What information??? You asserted without support that if the train clocks
say the the strikes are simultaneous then the track clocks will say that the
strikes are not simultaneous.

Yup. And experiment bears that out, and I can certainly explain why
that is perfectly consistent with the laws of physics.



Likewise, since the lightning bolts also hit the track at the ends of
the train, there are two clocks on the track, each one right next to
where the lightning strikes. Each of these clocks is also synchronized
by the *same* procedure that the clocks on the train were

synchronized.

Since the clocks are right next to where the lightning strikes, there
is no propagation delay L/c.


If you stipulates that the strikes are simultaneous at the locations of

the

clocks on the track then these clcoks will record the same time when the
lightning strikes occur. This is what any body with any common sense

will

say. But of course you don't have any common sense. What you have is SR
religion belief.


Nevertheless, if the track clocks say the strikes are simultaneous,

the

train clocks will say they are not. If the train clocks say the

strikes

are simultaneous, the track clocks will say they are not.


It appears that you don't know what simultaneous means. Both the train
clocks and the track clocks will say that the strikes are simultaneous.


That is demonstrably and experimentally *not* the case, and the fact
that they do not is *entirely* consistent with the laws of physics.
There is *no physical way* to define a clock synchronization procedure
in such a way that if the train clocks are both synchronized to each
other using this procedure, and the track clocks are both synchronized
to each other using this procedure, then all four clocks will be
synchronized. There is simply no way to do it that is consistent with
the laws of physics. That is the experimental fact.


Sigh....the two clocks in the train are synchronized independently by slow
clock transport in the opposite directions. The two clocks on the track are
synchronized independtly by slow clock transport in the opposite directions.
Why do you have to synchronize all four clocks? In fact there is no valid
way to synchronize the four clcoks.

Indeed that is true, evidenced by the fact that the *same* two
lightning strikes will never show up as being simultaneous on all four
clocks.

Furthermore you stupid gedanken have the
following problem:
1. How far apart do you set the track clocks? What about length contraction
of the train?

Don't be an idiot. I said there were two clocks at the ends of the
train and they were synchronized. I didn't say those were the only two
track clocks present, or that those were the only two that were
synchronized. If I have a whole track-full of clocks, I'm guaranteed
that there will be a clock immediately adjacent to the lightning
strikes.

2. The strikes have to occur simultaneously when the train clocks are
exactly coincide with the track clocks.

Not so. One set of clocks say they happened at the same time, and the
other set says that one lightning strike hit the front of the train
first and one hit the back of the train second. Why is this so hard for
you?

Einstein's gedanken is much better. There is one clock in the middle of the
train and one clock on the track. The strikes occur simutaneously when the
train observer is coincide with the track observer. There is no
synchronization of clocks involved.

Right, but then you have to worry about L/c time delays, which is
tripping you up. In my scheme there is no light propagation delay
whatsoever. Simply synchronize clocks according to a procedure that you
and I will agree will work, and check that synchronization just before
and just after the strike, just to be sure they're still synchronized
according to the common, agreed-upon procedure.




ROTFLOL.....so there is no physical length?


That's right! Now you're getting it. There is *no such thing* as
physical length. There is only the length that we can measure and

that

length is observer-dependent. There *is no* physical length that

can

be

measured and is observer-independent.


This is so stupid....We use the physical length of a ruler to

measure

length

everyday.


No we don't. We use the *rest length* of the ruler. The rest length of
the ruler is that length the ruler has when it is at rest in the frame
of the observer. We use the rest length because the instruction manual
for the ruler says it has to be used that way, or the length warranty
is void.


Hey idiot rest length is physical length. Furthermore there is no such
thing as rest length. There is the physical length of a rest at rest wrt
you.


Oooh, I like that definition: "...the physical length of a rest at rest
wrt you."


Sorry a typo it should be "There is the physical length of a rod at rest wrt
you."

That's the rest length. It doesn't have the same length when it's at
rest. That's why I'm loathe to call it a physical length, because a
physical length wouldn't matter if it were at rest or moving, but this
length certainly does.




There is no such thing as the "physical length" of a ruler. I have no
idea where you got the notion there was.

Are you doing physics by assertion??


No, I'm trying to explain to you what we know about nature. I'm not
going to win you over by argument. Physical theories don't win by
"argument". They win by agreeing with, and accurately predicting,
experiment.


You don't know anything about nature. All you ever do is making

assertions.



Well, Ken, there will always be experiment to determine who's right,
won't there?


Sure there are such experiments but you SRians asserted that they are not
worthwhile to do. For example:
1. Direct measurement of the one way speed of light.
2. Do the MMX with the plane of the light rays oriented in the vertical
direction.
3. Do the experiments in the following link:
http://www.geocities.com/kn_seto/2005Experiment,pdf

(1) is equivalent to existing experiments on isotropy of lightspeed and
TWLS measurement.
(2) has already been done, with the understanding that an ether would
not always flow vertically with respect to the Earth, since that would
imply either a net flow into the surface of the Earth or a net flow out
of the surface of the Earth, both of which are rejected as unphysical.
In the case of (3), the experimental precision required has not been
specified, nor have the sources of experimental error been estimated,
to the point where the experiment is well-defined enough to determine
whether it would be sensitive enough to the signal desired. As a
result, the proposal to fund such an experiment has been rejected
(repeatedly, I understand).


Hopefully, you'll learn enough about designing
experiments, experimental precision, and choosing parts that you'll be
able to write a grant proposal that isn't round-filed the moment it's
received.


There is no chance that I can get a grant to do my experiments. You SRians
will simply reject my proposal without comment. This is one sure way to
preserve status quote.

I personally have not been asked to review your proposal by the funding
agency you applied to. So you can remove me from your list of "you
SRians".
PD
.
User: "kenseto"

Title: Re: Is length contraction of a rod real or perpective??? 19 Feb 2006 10:17:56 AM
"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140302192.652429.222280@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com...


kenseto wrote:

"PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1140220484.697720.207290@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...



But I made no such stipulation, and there's a reason for that. *If*

the

train clocks say they are simultaneous, then the track clocks will say
they are not. *If* the track clocks say they are simultaneous, then

the

train clocks will say they are not.


What you said here is based on your naive assertion. You have no

arguement

against what I said about Einstein's gedanken. You invented this new
gedanken and then made the above assertions without support.


I chose another "gedanken" because I understand what SR says and so
chose it to be more apparent to you, because you are apparently
flummoxed by Einstein's particular choices to illustrate. The
principles of SR extend beyond that particular configuration, you know.

No you don't understand what SR says. In Einstein's gedanken he concluded
that RoS is valid form the track point of view. However this conclusion is
bogus because each observer must determine simultaneity from his own point
of view. This means that each observer must conclude that the flashes are
simultaneous due to the speed of light is isotropic in his frame.
Similarly with your stupid gedanken, each set of clocks must determine
whether the flashes are simultaneous. If the flashes are stipulated to occur
simultaneous at the clocks' locations in the train frame and the track frame
then each set of clocks will report that the flashes are simultaneous.



Now, how am I going to take that
information and determine whether the strikes are "really"

simultaneous

or not? On what basis would I make any such stipulation?


What information??? You asserted without support that if the train

clocks

say the the strikes are simultaneous then the track clocks will say that

the

strikes are not simultaneous.


Yup. And experiment bears that out, and I can certainly explain why
that is perfectly consistent with the laws of physics.

You have no understanding of the laws of physics. Specfically you have no
understanding that the speed of light is isotropic in all frames and that
this isotropy is not affected by the observed relative velocity between the
train frame and the track frame.



That is demonstrably and experimentally *not* the case, and the fact
that they do not is *entirely* consistent with the laws of physics.
There is *no physical way* to define a clock synchronization procedure
in such a way that if the train clocks are both synchronized to each
other using this procedure, and the track clocks are both synchronized
to each other using this procedure, then all four clocks will be
synchronized. There is simply no way to do it that is consistent with
the laws of physics. That is the experimental fact.


Sigh....the two clocks in the train are synchronized independently by

slow

clock transport in the opposite directions. The two clocks on the track

are

synchronized independtly by slow clock transport in the opposite

directions.

Why do you have to synchronize all four clocks? In fact there is no

valid

way to synchronize the four clcoks.


Indeed that is true, evidenced by the fact that the *same* two
lightning strikes will never show up as being simultaneous on all four
clocks.

This shows me that you don't understand the laws of physics. The same two
lightning strikes will show up as being simultaneous on the two clocks in
the train and simultaneous on the two clocks on the track. Why? Because you
stipulated that the strikes were simultaneous


Furthermore you stupid gedanken have the
following problem:
1. How far apart do you set the track clocks? What about length

contraction

of the train?


Don't be an idiot. I said there were two clocks at the ends of the
train and they were synchronized. I didn't say those were the only two
track clocks present, or that those were the only two that were
synchronized. If I have a whole track-full of clocks, I'm guaranteed
that there will be a clock immediately adjacent to the lightning
strikes.

You are the idiot.
1. The train clocks were synchronized and the strikes were stupulated to be
simutlaneous and thus they will report the same clock readings when the
strikes occur.
2. All the track clocks were synchronized and the strikes were stipulated to
be simultaneous and thus they will report the same clock readings when the
strikes occur.


2. The strikes have to occur simultaneously when the train clocks are
exactly coincide with the track clocks.


Not so. One set of clocks say they happened at the same time, and the
other set says that one lightning strike hit the front of the train
first and one hit the back of the train second. Why is this so hard for
you?

You are an idiot. Relative velocity have no effect on simutlaneity. If you
stipulated that the strkes occur simutlanteously then the clocks will report
the same readings when the strikes occur.


Einstein's gedanken is much better. There is one clock in the middle of

the

train and one clock on the track. The strikes occur simutaneously when

the

train observer is coincide with the track observer. There is no
synchronization of clocks involved.


Right, but then you have to worry about L/c time delays, which is
tripping you up.

I don't have to worry about anything and nothing is tripping me up.. The
speed of light is isotropic in the train and in the track.

In my scheme there is no light propagation delay
whatsoever. Simply synchronize clocks according to a procedure that you
and I will agree will work, and check that synchronization just before
and just after the strike, just to be sure they're still synchronized
according to the common, agreed-upon procedure.

But you don't have a good understandiing of SR.




Hey idiot rest length is physical length. Furthermore there is no

such

thing as rest length. There is the physical length of a rest at rest

wrt

you.


Oooh, I like that definition: "...the physical length of a rest at

rest

wrt you."


Sorry a typo it should be "There is the physical length of a rod at rest

wrt

you."


That's the rest length.

All objects in the universe are moving so rest length is misleading. It is
much better to say that the physical length of a rod. BTW your assumption of
rest frame of the rod is what cause SR to be incomplete.

It doesn't have the same length when it's at
rest. That's why I'm loathe to call it a physical length, because a
physical length wouldn't matter if it were at rest or moving, but this
length certainly does.

That's because you misinterpreted what SR says. In SR physical length of a
rod is unchanged however the perspective length of a rod is different.




You don't know anything about nature. All you ever do is making

assertions.



Well, Ken, there will always be experiment to determine who's right,
won't there?


Sure there are such experiments but you SRians asserted that they are

not

worthwhile to do. For example:
1. Direct measurement of the one way speed of light.
2. Do the MMX with the plane of the light rays oriented in the vertical
direction.
3. Do the experiments in the following link:
http://www.geocities.com/kn_seto/2005Experiment,pdf


(1) is equivalent to existing experiments on isotropy of lightspeed and
TWLS measurement.

That's not good enough. Your refusal to do a direct OWLS and yet you do
isotropy of OWLS experiments is direct proof that direct measurement of OWLS
will not yield the value of c. BTW, why don't they report the OWLS values
for those OWLS isotropy experiments?

(2) has already been done, with the understanding that an ether would
not always flow vertically with respect to the Earth, since that would
imply either a net flow into the surface of the Earth or a net flow out
of the surface of the Earth, both of which are rejected as unphysical.
In the case of (3), the experimental precision required has not been
specified, nor have the sources of experimental error been estimated,
to the point where the experiment is well-defined enough to determine
whether it would be sensitive enough to the signal desired. As a
result, the proposal to fund such an experiment has been rejected
(repeatedly, I understand).

No it has not been done. Your poor understanding of the modern ether is
causing you to reach the above bogus conclusion. Modern ether is structured,
stationary and elastic. It is not moving. Objects are moving within it.
Ken Seto
.
User: "PD"

Title: