| Topic: |
Science > Physics |
| User: |
"Scismgenie" |
| Date: |
13 Aug 2005 10:33:34 AM |
| Object: |
Light as a particle in a wave? |
IF Light can display properies as both a particle and a waveform, would
that negate the threshold of Light as the ultimate speed limit of
mass?
Or does it imply that anything going AT the speed of light loses all
Mass characteristics?
Is the amout of energy EXPENDED to accelerate mass to the speed of
light considered to be infinite? (exponentially taking MORE energy to
push a smaller mass faster?) Is there an Energy barrier of diminishing
returns?
In other-words the Speed of Light is probably FASTER than the practical
ability to gain acceleration? (except on a molecular scale?)
If Light is a particle, and that particle is scillating (frequency)
and the frequency of oscillation is longer than a reference point, do
different frequency oscillations cause the particles to move at
different speeds in relation to the crossover point of teh oscillation?
If so does that indicate that Light particles of a longer wavelength
are traveling faster tham shorteones to cover the same distance of
linear travel in the same time reference, (actually covering more
distance because of wider oscillations?) Or it is represented that the
particle travels at a constant speed linearly, but oscilates
perpendicular to the direction of travel a greater vaariance from the
crossover reference? (wobble?)
If a light particle oscillates, what does it oscillate AROUND, would it
be like an Orbit with a complementary mass to oscillate around?
Excuse my simplistic non-educated questions.
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| User: "Scismgenie" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
13 Aug 2005 10:44:14 AM |
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Are Photons balanced by Anti-photons?
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| User: "Bjoern Feuerbacher" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 07:10:06 AM |
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Scismgenie wrote:
Are Photons balanced by Anti-photons?
Photons and anti-photons are identical.
Bye,
Bjoern
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| User: "Gregory L. Hansen" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 11:25:11 AM |
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In article <1123947213.953984.18550@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com>,
Scismgenie <Scismgenie@adelphia.net> wrote:
IF Light can display properies as both a particle and a waveform, would
that negate the threshold of Light as the ultimate speed limit of
mass?
Or does it imply that anything going AT the speed of light loses all
Mass characteristics?
If it has mass, it can't go the speed of light. That's not quite the same
as losing mass characteristics. Except that if you look at the
relativistic energy equation,
E^2 = m^2 c^4 + p^2 c^2
when pc >> mc^2, the mc^2 term can often be dropped. That can be done,
for instance, to simplify calculations of the way electrons will scatter
in accelerators.
Is the amout of energy EXPENDED to accelerate mass to the speed of
light considered to be infinite? (exponentially taking MORE energy to
push a smaller mass faster?) Is there an Energy barrier of diminishing
returns?
p=mv/sqrt(1-v^2/c^2), so inserting into the above,
E^2 = m^2 c^4 + m^2 v^2 c^2 / (1-v^2/c^2)
As v->c, E->inf, although not quite exponentially.
In other-words the Speed of Light is probably FASTER than the practical
ability to gain acceleration? (except on a molecular scale?)
If Light is a particle, and that particle is scillating (frequency)
and the frequency of oscillation is longer than a reference point, do
different frequency oscillations cause the particles to move at
different speeds in relation to the crossover point of teh oscillation?
If so does that indicate that Light particles of a longer wavelength
are traveling faster tham shorteones to cover the same distance of
linear travel in the same time reference, (actually covering more
distance because of wider oscillations?) Or it is represented that the
particle travels at a constant speed linearly, but oscilates
perpendicular to the direction of travel a greater vaariance from the
crossover reference? (wobble?)
If a light particle oscillates, what does it oscillate AROUND, would it
be like an Orbit with a complementary mass to oscillate around?
Light is not a little pulsating BB. The wave nature of light is not a
wiggly path that the light takes, but variations in field strength. Light
goes in a straight line.
--
"Experiments are the only means of knowledge at our disposal. The rest is
poetry, imagination." -- Max Planck
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| User: "Autymn D. C." |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
15 Aug 2005 03:00:32 PM |
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Gregory L. Hansen wrote:
If it has mass, it can't go the speed of light. That's not quite the same
as losing mass characteristics. Except that if you look at the
As v->c, E->inf, although not quite exponentially.
wrong (look for the asterisk, fifth screen):
http://egroups.com/message/free_energy/4069
-Aut
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| User: "Charles" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
13 Aug 2005 12:02:38 PM |
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On 13 Aug 2005 08:33:34 -0700, "Scismgenie" <Scismgenie@adelphia.net>
wrote:
IF Light can display properies as both a particle and a waveform, would
that negate the threshold of Light as the ultimate speed limit of
mass?
Or does it imply that anything going AT the speed of light loses all
Mass characteristics?
Is the amout of energy EXPENDED to accelerate mass to the speed of
light considered to be infinite? (exponentially taking MORE energy to
push a smaller mass faster?) Is there an Energy barrier of diminishing
returns?
In other-words the Speed of Light is probably FASTER than the practical
ability to gain acceleration? (except on a molecular scale?)
If Light is a particle, and that particle is scillating (frequency)
and the frequency of oscillation is longer than a reference point, do
different frequency oscillations cause the particles to move at
different speeds in relation to the crossover point of teh oscillation?
If so does that indicate that Light particles of a longer wavelength
are traveling faster tham shorteones to cover the same distance of
linear travel in the same time reference, (actually covering more
distance because of wider oscillations?) Or it is represented that the
particle travels at a constant speed linearly, but oscilates
perpendicular to the direction of travel a greater vaariance from the
crossover reference? (wobble?)
If a light particle oscillates, what does it oscillate AROUND, would it
be like an Orbit with a complementary mass to oscillate around?
Excuse my simplistic non-educated questions.
Response from a dumb guy (me)
The way I come to terms with the problem.
Light is not a particle nor is it a wave. Light is light. sometimes
when we look at it one way, it acts like a particle. sometimes when
we look at another way it looks like a wave. It is neither, it just
is light. Use whichever model works best for what you are doing,
don't try to force that model onto everything else.
Things with rest mass take infinite energy to accellerate to the speed
of light. Photons have no rest mass, so they can be accellerated to
the speed of light.
Light also can travel faster and slower than the average speed of
light (Feinman "QED" page 89)
That's a good book, if you haven't read it yet.
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| User: "Edward Green" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 01:59:41 PM |
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Scismgenie wrote:
<...>
For what it's worth, I'd say that light is a wave which displays some
particle-like characteristics, whereas for a "particle in a wave", that
is probably much closer to the mark for massive particles, like
electrons.
Just my non-standard two cents.
Excuse my simplistic non-educated questions.
People who know a good deal of physics will do that, but you'll have to
come, not even half, not one quarter... no, not even a thin dime!
You'll have to come at least a _nickel_ worth of the way, and show
you've done something to try to understand some equation somewhere.
Nothing earns nothing.
(Naturally if you put somewhat more in the pot you'll increase your
returns further.)
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| User: "Scismgenie" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 05:11:15 PM |
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(Naturally if you put somewhat more in the pot you'll increase your
returns further.)
Acvtually I am just starting to explore the thought processes and the
formulae are nt in knowledge base, so until I glom onto that a little
better, I will try to visualized what you are all saying.
As far as having to prove I have "done something" to try to undersand
some equation, I DON't think that is neede to have a layman's
understanding of basic concepts.
Learning may take many paths, and the limit of the concepts are
abstract if tehy can not be adequately described in plain language for
simple things.
Many of you have been very helpful and my understanding has increased,
Thanks!!
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| User: "Uncle Al" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
13 Aug 2005 10:51:13 AM |
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Scismgenie wrote:
IF Light can display properies as both a particle and a waveform, would
that negate the threshold of Light as the ultimate speed limit of
mass?
Photons have no rest mass.
[snip crap]
Annalen der Physik 4, XVII, pp. 891-921 (1905)
http://fourmilab.to/etexts/einstein/specrel/specrel.pdf
<http://www.geocities.com/physics_world/sr/ae_1905_error.htm>
<http://www.physics.gatech.edu/people/faculty/finkelstein/relativity.pdf>
Longitudinal and transverse mass
Physics Today 58(3) 34 (2005)
Time passage, equator vs. poles
--
Uncle Al
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/
(Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals)
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/qz.pdf
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| User: "tj Frazir" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
13 Aug 2005 10:53:18 PM |
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Light just changes directions rather tan change speeds.
It falls into orbit to remain the same speed.
Conducted rise and fall in energy.
A rise and fall in energy pushing up against the conductive rate of
energy its self.
Photons are wavicals are the sum of all thier qualities , but it is a
strike of mass energy exchange of directions and conducted aganst time
the rate enerrgyreacts.
Photon moves side to side as a rise in energy is pushing against time
as it conducts in space.
More energy cant go faster so it will move side to side more and afect
more space per time unit.
air and water and steel are not coherant conductors. space is.
Space is a coherant conductor of energy.
The energy of space is how much space dont expand per time unit as
matter in motion takes up more space per time unit in motion.
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| User: "Scismgenie" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
13 Aug 2005 11:09:54 AM |
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Since my science (formal) education os forty years ago, I am stuck with
teh concepts based on that base, s please excuse my asking "crap". But
declaring my questions crap leaves me no closer to understanding WHY
they are Crap.
(Thanks for the link to Einstien, but I am at this point unable to
understand his formulae references)
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| User: "Darkwing \Double Secret Disinformation Agent\ theducksmailATyahoo.com" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
13 Aug 2005 11:42:15 AM |
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"Scismgenie" <Scismgenie@adelphia.net> wrote in message
news:1123949394.495795.251870@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
Since my science (formal) education os forty years ago, I am stuck with
teh concepts based on that base, s please excuse my asking "crap". But
declaring my questions crap leaves me no closer to understanding WHY
they are Crap.
(Thanks for the link to Einstien, but I am at this point unable to
understand his formulae references)
You won't get much help at sci.physics, that's for sure.
----------------------------------------------
DW
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| User: "Androcles Androcles@ MyPlace.org" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
13 Aug 2005 01:05:33 PM |
|
|
"Scismgenie" <Scismgenie@adelphia.net> wrote in message
news:1123949394.495795.251870@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
| Since my science (formal) education os forty years ago, I am stuck
with
| teh concepts based on that base, s please excuse my asking "crap". But
| declaring my questions crap leaves me no closer to understanding WHY
| they are Crap.
|
| (Thanks for the link to Einstien, but I am at this point unable to
| understand his formulae references)
What would you like to know?
Looking at your earlier post, we can indeed refer to
http://fourmilab.to/etexts/einstein/specrel/specrel.pdf
or better,
http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
which is not a pdf file, where you will find
1) Galilean Relativity in the form of the reciprocal electrodynamic
action of
a conductor and a magnet,
2) the correct conclusion
"But the ray moves relatively to the initial point of k,
when measured in the stationary system, with the velocity c-v..."
and
3) we establish by definition that the "time" required by light to
travel
from A to B equals the "time" it requires to travel from B to A.
The third is where Einstein stamps his foot and says
"It is because I say it is!"
There is no magic to it, it is a hoax, plain and simple.
That is what you are missing from the questions you have, and
the moron "uncle" Alan Schwartz has not read or understood
what he so blindly believes, hence his bluster.
Androcles
.
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| User: "Igor" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
13 Aug 2005 02:38:13 PM |
|
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Androcles wrote:
"Scismgenie" <Scismgenie@adelphia.net> wrote in message
news:1123949394.495795.251870@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
| Since my science (formal) education os forty years ago, I am stuck
with
| teh concepts based on that base, s please excuse my asking "crap". But
| declaring my questions crap leaves me no closer to understanding WHY
| they are Crap.
|
| (Thanks for the link to Einstien, but I am at this point unable to
| understand his formulae references)
What would you like to know?
Looking at your earlier post, we can indeed refer to
http://fourmilab.to/etexts/einstein/specrel/specrel.pdf
or better,
http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
which is not a pdf file, where you will find
1) Galilean Relativity in the form of the reciprocal electrodynamic
action of
a conductor and a magnet,
2) the correct conclusion
"But the ray moves relatively to the initial point of k,
when measured in the stationary system, with the velocity c-v..."
and
3) we establish by definition that the "time" required by light to
travel
from A to B equals the "time" it requires to travel from B to A.
The third is where Einstein stamps his foot and says
"It is because I say it is!"
There is no magic to it, it is a hoax, plain and simple.
That is what you are missing from the questions you have, and
the moron "uncle" Alan Schwartz has not read or understood
what he so blindly believes, hence his bluster.
Androcles
So please explain how Maxwell's equations can remain invariant under
Galilean relativity?
.
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| User: "Androcles Androcles@ MyPlace.org" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
13 Aug 2005 04:17:00 PM |
|
|
"Igor" <thoovler@excite.com> wrote in message
news:1123961893.764317.323310@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
|
| Androcles wrote:
| > "Scismgenie" <Scismgenie@adelphia.net> wrote in message
| > news:1123949394.495795.251870@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
| > | Since my science (formal) education os forty years ago, I am stuck
| > with
| > | teh concepts based on that base, s please excuse my asking "crap".
But
| > | declaring my questions crap leaves me no closer to understanding
WHY
| > | they are Crap.
| > |
| > | (Thanks for the link to Einstien, but I am at this point unable to
| > | understand his formulae references)
| >
| > What would you like to know?
| >
| > Looking at your earlier post, we can indeed refer to
| > http://fourmilab.to/etexts/einstein/specrel/specrel.pdf
| > or better,
| > http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
| > which is not a pdf file, where you will find
| >
| > 1) Galilean Relativity in the form of the reciprocal electrodynamic
| > action of
| > a conductor and a magnet,
| > 2) the correct conclusion
| > "But the ray moves relatively to the initial point of k,
| > when measured in the stationary system, with the velocity c-v..."
| > and
| > 3) we establish by definition that the "time" required by light to
| > travel
| > from A to B equals the "time" it requires to travel from B to A.
| >
| > The third is where Einstein stamps his foot and says
| > "It is because I say it is!"
| >
| > There is no magic to it, it is a hoax, plain and simple.
| >
| > That is what you are missing from the questions you have, and
| > the moron "uncle" Alan Schwartz has not read or understood
| > what he so blindly believes, hence his bluster.
| >
| > Androcles
|
|
| So please explain how Maxwell's equations can remain invariant under
| Galilean relativity?
Which one? Maxwell's equations are not Maxwell's.
Faraday's equation and Gauss's equation complement each other,
Ampere's equation is different. They are called Maxwell's
equations because he clustered them. Two of Newton's three laws
rightfully belong to Galileo, so it's been done before.
Maxwell believed in aether, and if we take the permittivity and
permeability
of matter we get the speed of light in the matter, such as diamond,
water,
glass, air etc an equation:
c_substance = 1/sqrt (mu_substance * epsilon_substance)
What was done (I'm not sure by whom, Weber perhaps) was
to extrapolate a table
mu4, epsilon4 gives c4
mu3, epsilon3 gives c3
mu2, epsilon2 gives c2
mu1, epsilon1 gives c1 so the next obvious step was
mu0, epsilon0 gives c0, the speed of light in aether.
Then the aether vanished with MMX, but someone forgot that the
permeability (mu0) and permittivity (epsilon0) of free space should
go along with it, and they still linger in Maxwell's equations.
Gauss and Faraday's equations do not contain the terms and need no
modification.
What we actually have is
c0 = 1/sqrt(0*0) = undefined.
c is really the ejection velocity of a photon from an atom,
uncontrolled by the space around it, that space doesn't
control the speed of a bullet either.
But we still have and must have
c_air = 1/sqrt (mu_air * epsilon_air),
as seen by refraction.
It isn't so much that light is a particle in a wave as it is a wave in
a particle.
The particle is the quantity of energy an atom emits.
The solutions to Gauss and Faraday's equations are cos(theta)
and sin(theta), the energy is sqrt ( cos^2 + sin^2) and constant.
Two waves, not one, are emitted, playing leapfrog over each other.
One is the magnetic field and the other is the magnetic.
When a magnet field grows at a constant RATE, the electric field
is constant, but the magnetic field cannot grow forever, it has to
stop sometime. When it stops growing it is still there, but the
electric field isn't, that depends on the growth, not the amount.
No electric field for a bar magnet, it isn't changing,
*unless* you move a conductor through it.
Now the magnetic field collapses because that too only exists
when the electric field is changing, the E-field goes negative
and the B-field falls to zero. And so the cycle repeats,
(+)(N)(-)(S)(+)
and we have a wavicle.
With radio, TV, microwave ovens and cell phones we get to choose
the frequency we want.
Nature chooses what our eyes can see for us.
Rattlesnakes can see in the infrared to hunt smal mammals,
bees can see in the ultraviolet to be guided by flowers to the nectar.
We can with instruments see in the long wave of radio snd the short
wave of x-rays, we have artificial eyes.
http://www.star.ucl.ac.uk/~apod/apod/ap001006.html.
You'll see Sirius in the winter sky.
W can prove Einstein was wrong quite easily, just by having
a race between a photon and a cosmic muon. The muon wins.
http://web.mit.edu/rsi/www/pdfs/papers/98/mthrashe.pdf
"With a lifetime of 2176 ns, the muon would be required to travel faster
than light to reach the Earth's surface in any detectable quantities."
"Because the muon is traveling at .9661c - .9778c, the distance from the
earth to the muon is Lorentz contracted by a factor of 15 from 9
kilometers in the Earth's frame to 600 meters in the muon's frame"
This is abject nonsense that we always get from relativists. We see the
muon travel 9 kilometers in 2176 ns, that's its speed and that's all
there is
to it. We don't hear about the length contraction and time dilation of
a
photon, so the playing field isn't level.
Androcles.
.
|
|
|
| User: "Igor" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 01:33:58 AM |
|
|
Androcles wrote:
"Igor" <thoovler@excite.com> wrote in message
news:1123961893.764317.323310@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
|
| Androcles wrote:
| > "Scismgenie" <Scismgenie@adelphia.net> wrote in message
| > news:1123949394.495795.251870@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
| > | Since my science (formal) education os forty years ago, I am stuck
| > with
| > | teh concepts based on that base, s please excuse my asking "crap".
But
| > | declaring my questions crap leaves me no closer to understanding
WHY
| > | they are Crap.
| > |
| > | (Thanks for the link to Einstien, but I am at this point unable to
| > | understand his formulae references)
| >
| > What would you like to know?
| >
| > Looking at your earlier post, we can indeed refer to
| > http://fourmilab.to/etexts/einstein/specrel/specrel.pdf
| > or better,
| > http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
| > which is not a pdf file, where you will find
| >
| > 1) Galilean Relativity in the form of the reciprocal electrodynamic
| > action of
| > a conductor and a magnet,
| > 2) the correct conclusion
| > "But the ray moves relatively to the initial point of k,
| > when measured in the stationary system, with the velocity c-v..."
| > and
| > 3) we establish by definition that the "time" required by light to
| > travel
| > from A to B equals the "time" it requires to travel from B to A.
| >
| > The third is where Einstein stamps his foot and says
| > "It is because I say it is!"
| >
| > There is no magic to it, it is a hoax, plain and simple.
| >
| > That is what you are missing from the questions you have, and
| > the moron "uncle" Alan Schwartz has not read or understood
| > what he so blindly believes, hence his bluster.
| >
| > Androcles
|
|
| So please explain how Maxwell's equations can remain invariant under
| Galilean relativity?
Which one? Maxwell's equations are not Maxwell's.
Faraday's equation and Gauss's equation complement each other,
Ampere's equation is different. They are called Maxwell's
equations because he clustered them. Two of Newton's three laws
rightfully belong to Galileo, so it's been done before.
Maxwell believed in aether, and if we take the permittivity and
permeability
of matter we get the speed of light in the matter, such as diamond,
water,
glass, air etc an equation:
c_substance = 1/sqrt (mu_substance * epsilon_substance)
What was done (I'm not sure by whom, Weber perhaps) was
to extrapolate a table
mu4, epsilon4 gives c4
mu3, epsilon3 gives c3
mu2, epsilon2 gives c2
mu1, epsilon1 gives c1 so the next obvious step was
mu0, epsilon0 gives c0, the speed of light in aether.
Then the aether vanished with MMX, but someone forgot that the
permeability (mu0) and permittivity (epsilon0) of free space should
go along with it, and they still linger in Maxwell's equations.
Gauss and Faraday's equations do not contain the terms and need no
modification.
What we actually have is
c0 = 1/sqrt(0*0) = undefined.
c is really the ejection velocity of a photon from an atom,
uncontrolled by the space around it, that space doesn't
control the speed of a bullet either.
But we still have and must have
c_air = 1/sqrt (mu_air * epsilon_air),
as seen by refraction.
It isn't so much that light is a particle in a wave as it is a wave in
a particle.
The particle is the quantity of energy an atom emits.
The solutions to Gauss and Faraday's equations are cos(theta)
and sin(theta), the energy is sqrt ( cos^2 + sin^2) and constant.
Two waves, not one, are emitted, playing leapfrog over each other.
One is the magnetic field and the other is the magnetic.
When a magnet field grows at a constant RATE, the electric field
is constant, but the magnetic field cannot grow forever, it has to
stop sometime. When it stops growing it is still there, but the
electric field isn't, that depends on the growth, not the amount.
No electric field for a bar magnet, it isn't changing,
*unless* you move a conductor through it.
Now the magnetic field collapses because that too only exists
when the electric field is changing, the E-field goes negative
and the B-field falls to zero. And so the cycle repeats,
(+)(N)(-)(S)(+)
and we have a wavicle.
With radio, TV, microwave ovens and cell phones we get to choose
the frequency we want.
Nature chooses what our eyes can see for us.
Rattlesnakes can see in the infrared to hunt smal mammals,
bees can see in the ultraviolet to be guided by flowers to the nectar.
We can with instruments see in the long wave of radio snd the short
wave of x-rays, we have artificial eyes.
http://www.star.ucl.ac.uk/~apod/apod/ap001006.html.
You'll see Sirius in the winter sky.
W can prove Einstein was wrong quite easily, just by having
a race between a photon and a cosmic muon. The muon wins.
http://web.mit.edu/rsi/www/pdfs/papers/98/mthrashe.pdf
"With a lifetime of 2176 ns, the muon would be required to travel faster
than light to reach the Earth's surface in any detectable quantities."
"Because the muon is traveling at .9661c - .9778c, the distance from the
earth to the muon is Lorentz contracted by a factor of 15 from 9
kilometers in the Earth's frame to 600 meters in the muon's frame"
This is abject nonsense that we always get from relativists. We see the
muon travel 9 kilometers in 2176 ns, that's its speed and that's all
there is
to it. We don't hear about the length contraction and time dilation of
a
photon, so the playing field isn't level.
Androcles.
Forget your lengthy and ignorant diatribe and just answer the original
question. Are Maxwell's equations invariant under the Galilean
transformation or aren't they?
.
|
|
|
| User: "Androcles Androcles@ MyPlace.org" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 06:39:34 AM |
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|
"Igor" <thoovler@excite.com> wrote in message
news:1124001238.491328.219440@f14g2000cwb.googlegroups.com...
|
| Androcles wrote:
| > "Igor" <thoovler@excite.com> wrote in message
| > news:1123961893.764317.323310@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
| > |
| > | Androcles wrote:
| > | > "Scismgenie" <Scismgenie@adelphia.net> wrote in message
| > | > news:1123949394.495795.251870@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
| > | > | Since my science (formal) education os forty years ago, I am
stuck
| > | > with
| > | > | teh concepts based on that base, s please excuse my asking
"crap".
| > But
| > | > | declaring my questions crap leaves me no closer to
understanding
| > WHY
| > | > | they are Crap.
| > | > |
| > | > | (Thanks for the link to Einstien, but I am at this point
unable to
| > | > | understand his formulae references)
| > | >
| > | > What would you like to know?
| > | >
| > | > Looking at your earlier post, we can indeed refer to
| > | > http://fourmilab.to/etexts/einstein/specrel/specrel.pdf
| > | > or better,
| > | > http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
| > | > which is not a pdf file, where you will find
| > | >
| > | > 1) Galilean Relativity in the form of the reciprocal
electrodynamic
| > | > action of
| > | > a conductor and a magnet,
| > | > 2) the correct conclusion
| > | > "But the ray moves relatively to the initial point of k,
| > | > when measured in the stationary system, with the velocity
c-v..."
| > | > and
| > | > 3) we establish by definition that the "time" required by light
to
| > | > travel
| > | > from A to B equals the "time" it requires to travel from B to
A.
| > | >
| > | > The third is where Einstein stamps his foot and says
| > | > "It is because I say it is!"
| > | >
| > | > There is no magic to it, it is a hoax, plain and simple.
| > | >
| > | > That is what you are missing from the questions you have, and
| > | > the moron "uncle" Alan Schwartz has not read or understood
| > | > what he so blindly believes, hence his bluster.
| > | >
| > | > Androcles
| > |
| > |
| > | So please explain how Maxwell's equations can remain invariant
under
| > | Galilean relativity?
| >
| > Which one? Maxwell's equations are not Maxwell's.
| > Faraday's equation and Gauss's equation complement each other,
| > Ampere's equation is different. They are called Maxwell's
| > equations because he clustered them. Two of Newton's three laws
| > rightfully belong to Galileo, so it's been done before.
| > Maxwell believed in aether, and if we take the permittivity and
| > permeability
| > of matter we get the speed of light in the matter, such as diamond,
| > water,
| > glass, air etc an equation:
| > c_substance = 1/sqrt (mu_substance * epsilon_substance)
| > What was done (I'm not sure by whom, Weber perhaps) was
| > to extrapolate a table
| > mu4, epsilon4 gives c4
| > mu3, epsilon3 gives c3
| > mu2, epsilon2 gives c2
| > mu1, epsilon1 gives c1 so the next obvious step was
| > mu0, epsilon0 gives c0, the speed of light in aether.
| >
| > Then the aether vanished with MMX, but someone forgot that the
| > permeability (mu0) and permittivity (epsilon0) of free space should
| > go along with it, and they still linger in Maxwell's equations.
| > Gauss and Faraday's equations do not contain the terms and need no
| > modification.
| > What we actually have is
| > c0 = 1/sqrt(0*0) = undefined.
| > c is really the ejection velocity of a photon from an atom,
| > uncontrolled by the space around it, that space doesn't
| > control the speed of a bullet either.
| > But we still have and must have
| > c_air = 1/sqrt (mu_air * epsilon_air),
| > as seen by refraction.
| > It isn't so much that light is a particle in a wave as it is a wave
in
| > a particle.
| > The particle is the quantity of energy an atom emits.
| > The solutions to Gauss and Faraday's equations are cos(theta)
| > and sin(theta), the energy is sqrt ( cos^2 + sin^2) and constant.
| > Two waves, not one, are emitted, playing leapfrog over each other.
| > One is the magnetic field and the other is the magnetic.
| > When a magnet field grows at a constant RATE, the electric field
| > is constant, but the magnetic field cannot grow forever, it has to
| > stop sometime. When it stops growing it is still there, but the
| > electric field isn't, that depends on the growth, not the amount.
| > No electric field for a bar magnet, it isn't changing,
| > *unless* you move a conductor through it.
| > Now the magnetic field collapses because that too only exists
| > when the electric field is changing, the E-field goes negative
| > and the B-field falls to zero. And so the cycle repeats,
| > (+)(N)(-)(S)(+)
| > and we have a wavicle.
| > With radio, TV, microwave ovens and cell phones we get to choose
| > the frequency we want.
| > Nature chooses what our eyes can see for us.
| > Rattlesnakes can see in the infrared to hunt smal mammals,
| > bees can see in the ultraviolet to be guided by flowers to the
nectar.
| >
| > We can with instruments see in the long wave of radio snd the short
| > wave of x-rays, we have artificial eyes.
| > http://www.star.ucl.ac.uk/~apod/apod/ap001006.html.
| > You'll see Sirius in the winter sky.
| >
| > W can prove Einstein was wrong quite easily, just by having
| > a race between a photon and a cosmic muon. The muon wins.
| >
| > http://web.mit.edu/rsi/www/pdfs/papers/98/mthrashe.pdf
| >
| >
| > "With a lifetime of 2176 ns, the muon would be required to travel
faster
| > than light to reach the Earth's surface in any detectable
quantities."
| > "Because the muon is traveling at .9661c - .9778c, the distance from
the
| > earth to the muon is Lorentz contracted by a factor of 15 from 9
| > kilometers in the Earth's frame to 600 meters in the muon's frame"
| >
| > This is abject nonsense that we always get from relativists. We see
the
| > muon travel 9 kilometers in 2176 ns, that's its speed and that's all
| > there is
| > to it. We don't hear about the length contraction and time dilation
of
| > a
| > photon, so the playing field isn't level.
| >
| >
| > Androcles.
|
|
| Forget your lengthy and ignorant diatribe
*****, stupid ignorant phuckwit.
*plonk*
Androcles.
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| User: "Dirk Van de moortel" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 02:50:45 PM |
|
|
"Igor" <thoovler@excite.com> wrote in message news:1123961893.764317.323310@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
Androcles wrote:
"Scismgenie" <Scismgenie@adelphia.net> wrote in message
news:1123949394.495795.251870@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
| Since my science (formal) education os forty years ago, I am stuck
with
| teh concepts based on that base, s please excuse my asking "crap". But
| declaring my questions crap leaves me no closer to understanding WHY
| they are Crap.
|
| (Thanks for the link to Einstien, but I am at this point unable to
| understand his formulae references)
What would you like to know?
Looking at your earlier post, we can indeed refer to
http://fourmilab.to/etexts/einstein/specrel/specrel.pdf
or better,
http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
which is not a pdf file, where you will find
1) Galilean Relativity in the form of the reciprocal electrodynamic
action of
a conductor and a magnet,
2) the correct conclusion
"But the ray moves relatively to the initial point of k,
when measured in the stationary system, with the velocity c-v..."
and
3) we establish by definition that the "time" required by light to
travel
from A to B equals the "time" it requires to travel from B to A.
The third is where Einstein stamps his foot and says
"It is because I say it is!"
There is no magic to it, it is a hoax, plain and simple.
That is what you are missing from the questions you have, and
the moron "uncle" Alan Schwartz has not read or understood
what he so blindly believes, hence his bluster.
Androcles
So please explain how Maxwell's equations can remain invariant under
Galilean relativity?
Asking an idiot to explain something, usually makes it worse.
Asking a malicious idiot to explain something, always makes
it worse.
As you just have witnessed :-)
Dirk Vdm
.
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| User: "Wilson" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
15 Aug 2005 05:10:55 AM |
|
|
On Sun, 14 Aug 2005 19:50:45 GMT, "Dirk Van de moortel"
<dirkvandemoortel@ThankS-NO-SperM.hotmail.com> wrote:
"Igor" <thoovler@excite.com> wrote in message news:1123961893.764317.323310@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
Androcles wrote:
"Scismgenie" <Scismgenie@adelphia.net> wrote in message
news:1123949394.495795.251870@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
| Since my science (formal) education os forty years ago, I am stuck
with
| teh concepts based on that base, s please excuse my asking "crap". But
| declaring my questions crap leaves me no closer to understanding WHY
| they are Crap.
|
| (Thanks for the link to Einstien, but I am at this point unable to
| understand his formulae references)
What would you like to know?
Looking at your earlier post, we can indeed refer to
http://fourmilab.to/etexts/einstein/specrel/specrel.pdf
or better,
http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
which is not a pdf file, where you will find
1) Galilean Relativity in the form of the reciprocal electrodynamic
action of
a conductor and a magnet,
2) the correct conclusion
"But the ray moves relatively to the initial point of k,
when measured in the stationary system, with the velocity c-v..."
and
3) we establish by definition that the "time" required by light to
travel
from A to B equals the "time" it requires to travel from B to A.
The third is where Einstein stamps his foot and says
"It is because I say it is!"
There is no magic to it, it is a hoax, plain and simple.
That is what you are missing from the questions you have, and
the moron "uncle" Alan Schwartz has not read or understood
what he so blindly believes, hence his bluster.
Androcles
So please explain how Maxwell's equations can remain invariant under
Galilean relativity?
Asking an idiot to explain something, usually makes it worse.
Asking a malicious idiot to explain something, always makes
it worse.
As you just have witnessed :-)
Dirk Vdm
Androcles is true genius.
He just needs a little guidance occasionally.
UP THE BATISTS!!!
ps: you are a waste of H-C bond, moortel.
HW.
www.users.bigpond.com/hewn/index.htm
Sometimes I feel like a complete failure.
The most useful thing I have ever done is prove Einstein wrong.
.
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| User: "Androcles Androcles@ MyPlace.org" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
15 Aug 2005 08:15:22 AM |
|
|
"Henri Wilson" <H@..> wrote in message
news:4dq0g15mr7c8dhhn499hbnji7ireh9fvci@4ax.com...
| Androcles is true genius.
| He just needs a little guidance occasionally.
Thanks mate, but I'm no genius, I'm just a plod.
Even a blind squirrel can find a nut sometimes.
Malicious mumbling moortel couldn't find a straw in a haystack.
Androcles
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| User: "Dirk Van de moortel" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
15 Aug 2005 05:18:21 AM |
|
|
"Henri Wilson" <H@..> wrote in message news:4dq0g15mr7c8dhhn499hbnji7ireh9fvci@4ax.com...
On Sun, 14 Aug 2005 19:50:45 GMT, "Dirk Van de moortel"
<dirkvandemoortel@ThankS-NO-SperM.hotmail.com> wrote:
"Igor" <thoovler@excite.com> wrote in message news:1123961893.764317.323310@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
Androcles wrote:
"Scismgenie" <Scismgenie@adelphia.net> wrote in message
news:1123949394.495795.251870@g43g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
| Since my science (formal) education os forty years ago, I am stuck
with
| teh concepts based on that base, s please excuse my asking "crap". But
| declaring my questions crap leaves me no closer to understanding WHY
| they are Crap.
|
| (Thanks for the link to Einstien, but I am at this point unable to
| understand his formulae references)
What would you like to know?
Looking at your earlier post, we can indeed refer to
http://fourmilab.to/etexts/einstein/specrel/specrel.pdf
or better,
http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
which is not a pdf file, where you will find
1) Galilean Relativity in the form of the reciprocal electrodynamic
action of
a conductor and a magnet,
2) the correct conclusion
"But the ray moves relatively to the initial point of k,
when measured in the stationary system, with the velocity c-v..."
and
3) we establish by definition that the "time" required by light to
travel
from A to B equals the "time" it requires to travel from B to A.
The third is where Einstein stamps his foot and says
"It is because I say it is!"
There is no magic to it, it is a hoax, plain and simple.
That is what you are missing from the questions you have, and
the moron "uncle" Alan Schwartz has not read or understood
what he so blindly believes, hence his bluster.
Androcles
So please explain how Maxwell's equations can remain invariant under
Galilean relativity?
Asking an idiot to explain something, usually makes it worse.
Asking a malicious idiot to explain something, always makes
it worse.
As you just have witnessed :-)
Dirk Vdm
Androcles is true genius.
In your foggy cataracted eyes, no doubt about it.
You have my full support on that statement.
Dirk Vdm
He just needs a little guidance occasionally.
UP THE BATISTS!!!
ps: you are a waste of H-C bond, moortel.
HW.
www.users.bigpond.com/hewn/index.htm
Sometimes I feel like a complete failure.
The most useful thing I have ever done is prove Einstein wrong.
.
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| User: "TomGee" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
13 Aug 2005 11:54:47 AM |
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|
That's ok, Scismgenie, he can't understand Einstein either, that's why
he can't answer your questions. He refers you to websites where he
hopes you will understand what's there and explain it to him. If he
knew the answers, he could explain them to you, but he doesn't, so he
can't.
His behaviour is q quirk of his character which humans have but which
is mostly repressed normally until the individual loses control of it
and posts here to show his superiority over all others. Complete
idiots would do that, or else someone who is incapable of written
discourse. IOWs, none of this is your fault for asking questions.
I will come back later and try to answer your questions with reasonable
explanations later.
.
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| User: "Schoenfeld" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 07:04:26 PM |
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|
Uncle Al wrote:
Scismgenie wrote:
IF Light can display properies as both a particle and a waveform, would
that negate the threshold of Light as the ultimate speed limit of
mass?
Photons have no rest mass.
No, photons have no observable mass. The difference is important.
[snip crap]
Annalen der Physik 4, XVII, pp. 891-921 (1905)
http://fourmilab.to/etexts/einstein/specrel/specrel.pdf
<http://www.geocities.com/physics_world/sr/ae_1905_error.htm>
<http://www.physics.gatech.edu/people/faculty/finkelstein/relativity.pdf>
Longitudinal and transverse mass
Physics Today 58(3) 34 (2005)
Time passage, equator vs. poles
--
Uncle Al
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/
(Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals)
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/qz.pdf
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| User: "Androcles Androcles@ MyPlace.org" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 07:07:34 PM |
|
|
"Schoenfeld" <schoenfeld1@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1124064266.495980.122640@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
|
| Uncle Al wrote:
| > Scismgenie wrote:
| > >
| > > IF Light can display properies as both a particle and a waveform,
would
| > > that negate the threshold of Light as the ultimate speed limit of
| > > mass?
| >
| > Photons have no rest mass.
|
| No, photons have no observable mass. The difference is important.
Did you imagine you could tell a bigot like Alice anything?
You have to be dafter than I thought.
Androcles.
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| User: "Schoenfeld" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
15 Aug 2005 12:08:41 AM |
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|
Androcles wrote:
"Schoenfeld" <schoenfeld1@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1124064266.495980.122640@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...
|
| Uncle Al wrote:
| > Scismgenie wrote:
| > >
| > > IF Light can display properies as both a particle and a waveform,
would
| > > that negate the threshold of Light as the ultimate speed limit of
| > > mass?
| >
| > Photons have no rest mass.
|
| No, photons have no observable mass. The difference is important.
Did you imagine you could tell a bigot like Alice anything?
You have to be dafter than I thought.
I post for the benefit of the lurker.
Androcles.
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| User: "TomGee" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
13 Aug 2005 01:32:08 PM |
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|
Scismgenie wrote:
IF Light can display properies as both a particle and a waveform, would
that negate the threshold of Light as the ultimate speed limit of
mass?
Yes, because it violates the Principle of Conservation of Mass/energy
and the famous formula, E=mc^2. Both support each other in that they
infer a strong interdependence between energy and mass. E.e., where we
have energy, we must have mass, and vice-versa.
Current theory has the photon particle as being massless so that it can
move at light speed, but supporters of that silliness ignore the
principle and the formula above as if it had been validly overthrown by
their math construct which provides momentum as a motive force (which
in the same breath they deny momentum is a force) which to them proves
a photon particle is massless, even though most of them admit math
cannot prove a damn thing except math. You can see why they're so
confused.
Or does it imply that anything going AT the speed of light loses all
Mass characteristics?
No, the theory is that its mass must increase to an infinite size and
that would take all the energy there is to accomplish that and that may
still not be enough.
Is the amout of energy EXPENDED to accelerate mass to the speed of
light considered to be infinite?
I think its thought to be unattainable, not an infinite amount, but I
could be wrong about that.
(exponentially taking MORE energy to
push a smaller mass faster?)
Not sure of what you're asking here. The amount of energy in a given
mass is very very much much much more than the amount of the given
mass.
Is there an Energy barrier of diminishing
returns?
I don't think so, but again, I could be wrong about that.
In other-words the Speed of Light is probably FASTER than the practical
ability to gain acceleration? (except on a molecular scale?)
I would agree, but not on a molecular scale?
If Light is a particle, and that particle is scillating (frequency)
and the frequency of oscillation is longer than a reference point, do
different frequency oscillations cause the particles to move at
different speeds in relation to the crossover point of teh oscillation?
It would be hard to associate frequency with objects as it refers to
waves and how often they pass a ref. point. There is no oscillation
involved AFAIK inherent in particles.
If so does that indicate that Light particles of a longer wavelength
are traveling faster tham shorteones to cover the same distance of
linear travel in the same time reference, (actually covering more
distance because of wider oscillations?)
No, they move at c regardless of their wavelengths. More waves of
shorter wls pass by a ref. point that those of longer wls.
Or it is represented that the
particle travels at a constant speed linearly, but oscilates
perpendicular to the direction of travel a greater vaariance from the
crossover reference? (wobble?)
The oscillations you refer to as those of an em wave. AFAIK, that kind
of oscillation has not been proposed yet for particles, although it is
accepted that matter gives off waves, so a particle give off such
waves.
If a light particle oscillates, what does it oscillate AROUND, would it
be like an Orbit with a complementary mass to oscillate around?
Excuse my simplistic non-educated questions.
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| User: "Scismgenie" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 12:49:33 AM |
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That was a good set of answers, and much easier to figure out than
crap...LOL.
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| User: "Scismgenie" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 01:14:10 AM |
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Curvature of space is an optical illusion. Since it takes so long for
the light to get here, what we see isn't anywhere near where we think
we see it. However the process is that we are looking far into the
past, and seeing things as they were a very long time ago.
The resolution sucks, but it's interesting. it is essentially GHOST
images of long ago events.
Now Where IS the edge of everything? At which point can you say "past
here there is no more?"
Sounds sort of like the Flat Earth society.
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| User: "Androcles Androcles@ MyPlace.org" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 11:35:33 AM |
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|
It might help if you mention to whom you are replying.
I do a search on all posts containing the text "Androcles",
reply to those first and only then if I have the time do I
bother to look at other posts. There are far too many to
to read and most are not worth bothering with.
"Scismgenie" <Scismgenie@adelphia.net> wrote in message
news:1124000050.215782.306990@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com...
| Curvature of space is an optical illusion.
It's a mathematical illusion created by Einstein, you can't curve
nothing.
It hardly matters if we follow a straight path in curved space or
a curved path in straight space, and the only curve we get is from
gravity.
I'm not being curved as I sit in this chair, though.
Since it takes so long for
| the light to get here, what we see isn't anywhere near where we think
| we see it.
Yes, light is pretty slow. It takes 8 minutes to get here from the sun.
| However the process is that we are looking far into the
| past, and seeing things as they were a very long time ago.
Sure.
| The resolution sucks, but it's interesting. it is essentially GHOST
| images of long ago events.
|
| Now Where IS the edge of everything?
What edge? The universe is infinite and boundless, the part
we see is local. If the universe had an edge there could be
another universe beyond it, and then the two combined
would be the universe, by definition.
At which point can you say "past
| here there is no more?"
I don't say it. Instead I say "Past here there may be more, but
I can never know about it."
What's the highest number there is? I'll add one to it.
I'll even square it and then cube it, then raise it to the power
of itself and raise that too.
| Sounds sort of like the Flat Earth society.
Yeah, well...I'm not a member.
When you drop a rock into a pond, the ripples get smaller
until they reach the edge. So make the pond larger.
Still reaching the edge? Make it even larger. When the height
if the ripples is smaller than a water molecule, you've reached
the edge of the observable pond. The pond may now be as big as the
pacific ocean, but there is a limit to how far the ripples can reach.
The observable universe has an edge. We are at the edge of a star
this is radiating from 15 billion light years away.
If we can still see it, find a star even further away. There comes a
point where we can no longer see a star. That doesn't mean it
isn't there.
Androcles
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| User: "Sam Wormley" |
|
| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 07:17:16 AM |
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|
Scismgenie wrote:
Curvature of space is an optical illusion.
How about when you fall on the ice?
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| User: "Bjoern Feuerbacher" |
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| Title: Re: Light as a particle in a wave? |
14 Aug 2005 07:21:21 AM |
|
|
Scismgenie wrote:
Curvature of space is an optical illusion.
No, it isn't. You just admitted yourself that you are ignorant
about physics - so why do you think now suddenly that you can make
authorative statements about it, contradicting hundreds of thousands
of actual physicists?
Since it takes so long for
the light to get here, what we see isn't anywhere near where we think
we see it.
That is right, but has precisely nothing to do with the effects
attribtuted to the curvature of space.
[snip]
Now Where IS the edge of everything? At which point can you say "past
here there is no more?"
According to standard cosmology, space has no edge. If you talk about
an "edge" in time, then that is (probably) around 13.7 billion years ago.
Sounds sort of like the Flat Earth society.
Huh?
Bye,
Bjoern
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