Science > Physics > JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of :
| Topic: |
Science > Physics |
| User: |
"Panties On Head" |
| Date: |
12 Sep 2006 10:01:45 PM |
| Object: |
JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
Looking for an example of randomness where time is not involved somehow. To
clarify, the "outcome of an event" must have a before and an after, hence
time is involved in random outcomes of events.
Is there an example of randomness where time is not somehow involved ?
Seems like arbitariness and randomness could be interpreted as being
associated with dimensions of length and time, respectively. In situations
such a Harris H1 space, disorder is expressed as arbitrariness. But when
disorder is expressed temporally, we call it randomness. Just a thought, but
it seems quite plausible.
Seems that the mathematical usage of randomness had incorporated time into
the very usage of the word right from the start. And that this subtelty,
which is fundamentally a question of dimensionality (time), has only served
to complicate our understanding of order & disorder.
Thank you -
Dr. Victor I. Plankenstein
=TIMETRAVELLER=
and Cubiq
Coming soon to a newsgroup near you:
Absolute arbitrariness is trivial ?!?!? Space must be warped !??!? WOW !!!
The Harris Conjectures, exposed in full detail to the world after decades of
secrecy !!!!
http://sciphysicsopenmanuscript.blogspot.com/
http://sciphysicsopenmanuscript.blogspot.com/
http://sciphysicsopenmanuscript.blogspot.com/
http://sciphysicsopenmanuscript.blogspot.com/
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| User: "Bob Cain" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example |
13 Sep 2006 03:09:50 AM |
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Panties On Head wrote:
Looking for an example of randomness where time is not involved somehow. To
clarify, the "outcome of an event" must have a before and an after, hence
time is involved in random outcomes of events.
Is there an example of randomness where time is not somehow involved ?
A set of random numbers.
Bob
--
"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no simpler."
A. Einstein
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| User: "Dr Moria" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
13 Sep 2006 01:41:31 PM |
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"Bob Cain" <arcane@arcanemethods.com> wrote in message
news:pJqdnWjXS7JsIZrYnZ2dnUVZ_s2dnZ2d@giganews.com...
Panties On Head wrote:
Looking for an example of randomness where time is not involved somehow.
To
clarify, the "outcome of an event" must have a before and an after, hence
time is involved in random outcomes of events.
Is there an example of randomness where time is not somehow involved ?
A set of random numbers.
a printed set of random numbers.
however, since printed they would not be random anymore.
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| User: "Panties On Head" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
13 Sep 2006 09:39:01 PM |
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"Dr Moria" <nospam@nospam.com> wrote in message
news:450850d8$0$97268$892e7fe2@authen.yellow.readfreenews.net...
"Bob Cain" <arcane@arcanemethods.com> wrote in message
news:pJqdnWjXS7JsIZrYnZ2dnUVZ_s2dnZ2d@giganews.com...
Panties On Head wrote:
Looking for an example of randomness where time is not involved
somehow.
To
clarify, the "outcome of an event" must have a before and an after,
hence
time is involved in random outcomes of events.
Is there an example of randomness where time is not somehow involved ?
A set of random numbers.
a printed set of random numbers.
however, since printed they would not be random anymore.
Good example -
Well, a set of random nubers is assumed to be "generated" at random, or
could also be any set of numbers which passes the standard tests for
randomness. Of course there's a paradox in this example as to whether such a
set is really random or not.
But I really think that something seems to have overlooked is that the
historic usage of the concept did not explicitly recognize that the time
dimension was being incorporated into the usage of the word, and randomness
as we now use it is a subtle conglomerate of concepts. This is very
confounding. It's a mishmash of time and disorder (typically). Dice, cards,
raindrops, number generators,...... all of these things need a time
dimension.
But if you consider a shotgun blast pattern on a piece of paper, it is
difficult to really adapt the concept of randomness to such a distribution
of points on paper. This is because the word "random" conglomerates time and
disorder, not length and disorder. The shotgun blast pattern can still be
understood via perfectly valid statistical methods, but the ambiguity of the
word random is still present and unresolved.
The word random is horribly ambiguous. Specifying disorder & dimension
somehow would be much more precise.
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| User: "Proginoskes" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
14 Sep 2006 01:04:45 AM |
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Panties On Head wrote:
[...]
The word random is horribly ambiguous. [...]
Not really. The computer science definition is: A(n infinite) sequence
is random if no algorithm can generate the sequence. Since there are
only countably many algorithms, that means that over 99% of the
sequences are random. (You can replace 99 with any integer < 100.)
--- Christopher Heckman
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| User: "Panties On Head" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
14 Sep 2006 07:51:57 PM |
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"Proginoskes" <CCHeckman@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1158213885.427251.123330@h48g2000cwc.googlegroups.com...
Panties On Head wrote:
[...]
The word random is horribly ambiguous. [...]
Not really. The computer science definition is: A(n infinite) sequence
is random if no algorithm can generate the sequence. Since there are
only countably many algorithms, that means that over 99% of the
sequences are random. (You can replace 99 with any integer < 100.)
--- Christopher Heckman
Indeed, and paradoxically this definition also determines such programs
and/or sequences, ie they are therefore determined. As does any definition
I've seen. Not saying that the definition is'nt useful.....only that it's
always back to the same old quandry.
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| User: "jaapsch" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
14 Sep 2006 07:35:26 AM |
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Proginoskes wrote:
Panties On Head wrote:
[...]
The word random is horribly ambiguous. [...]
Not really. The computer science definition is: A(n infinite) sequence
is random if no algorithm can generate the sequence. Since there are
only countably many algorithms, that means that over 99% of the
sequences are random. (You can replace 99 with any integer < 100.)
--- Christopher Heckman
I don't like that definition at all.
Suppose a_n is such a random sequence. Define another sequence by b_2n
= a_n, and b_(2n+1) = 0.
There is still no algorithm that can generate all of sequence b, but I
would not call sequence b random, since there is a very simple way to
generate half its numbers.
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| User: "Jim Ferry" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
14 Sep 2006 02:50:13 PM |
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jaapsch wrote:
Proginoskes wrote:
Panties On Head wrote:
[...]
The word random is horribly ambiguous. [...]
Not really. The computer science definition is: A(n infinite) sequence
is random if no algorithm can generate the sequence. Since there are
only countably many algorithms, that means that over 99% of the
sequences are random. (You can replace 99 with any integer < 100.)
--- Christopher Heckman
I don't like that definition at all.
Suppose a_n is such a random sequence. Define another sequence by b_2n
= a_n, and b_(2n+1) = 0.
There is still no algorithm that can generate all of sequence b, but I
would not call sequence b random, since there is a very simple way to
generate half its numbers.
Good definitions of what it means to be a random sequence are given in
http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/math/pdf/0110/0110086.pdf
Essentially, a sequence is random if it cannot be compressed, so the
addition of the extraneous zeros makes the sequence non-random.
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| User: "Sue" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
18 Sep 2006 01:07:58 AM |
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"Jim Ferry" <corklebath@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:1158263413.708768.123050@p79g2000cwp.googlegroups.com...
jaapsch wrote:
Proginoskes wrote:
Panties On Head wrote:
[...]
The word random is horribly ambiguous. [...]
Not really. The computer science definition is: A(n infinite) sequence
is random if no algorithm can generate the sequence. Since there are
only countably many algorithms, that means that over 99% of the
sequences are random. (You can replace 99 with any integer < 100.)
--- Christopher Heckman
I don't like that definition at all.
Suppose a_n is such a random sequence. Define another sequence by b_2n
= a_n, and b_(2n+1) = 0.
There is still no algorithm that can generate all of sequence b, but I
would not call sequence b random, since there is a very simple way to
generate half its numbers.
Good definitions of what it means to be a random sequence are given in
http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/math/pdf/0110/0110086.pdf
Essentially, a sequence is random if it cannot be compressed, so the
addition of the extraneous zeros makes the sequence non-random.
that is BS,
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| User: "Sorcerer" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
18 Sep 2006 01:39:36 AM |
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"Sue" <nospam@nospam.com> wrote in message
news:450e3790$0$97247$892e7fe2@authen.yellow.readfreenews.net...
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| "Jim Ferry" <corklebath@hotmail.com> wrote in message
| news:1158263413.708768.123050@p79g2000cwp.googlegroups.com...
| > jaapsch wrote:
| >> Proginoskes wrote:
| >> > Panties On Head wrote:
| >> > > [...]
| >> > > The word random is horribly ambiguous. [...]
| >> >
| >> > Not really. The computer science definition is: A(n infinite)
sequence
| >> > is random if no algorithm can generate the sequence. Since there are
| >> > only countably many algorithms, that means that over 99% of the
| >> > sequences are random. (You can replace 99 with any integer < 100.)
| >> > --- Christopher Heckman
| >>
| >> I don't like that definition at all.
| >> Suppose a_n is such a random sequence. Define another sequence by b_2n
| >> = a_n, and b_(2n+1) = 0.
| >> There is still no algorithm that can generate all of sequence b, but I
| >> would not call sequence b random, since there is a very simple way to
| >> generate half its numbers.
| >
| > Good definitions of what it means to be a random sequence are given in
| > http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/math/pdf/0110/0110086.pdf
| >
| > Essentially, a sequence is random if it cannot be compressed, so the
| > addition of the extraneous zeros makes the sequence non-random.
| >
|
| that is BS,
|
***** Sue is very big.
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| User: "William Hughes" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
18 Sep 2006 07:07:23 AM |
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Sue wrote:
"Jim Ferry" <corklebath@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:1158263413.708768.123050@p79g2000cwp.googlegroups.com...
jaapsch wrote:
Proginoskes wrote:
Panties On Head wrote:
[...]
The word random is horribly ambiguous. [...]
Not really. The computer science definition is: A(n infinite) sequence
is random if no algorithm can generate the sequence. Since there are
only countably many algorithms, that means that over 99% of the
sequences are random. (You can replace 99 with any integer < 100.)
--- Christopher Heckman
I don't like that definition at all.
Suppose a_n is such a random sequence. Define another sequence by b_2n
= a_n, and b_(2n+1) = 0.
There is still no algorithm that can generate all of sequence b, but I
would not call sequence b random, since there is a very simple way to
generate half its numbers.
Good definitions of what it means to be a random sequence are given in
http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/math/pdf/0110/0110086.pdf
Essentially, a sequence is random if it cannot be compressed, so the
addition of the extraneous zeros makes the sequence non-random.
that is BS,
Actually it is quite accurate. To be more exact. Let A be a random
(noncompressible) sequence. Let B be a sequence of zero's, the same
length as A. Let C be the sequence formed by interleaving A and B.
Then C is cleary compressible (by about 50%) and is non-random
(even though there is no way of "predicting" every second element of
C).
- William Hughes
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| User: "David Bernier" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
30 Sep 2006 10:54:34 PM |
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William Hughes wrote:
Sue wrote:
"Jim Ferry" <corklebath@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:1158263413.708768.123050@p79g2000cwp.googlegroups.com...
jaapsch wrote:
Proginoskes wrote:
Panties On Head wrote:
[...]
The word random is horribly ambiguous. [...]
Not really. The computer science definition is: A(n infinite) sequence
is random if no algorithm can generate the sequence. Since there are
only countably many algorithms, that means that over 99% of the
sequences are random. (You can replace 99 with any integer < 100.)
--- Christopher Heckman
I don't like that definition at all.
Suppose a_n is such a random sequence. Define another sequence by b_2n
= a_n, and b_(2+1) = 0.
There is still no algorithm that can generate all of sequence b, but I
would not call sequence b random, since there is a very simple way to
generate half its numbers.
Good definitions of what it means to be a random sequence are given in
http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/math/pdf/0110/0110086.pdf
Essentially, a sequence is random if it cannot be compressed, so the
addition of the extraneous zeros makes the sequence non-random.
[...]
Actually it is quite accurate. To be more exact. Let A be a random
(noncompressible) sequence. Let B be a sequence of zero's, the same
length as A. Let C be the sequence formed by interleaving A and B.
Then C is cleary compressible (by about 50%) and is non-random
(even though there is no way of "predicting" every second element of
C).
There are several ways used to define computable functions on
N or N^k. I think it's fair to say that definitions that use
Turing machines are popular for their intuitive appeal.
Rado introduced the "Busy Beaver" contest, where all
Turing machines with the same number of states are entrants
and the winner(s) of the n-state contest are those that
halt starting with a blank tape, while leaving a maximal
number of '1' symbols on the tape once they have halted.
The kind of Turing machines considered by Rado have
two tape symbols (blank and dash, or 0 and 1). Also,
after reading a tape symbol, a TM first writes something
to the tape, then moves one square to the right or to
the left, and ends up in a state given in its program.
This leads to transition tables made of 5-tuples, where
each 5-tuple has two inputs and three outputs (symbol
written, direction read head is moved and next state).
Let's say we call "Rado set of order n" the set of
all the possible number of '1' symbols left on the
tape of a halting n-state TM, once it has halted.
Then, the maximal element in the "Rado set of order n"
is by definition Sigma(n), Sigma being the usual
Busy Beaver function. The Rado set of order n
is finite, so its complement in N is infinite.
The question I thought of is this: n being fixed,
what is the smallest natural number in the
complement of the Rado set of order n?
In other words, given n, what is the least k>=0 such
that no TM with n states that halts will leave k '1'
symbols on the tape once it has halted?
So for n=100 for example, the corresponding k would
be a small "incompressible" number.
For n=1, the Rado set consists of 0 and 1. So the least
number in the complement is 2. For n=2, the Rado set contains
0, 1, 2 and 4, and maybe 3 (I don't know about 3 ... ) .
So the smallest element in the complement of the Rado set of
order 2 is either 3 or 5.
Ref.: Allen Brady, ``The Busy Beaver Game and the Meaning
of Life", in ``The Universal Turing Machine A Half-Century
Survey", Rolf Herken, Editor.
David Bernier
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| User: "Proginoskes" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
01 Oct 2006 02:30:28 AM |
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David Bernier wrote:
William Hughes wrote:
Sue wrote:
"Jim Ferry" <corklebath@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:1158263413.708768.123050@p79g2000cwp.googlegroups.com...
jaapsch wrote:
Proginoskes wrote:
Panties On Head wrote:
[...]
The word random is horribly ambiguous. [...]
Not really. The computer science definition is: A(n infinite) sequence
is random if no algorithm can generate the sequence. Since there are
only countably many algorithms, that means that over 99% of the
sequences are random. (You can replace 99 with any integer < 100.)
I don't like that definition at all.
Suppose a_n is such a random sequence. Define another sequence by b_2n
= a_n, and b_(2+1) = 0.
There is still no algorithm that can generate all of sequence b, but I
would not call sequence b random, since there is a very simple way to
generate half its numbers.
Good definitions of what it means to be a random sequence are given in
http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/math/pdf/0110/0110086.pdf
Essentially, a sequence is random if it cannot be compressed, so the
addition of the extraneous zeros makes the sequence non-random.
[...]
Actually it is quite accurate. To be more exact. Let A be a random
(noncompressible) sequence. Let B be a sequence of zero's, the same
length as A. Let C be the sequence formed by interleaving A and B.
Then C is cleary compressible (by about 50%) and is non-random
(even though there is no way of "predicting" every second element of
C).
There are several ways used to define computable functions on
N or N^k. I think it's fair to say that definitions that use
Turing machines are popular for their intuitive appeal.
Rado introduced the "Busy Beaver" contest, where all
Turing machines with the same number of states are entrants
and the winner(s) of the n-state contest are those that
halt starting with a blank tape, while leaving a maximal
number of '1' symbols on the tape once they have halted.
The kind of Turing machines considered by Rado have
two tape symbols (blank and dash, or 0 and 1). Also,
after reading a tape symbol, a TM first writes something
to the tape, then moves one square to the right or to
the left, and ends up in a state given in its program.
This leads to transition tables made of 5-tuples, where
each 5-tuple has two inputs and three outputs (symbol
written, direction read head is moved and next state).
Let's say we call "Rado set of order n" the set of
all the possible number of '1' symbols left on the
tape of a halting n-state TM, once it has halted.
Then, the maximal element in the "Rado set of order n"
is by definition Sigma(n), Sigma being the usual
Busy Beaver function. The Rado set of order n
is finite, so its complement in N is infinite.
The question I thought of is this: n being fixed,
what is the smallest natural number in the
complement of the Rado set of order n?
In other words, given n, what is the least k>=0 such
that no TM with n states that halts will leave k '1'
symbols on the tape once it has halted?
The problem is that this particular function has been proven to be
uncomputable. See, for instance, _Computablility and Logic_, George
Boolos, Richard Jeffrey, pp. 34-39.
--- Christopher Heckman
So for n=100 for example, the corresponding k would
be a small "incompressible" number.
For n=1, the Rado set consists of 0 and 1. So the least
number in the complement is 2. For n=2, the Rado set contains
0, 1, 2 and 4, and maybe 3 (I don't know about 3 ... ) .
So the smallest element in the complement of the Rado set of
order 2 is either 3 or 5.
Ref.: Allen Brady, ``The Busy Beaver Game and the Meaning
of Life", in ``The Universal Turing Machine A Half-Century
Survey", Rolf Herken, Editor.
David Bernier
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| User: "Aluminium Holocene Holodeck Zoroaster" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
14 Sep 2006 09:16:04 PM |
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in what base of arithmetic are these "extrauranus" zeroes, and
what about the extraplutonic ones?
Essentially, a sequence is random if it cannot be compressed, so the
addition of the extraneous zeros makes the sequence non-random.
thus:
this is all of the "point;"
"spacetime" is in no wise a "4D space," but
simply a 3+1 "space" a la quaternions,
cannonically used for special relativity by Lanczos e.g.,
or a "phase-space" adumbrated with "lightcones,"
thanks to a gaff by Minkowski, who died to soon
to rectify (so to say) the situation ... or,
was they're foulplay involved?
thus:
ah, I recalled the word for that:
harpadaenaptum, spelling up for grabs;
a three-string harp?
the tensioned line of the [Latin word for the Egyptian guy
who makes teh right trigon with an integer-length line,
to survey the Nile-washed boundaries every year;
hypaedenaptum?] is actually three catenaries.
thus:
yeah, prove that geometrically using calculus or
just algebra, or site some other proof of it....
I am always leary of things that regurgitate lyrics
from the Department of Einsteinmania, The Musical.
Prove what? That the mass of uniform disks of gravitationally
attractive matter vary as the square of radius?
thus:
to be featured in the next movie,
"Harry Potter's New Crusades and
the 'Public' Charter Schools: Faith-based Initiatives
in the New Millennium CCE: Come the Rapture,
No Child Left Behind!:"
http://larouchepub.com/other/2006/3333uk_scoop_soc.html
--it takes some to jitterbug!
http://members.tripod.com/~american_almanac
http://www.21stcenturysciencetech.com/2006_articles/Amplitude.W05.pdf
http://www.rwgrayprojects.com/synergetics/plates/figs/plate01.html
http://larouchepub.com/other/2006/3322_ethanol_no_science.html
http://www.wlym.com/pdf/iclc/howthenation.pdf
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| User: "Eric Gisse" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
14 Sep 2006 02:01:51 AM |
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Proginoskes wrote:
Panties On Head wrote:
[...]
The word random is horribly ambiguous. [...]
Not really. The computer science definition is: A(n infinite) sequence
is random if no algorithm can generate the sequence. Since there are
only countably many algorithms, that means that over 99% of the
sequences are random. (You can replace 99 with any integer < 100.)
Why is the number of algorithms countable as opposed to uncountable?
Yes, I know the difference between 'countable' and 'uncountable'.
--- Christopher Heckman
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| User: "Tim Peters" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
14 Sep 2006 03:18:42 AM |
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....
[Proginoskes]
...
The computer science definition is: A(n infinite) sequence is random
if no algorithm can generate the sequence. Since there are
only countably many algorithms, that means that over 99% of the
sequences are random. (You can replace 99 with any integer < 100.)
[Eric Gisse]
Why is the number of algorithms countable as opposed to uncountable?
Yes, I know the difference between 'countable' and 'uncountable'.
It's for the same reason that the set of all possible books in any given
human language is countable: the set of all finite strings composed of
symbols from a finite alphabet is countable. An algorithm has to be
/specified/ somehow, right? Whether you pick English or a formalism like
Turing machines, all possible finite strings from the alphabet you pick are
countable. If you allow algorithm specifications of infinite length, you
can worm around that -- but then few would agree that you're still talking
about what /they/ mean by "algorithms".
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| User: "David Bernier" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
14 Sep 2006 05:55:35 AM |
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Tim Peters wrote:
...
[Proginoskes]
...
The computer science definition is: A(n infinite) sequence is random
if no algorithm can generate the sequence. Since there are
only countably many algorithms, that means that over 99% of the
sequences are random. (You can replace 99 with any integer < 100.)
[Eric Gisse]
Why is the number of algorithms countable as opposed to uncountable?
Yes, I know the difference between 'countable' and 'uncountable'.
It's for the same reason that the set of all possible books in any given
human language is countable: the set of all finite strings composed of
symbols from a finite alphabet is countable. An algorithm has to be
/specified/ somehow, right? Whether you pick English or a formalism like
Turing machines, all possible finite strings from the alphabet you pick are
countable. If you allow algorithm specifications of infinite length, you
can worm around that -- but then few would agree that you're still talking
about what /they/ mean by "algorithms".
[ about formalizations of the algorithm concept ... ]
If I remember correctly, the first formalizations of the
concept of "effect procedure" were arrived at in the 1930's.
One was Turing's idea of TM's . Another was the lambda-calculus.
Yet another was defining the recursive functions from N^k -> N
inductively, starting with functions admitted at the start, and
using a few rules operating on recursive functions that, by
definition, give possibly new recursives.
According to Wikipedia, it was Stephen Kleene who first
formulated the "Church–Turing thesis" :
``Every effectively computable function can be
computed by a Turing machine."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Church-Turing_thesis
David Bernier
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| User: "David Bernier" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example |
14 Sep 2006 02:56:39 PM |
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Dr Moria wrote:
"Bob Cain" <arcane@arcanemethods.com> wrote in message
news:pJqdnWjXS7JsIZrYnZ2dnUVZ_s2dnZ2d@giganews.com...
Panties On Head wrote:
Looking for an example of randomness where time is not involved somehow.
To
clarify, the "outcome of an event" must have a before and an after, hence
time is involved in random outcomes of events.
Is there an example of randomness where time is not somehow involved ?
A set of random numbers.
a printed set of random numbers.
however, since printed they would not be random anymore.
I understand your point. So a compressed archive of social security
numbers, names and birth dates for 100,000,000 people
would not be random at all, to the Social Security Administration at
least.
But to Martians, it might still look pretty random.
So given some data set Data, there should or could be a
concept of "random relative to Data", for finite strings
of bits or symbols from some alphabet.
So, if some "truly random numbers" from radio-active decay times
is stored, and we call the string S, then S is random.
If S is posted to USENET, then S is no longer random.
That is because someone could set Data=S, so
the randomness of S given Data =
the randomness of S given S =
0
In the same way, a PIN (personal identification number)
should be "random relative to DOB,address".
So if A's PIN is 7486 and is "good", then another person B
might well have been born in 1974 and live at 1686
Cedar Street. Then 7486 would be a bad choice for a PIN for B.
As long as a reasonable person would take on average ~5000 guesses
to guess A's PIN of 7486 given A's address and other
public or semi-public (DOB) information, then 7486 is a good choice
for A, but obviously not for B.
David Bernier
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| User: "Jesse F. Hughes" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example |
14 Sep 2006 06:31:57 PM |
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David Bernier <david250@videotron.ca> writes:
I understand your point. So a compressed archive of social security
numbers, names and birth dates for 100,000,000 people would not be
random at all, to the Social Security Administration at least.
But to Martians, it might still look pretty random.
So given some data set Data, there should or could be a concept of
"random relative to Data", for finite strings of bits or symbols
from some alphabet.
Try adapting Shannon's information theory. If we assume a probability
distribution on the set of messages, then the information of a given
message m is given by -log(p(m)) [1]. That is, the less likely a
message, the more informative.
Now we may disagree that this is a good definition of information, but
we should be able to derive a definition of random from it. A random
message would be something like a message that is improbably enough.
The social security database is presumably more likely than an
arbitrary, same-sized sequence of 0's and 1's --- at least given the
background knowledge of the SSA. Knowing that someone's address is
7486 makes it more likely that their pin is also 7486. And so on.
Hence, neither the database nor the pin 7486 is "random" given the
appropriate background knowledge.
Anyway, something like that.
Footnotes:
[1] Actually, Shannon's theory dealt with averages and not individual
messages. But Dretske's work focused on the information content in
individual messages roughly in the way I sketch here.
--
"I'm the guy. I have always been the guy. Your post will sit here for
a while, soon be ignored, except for people coming to read my reply,
and your satisfaction will fade as you move on, and I'll still be the
guy." -- James S. Harris will *always* be the guy. Duh.
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| User: "Panties On Head" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
15 Sep 2006 09:06:46 PM |
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OK guys & gals, the site is up. All ideas are hereby placed in public
domain. JSH gloves are OFF. Panties are fixed snugly to the top of the head.
10.....9.....8......7......6.......5..............
http://order-disorder-randomness.blogspot.com/
http://order-disorder-randomness.blogspot.com/
http://order-disorder-randomness.blogspot.com/
http://order-disorder-randomness.blogspot.com/
http://order-disorder-randomness.blogspot.com/
To boldly go where no crank has gone before !!!
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| User: "Panties On Head" |
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| Title: Re: JSH Center for Advanced Research. Looking for an example of : |
13 Sep 2006 12:29:40 AM |
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We now have a pseudo-definition of random number to toss out which Chaitin
would probably enjoy seeing.
Define a "maximally disordered state" MDS as a sequence a1a2a3a4.....a(n).
Then you can consider "minimal number of moves" to get from an arbitrary
sequence back to a1a2a3a4.....a(n).
But a1a2a3a4.....a(n) is arbitrary. Could be pi, e, whatever.
Alternatively -
Define a "maximally disordered state" MDS as a sequence with a given
compressibility C.
Then you can compare every other sequence against your MDS.
But C is arbitrary.
Chaitin sets his MDS as being equivalent to minimal compressibility. But I
think that this approach is ultimately deterministic in the sense that it
approaches choosing a given a1a2a3a4.....a(n) as being "the most" disordered
sequence. Personally, I think it would be interesting to just let C be
arbitrary as in the first example above.
Randomness is a very poorly defined property !! : |
"Panties On Head" <No@No.No> wrote in message
news:PqydnaMvhc3K5ZrYnZ2dnUVZ_qydnZ2d@comcast.com...
Looking for an example of randomness where time is not involved somehow.
To
clarify, the "outcome of an event" must have a before and an after, hence
time is involved in random outcomes of events.
Is there an example of randomness where time is not somehow involved ?
Seems like arbitariness and randomness could be interpreted as being
associated with dimensions of length and time, respectively. In situations
such a Harris H1 space, disorder is expressed as arbitrariness. But when
disorder is expressed temporally, we call it randomness. Just a thought,
but
it seems quite plausible.
Seems that the mathematical usage of randomness had incorporated time into
the very usage of the word right from the start. And that this subtelty,
which is fundamentally a question of dimensionality (time), has only
served
to complicate our understanding of order & disorder.
Thank you -
Dr. Victor I. Plankenstein
=TIMETRAVELLER=
and Cubiq
Coming soon to a newsgroup near you:
Absolute arbitrariness is trivial ?!?!? Space must be warped !??!? WOW !!!
The Harris Conjectures, exposed in full detail to the world after decades
of
secrecy !!!!
http://sciphysicsopenmanuscript.blogspot.com/
http://sciphysicsopenmanuscript.blogspot.com/
http://sciphysicsopenmanuscript.blogspot.com/
http://sciphysicsopenmanuscript.blogspot.com/
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