Do you really understand the stuffs you put in this lengthy post? I
will just point out the first misinformation I see and stop there.
(snip)
Consider first the phenomena described by Maxwell's Equations.
These
equations describe the manner in which electric and magnetic fields
interact to
produce the electromagnetic field. They show that a changing electric
field
produces a changing magnetic field and visa versa. They do not
preclude the
existence of unchanging magnetic or electric fields. Indeed, such
fields are
common and we have all experienced them. For example, static magnetic
fields
are exhibited by permanent magnets and electromagnets operated by a
DC current
Er--did you know that these two things you mentioned are one and the
same? Permanent magnets are due to alignment of angular momentum of
electrons in the substance (or something like that) and can (and
should) be understood as being due to the "current" generated by
"orbitting" electrons.
and, in the region of space surrounding them at least, where the
magnetic field
may be quite strong, do not involve an electric field. Similarly,
electric
fields are readily observed, as evidenced by the rising of the hair
on your arm
when it is placed close to the faceplate of a TV set or when one
slides a
polystyrene cup from a stack (such an induced electric field may make
the lower
cup "float" inside the cup above it). In these cases an electric
field is
observed to be present without an accompanying magnetic field. It is
only when
one of those fields (electric and magnetic) has a rate of change with
respect
to time that the other field manifests itself in accordance with
Maxwell's
Equations. It should be obvious to all that electric and magnetic
fields
interact to produce an effect which we denote as the electromagnetic
field but
in no way is the electromagnetic field fundamental since both the
electric and
magnetic fields can be observed independently. (An analogy from
chemistry would
be salt since is composed of atoms of sodium and chlorine which are
combined
into a molecule which we call salt. The molecule is hardly a
fundamental
entity, it is a compound of two fundamental entities.)
How exactly, do you propose that magnetic field is "fundamental" by
itself? Where is magnetic field without an electric field? You
mentioned a DC current generating unchanging magnetic field--well, how
do you suppose you get that DC current? From another unchanging
magnetic field? Generating such DC current is possible only by putting
an electric potential difference between two ends of the coil--which
sets an electric field inside the coil, causing the free electrons to
move. (BTW, just in case you are even a bit knowledgeable about physics
and have heard something like E=0 inside a conductor, well, just keep
in mind that it was for electrostatics.)
Perhaps electric field can exist by itself, because a stationary charge
(if we can ever get that--even at 0K, there is always something called
Brownian motion, so unless we agree to be in the "inertial frame" of
the charge, it will never be "stationary") will not have any magnetic
field associated with it. But, since we do not have a magnetic monopole
(you did look up all four Maxwell's equations, right?) it is not
possible for us to have a magnetic field without electric field. And,
if electric field itself is all that is necessary to produce a magnetic
field, and they happen together so often, why call it just "electric
field," which clearly presents only half the picture--thus, we call it
"electromagnetic field."
So, post this again when you have found a magnetic monopole and shaken
the foundation of physics as we know it.
(snip all the other bs i didn't have time to check)
.
