Re: Question about Kepler's second law



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Topic: Science > Physics
User: "Peter"
Date: 13 Apr 2007 02:34:43 PM
Object: Re: Question about Kepler's second law
On Apr 13, 3:00 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:

On Apr 13, 11:36 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:





On Apr 13, 12:19 pm, "Randy Poe" <poespam-t...@yahoo.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 11:57 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 10:32 am, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 8:57 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 7:51 am, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 2:00 am, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:


<mme...@cars3.uchicago.edu> wrote in messagenews:7ADTh.90$25.220@news.uchicago.edu...

In article <461ee083$0$11811$9a6e1...@news.newshosting.com>, "Greg Neill"

<gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> writes:

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote in message
news:1176421490.201417.260000@o5g2000hsb.googlegroups.com...


For a point mass, r x p and mr^2w are the same thing.


Only for a circular orbit, where r and p are
perpendicular.


Nah, where did you get it from. In the above, w is the angular
velocity, defined as w = (r x v)/|r|^2. So,


r x p = m*(r x v) = m*|r|^2*w. For any motion, not just circular.
This doesn't change the fact, of course, that angular momentum is
*defined* by r x p (not the most general definition, but it'll suffice
for here) while in the special case of point mass it *evaluates* to
mr^2w. "Defined as" and "evaluates to" is not the same thing.


You're right of course.


I thought that Peter was considering mr^2w to consist of
only scalar values (based upon the apparent level of his
arguments), and w in particular to be a scalar constant


But any idiot can look at animations illustratingKepler'ssecondlaw
and see that w is not a scalar constant. I believe that was preciselyKepler'spoint.


http://home.cvc.org/science/kepler.gifhttp://www.glenbrook.k12.il.us/...


as in the usual high school circular motion analysis.
This, I figured, was his bid to show that mr^2w is not
constant for an elliptical orbit since r varies. Perhaps
I jumped to that conclusion prematurely.- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


PD, I'll tell you why I say mr^2w is incorrect. I just saw a device,
which will soon be mass-produced, that shows the correct
expression for the angular momentum of a point mass is mrw, not mr^2w.
It is an elongated circular track, like a racetrack;
its length is twice its width. But it is a virtually frictionless air
track, with air walls at its semicircular ends. A relatively
large puck is released with a certain velocity on the middle of the
rectilinear part of the track. It moves practically with the
same velocity until it reaches the curved part of the track, where the
airflow from the wall changes the direction of its
velocity, without changing its magnitude; thus, the puck goes around
the track and keeps going with the same speed.
Clearly, the angular momentum of the puck, with respect to the center
of the track, when it is released on the middle
of the straight part of the track, is mrw, and when it reaches the
center of the curved part of the track is m2r(w/2), because
its speed has not changed. Thus, its angular momentum has been
conserved. If mr^2w were correct, angular momentum
would appear not to be conserved, but it is, because no forces act in
the direction of its motion. I hope this convinces you.


Peter


While this is amusing, Peter, you are off the mark on several fronts.
- The forces acting on the puck in this device are not *central*
forces. Angular momentum is conserved under a *central* force. There
is no guarantee that angular momentum is conserved if the forces
acting on a body are not central. There is no single point in this
device that the net force acting on the puck points toward. It simply
is not an example of a central force situation. In the case that you
are talking about, if you choose the center of the track to be your
axis, then when the puck hits the circular arc, the force that acts on
the puck does not point toward the center of the track -- it points at
the center of the circular arc, which is not in the same place.
- You say the angular momentum of the puck on the straight portion of
the track is mrw. This is simply wrong, and I have no idea why you
think it's correct. The *linear* momentum of the puck on the straight
portion of the track is p=mv, which (depending on how you are defining
w) is numerically equal to mrw. The *angular* momentum of the puck on
the straight portion of the track is L = r x p. Please do not confuse
the two or imagine that only one can apply at a time or that somehow
angular momentum *turns into* linear momentum. It doesn't.


PD- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


The forces acting on the puck when it is going around the circular
part of the track, are central to its motion at that time. The linear
(tangential) velocity of any object going around any reference point
is rw = v; so its linear (tangential) momentum is mrw = mv. I think
there is only one kind of momentum mv, which is a vector, because
velocity is a vector, regardless of how the object moves, and is
conserved if no forces in the in direction of its motion act on it. I
think it is funny that apparently nobody knows who defined angular
momentum as mr^2w. I would like to see someone deriving it from
scratch.


Regardless of what you think about the universe, in the actual
universe there is another quantity with the units of momentum called
angular momentum, defined as r x p, and which is conserved
in the absence of torque, e.g. under central forces. This is a simple
consequence of Newton's laws, and it is empirically verified.


You have seen the simple derivation of mr^w2 from r x p. Several
times.


Vector velocity is not "conserved" in the absence of forces in
the same direction. If there is no force in the direction of motion,
then no work is done and energy is conserved, speed is
conserved. But vector velocity is altered.


Every time you write you introduce more misconceptions, and
you are ignoring what every one else is writing. It is clear
you aren't here to get questions answered. I agree with others
that you are trolling.


- Randy- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


I understand only Newton's laws govern all motion, and torque is alien
to them, and unnecessary.


Nope. That is simply incorrect.

Velocity and momentum are true vector, but
torque and angular momentum are not.


I'm not sure what you mean by a "true vector". A vector is no more
"real" than a scalar, pseudoscalar, pseudovector, or a tensor.

Could you please explain what you
mean by
a central force?


It's easy enough to look up. I believe I did explain it in the
paragraph where I mentioned it.

Could you please clarify the following, I don't get
it:


Vector velocity is not "conserved" in the absence of forces in


the same direction.


I don't believe I uttered this sentence, so I decline to try to
clarify it.



If there is no force in the direction of motion,

then no work is done and energy is conserved, speed is
conserved. But vector velocity is altered.


Peter- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -

- Show quoted text -

PD, I think the postings are getting mixed-up. I understand no central
force is required for angular momentum to be conserved, if I remember
it right.
Peter
.

User: "PD"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 13 Apr 2007 05:05:20 PM
On Apr 13, 2:34 pm, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:

On Apr 13, 3:00 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:





On Apr 13, 11:36 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 12:19 pm, "Randy Poe" <poespam-t...@yahoo.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 11:57 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 10:32 am, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 8:57 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 7:51 am, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 2:00 am, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:


<mme...@cars3.uchicago.edu> wrote in messagenews:7ADTh.90$25.220@news.uchicago.edu...

In article <461ee083$0$11811$9a6e1...@news.newshosting.com>, "Greg Neill"

<gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> writes:

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote in message
news:1176421490.201417.260000@o5g2000hsb.googlegroups.com...


For a point mass, r x p and mr^2w are the same thing.


Only for a circular orbit, where r and p are
perpendicular.


Nah, where did you get it from. In the above, w is the angular
velocity, defined as w = (r x v)/|r|^2. So,


r x p = m*(r x v) = m*|r|^2*w. For any motion, not just circular.
This doesn't change the fact, of course, that angular momentum is
*defined* by r x p (not the most general definition, but it'll suffice
for here) while in the special case of point mass it *evaluates* to
mr^2w. "Defined as" and "evaluates to" is not the same thing.


You're right of course.


I thought that Peter was considering mr^2w to consist of
only scalar values (based upon the apparent level of his
arguments), and w in particular to be a scalar constant


But any idiot can look at animations illustratingKepler'ssecondlaw
and see that w is not a scalar constant. I believe that was preciselyKepler'spoint.


http://home.cvc.org/science/kepler.gifhttp://www.glenbrook.k12.il.us/...


as in the usual high school circular motion analysis.
This, I figured, was his bid to show that mr^2w is not
constant for an elliptical orbit since r varies. Perhaps
I jumped to that conclusion prematurely.- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


PD, I'll tell you why I say mr^2w is incorrect. I just saw a device,
which will soon be mass-produced, that shows the correct
expression for the angular momentum of a point mass is mrw, not mr^2w.
It is an elongated circular track, like a racetrack;
its length is twice its width. But it is a virtually frictionless air
track, with air walls at its semicircular ends. A relatively
large puck is released with a certain velocity on the middle of the
rectilinear part of the track. It moves practically with the
same velocity until it reaches the curved part of the track, where the
airflow from the wall changes the direction of its
velocity, without changing its magnitude; thus, the puck goes around
the track and keeps going with the same speed.
Clearly, the angular momentum of the puck, with respect to the center
of the track, when it is released on the middle
of the straight part of the track, is mrw, and when it reaches the
center of the curved part of the track is m2r(w/2), because
its speed has not changed. Thus, its angular momentum has been
conserved. If mr^2w were correct, angular momentum
would appear not to be conserved, but it is, because no forces act in
the direction of its motion. I hope this convinces you.


Peter


While this is amusing, Peter, you are off the mark on several fronts.
- The forces acting on the puck in this device are not *central*
forces. Angular momentum is conserved under a *central* force. There
is no guarantee that angular momentum is conserved if the forces
acting on a body are not central. There is no single point in this
device that the net force acting on the puck points toward. It simply
is not an example of a central force situation. In the case that you
are talking about, if you choose the center of the track to be your
axis, then when the puck hits the circular arc, the force that acts on
the puck does not point toward the center of the track -- it points at
the center of the circular arc, which is not in the same place.
- You say the angular momentum of the puck on the straight portion of
the track is mrw. This is simply wrong, and I have no idea why you
think it's correct. The *linear* momentum of the puck on the straight
portion of the track is p=mv, which (depending on how you are defining
w) is numerically equal to mrw. The *angular* momentum of the puck on
the straight portion of the track is L = r x p. Please do not confuse
the two or imagine that only one can apply at a time or that somehow
angular momentum *turns into* linear momentum. It doesn't.


PD- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


The forces acting on the puck when it is going around the circular
part of the track, are central to its motion at that time. The linear
(tangential) velocity of any object going around any reference point
is rw = v; so its linear (tangential) momentum is mrw = mv. I think
there is only one kind of momentum mv, which is a vector, because
velocity is a vector, regardless of how the object moves, and is
conserved if no forces in the in direction of its motion act on it. I
think it is funny that apparently nobody knows who defined angular
momentum as mr^2w. I would like to see someone deriving it from
scratch.


Regardless of what you think about the universe, in the actual
universe there is another quantity with the units of momentum called
angular momentum, defined as r x p, and which is conserved
in the absence of torque, e.g. under central forces. This is a simple
consequence of Newton's laws, and it is empirically verified.


You have seen the simple derivation of mr^w2 from r x p. Several
times.


Vector velocity is not "conserved" in the absence of forces in
the same direction. If there is no force in the direction of motion,
then no work is done and energy is conserved, speed is
conserved. But vector velocity is altered.


Every time you write you introduce more misconceptions, and
you are ignoring what every one else is writing. It is clear
you aren't here to get questions answered. I agree with others
that you are trolling.


- Randy- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


I understand only Newton's laws govern all motion, and torque is alien
to them, and unnecessary.


Nope. That is simply incorrect.


Velocity and momentum are true vector, but
torque and angular momentum are not.


I'm not sure what you mean by a "true vector". A vector is no more
"real" than a scalar, pseudoscalar, pseudovector, or a tensor.


Could you please explain what you
mean by
a central force?


It's easy enough to look up. I believe I did explain it in the
paragraph where I mentioned it.


Could you please clarify the following, I don't get
it:


Vector velocity is not "conserved" in the absence of forces in


the same direction.


I don't believe I uttered this sentence, so I decline to try to
clarify it.


If there is no force in the direction of motion,

then no work is done and energy is conserved, speed is
conserved. But vector velocity is altered.


Peter- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


PD, I think the postings are getting mixed-up. I understand no central
force is required for angular momentum to be conserved, if I remember
it right.

Peter

That's right, but it's irrelevant.
Now I'm waiting for you to come up with an incorrect conclusion from
the statement above...
PD
.
User: "Peter"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 13 Apr 2007 05:51:01 PM
On Apr 13, 6:05 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:

On Apr 13, 2:34 pm, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:





On Apr 13, 3:00 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 11:36 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 12:19 pm, "Randy Poe" <poespam-t...@yahoo.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 11:57 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 10:32 am, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 8:57 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 7:51 am, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Apr 13, 2:00 am, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:


<mme...@cars3.uchicago.edu> wrote in messagenews:7ADTh.90$25.220@news.uchicago.edu...

In article <461ee083$0$11811$9a6e1...@news.newshosting.com>, "Greg Neill"

<gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> writes:

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote in message
news:1176421490.201417.260000@o5g2000hsb.googlegroups.com...


For a point mass, r x p and mr^2w are the same thing.


Only for a circular orbit, where r and p are
perpendicular.


Nah, where did you get it from. In the above, w is the angular
velocity, defined as w = (r x v)/|r|^2. So,


r x p = m*(r x v) = m*|r|^2*w. For any motion, not just circular.
This doesn't change the fact, of course, that angular momentum is
*defined* by r x p (not the most general definition, but it'll suffice
for here) while in the special case of point mass it *evaluates* to
mr^2w. "Defined as" and "evaluates to" is not the same thing.


You're right of course.


I thought that Peter was considering mr^2w to consist of
only scalar values (based upon the apparent level of his
arguments), and w in particular to be a scalar constant


But any idiot can look at animations illustratingKepler'ssecondlaw
and see that w is not a scalar constant. I believe that was preciselyKepler'spoint.


http://home.cvc.org/science/kepler.gifhttp://www.glenbrook.k12.il.us/...


as in the usual high school circular motion analysis.
This, I figured, was his bid to show that mr^2w is not
constant for an elliptical orbit since r varies. Perhaps
I jumped to that conclusion prematurely.- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


PD, I'll tell you why I say mr^2w is incorrect. I just saw a device,
which will soon be mass-produced, that shows the correct
expression for the angular momentum of a point mass is mrw, not mr^2w.
It is an elongated circular track, like a racetrack;
its length is twice its width. But it is a virtually frictionless air
track, with air walls at its semicircular ends. A relatively
large puck is released with a certain velocity on the middle of the
rectilinear part of the track. It moves practically with the
same velocity until it reaches the curved part of the track, where the
airflow from the wall changes the direction of its
velocity, without changing its magnitude; thus, the puck goes around
the track and keeps going with the same speed.
Clearly, the angular momentum of the puck, with respect to the center
of the track, when it is released on the middle
of the straight part of the track, is mrw, and when it reaches the
center of the curved part of the track is m2r(w/2), because
its speed has not changed. Thus, its angular momentum has been
conserved. If mr^2w were correct, angular momentum
would appear not to be conserved, but it is, because no forces act in
the direction of its motion. I hope this convinces you.


Peter


While this is amusing, Peter, you are off the mark on several fronts.
- The forces acting on the puck in this device are not *central*
forces. Angular momentum is conserved under a *central* force. There
is no guarantee that angular momentum is conserved if the forces
acting on a body are not central. There is no single point in this
device that the net force acting on the puck points toward. It simply
is not an example of a central force situation. In the case that you
are talking about, if you choose the center of the track to be your
axis, then when the puck hits the circular arc, the force that acts on
the puck does not point toward the center of the track -- it points at
the center of the circular arc, which is not in the same place.
- You say the angular momentum of the puck on the straight portion of
the track is mrw. This is simply wrong, and I have no idea why you
think it's correct. The *linear* momentum of the puck on the straight
portion of the track is p=mv, which (depending on how you are defining
w) is numerically equal to mrw. The *angular* momentum of the puck on
the straight portion of the track is L = r x p. Please do not confuse
the two or imagine that only one can apply at a time or that somehow
angular momentum *turns into* linear momentum. It doesn't.


PD- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


The forces acting on the puck when it is going around the circular
part of the track, are central to its motion at that time. The linear
(tangential) velocity of any object going around any reference point
is rw = v; so its linear (tangential) momentum is mrw = mv. I think
there is only one kind of momentum mv, which is a vector, because
velocity is a vector, regardless of how the object moves, and is
conserved if no forces in the in direction of its motion act on it. I
think it is funny that apparently nobody knows who defined angular
momentum as mr^2w. I would like to see someone deriving it from
scratch.


Regardless of what you think about the universe, in the actual
universe there is another quantity with the units of momentum called
angular momentum, defined as r x p, and which is conserved
in the absence of torque, e.g. under central forces. This is a simple
consequence of Newton's laws, and it is empirically verified.


You have seen the simple derivation of mr^w2 from r x p. Several
times.


Vector velocity is not "conserved" in the absence of forces in
the same direction. If there is no force in the direction of motion,
then no work is done and energy is conserved, speed is
conserved. But vector velocity is altered.


Every time you write you introduce more misconceptions, and
you are ignoring what every one else is writing. It is clear
you aren't here to get questions answered. I agree with others
that you are trolling.


- Randy- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


I understand only Newton's laws govern all motion, and torque is alien
to them, and unnecessary.


Nope. That is simply incorrect.


Velocity and momentum are true vector, but
torque and angular momentum are not.


I'm not sure what you mean by a "true vector". A vector is no more
"real" than a scalar, pseudoscalar, pseudovector, or a tensor.


Could you please explain what you
mean by
a central force?


It's easy enough to look up. I believe I did explain it in the
paragraph where I mentioned it.


Could you please clarify the following, I don't get
it:


Vector velocity is not "conserved" in the absence of forces in


the same direction.


I don't believe I uttered this sentence, so I decline to try to
clarify it.


If there is no force in the direction of motion,

then no work is done and energy is conserved, speed is
conserved. But vector velocity is altered.


Peter- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


PD, I think the postings are getting mixed-up. I understand no central
force is required for angular momentum to be conserved, if I remember
it right.


Peter


That's right, but it's irrelevant.
Now I'm waiting for you to come up with an incorrect conclusion from
the statement above...

PD- Hide quoted text -

- Show quoted text -

My incorrect conclusion is that since it is irrelevant whether there
is or not a central force for angular momentum to be conserved, then
the angular momentum of the puck in the device I described should be
conserved. What do you think should be the correct conclusion?
Peter
.
User: "Greg Neill"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 13 Apr 2007 09:10:44 PM
"Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> wrote in message
news:1176504661.287112.30600@b75g2000hsg.googlegroups.com...

My incorrect conclusion is that since it is irrelevant whether there
is or not a central force for angular momentum to be conserved, then
the angular momentum of the puck in the device I described should be
conserved. What do you think should be the correct conclusion?

The problem with non-central forces is that it implies
that there are torques in the system under investigation.
In other words, the system is not isolated, so angular
momentum can come and go and conservation appears to go
out the window.
To deal with this you must expand the system under
consideration to include whatever it is that's
supplying the unbalanced forces or torques. For your
racetrack example you'd need to include the racetrack
and Earth as a platform. Then the forces will be
balanced thanks to Newton's Third Law, the projectile
and the Earth will exchange momenta (linear and
angular), conservation will rule and you will be free
to choose any point of reference you want in an
inertial frame of reference to do your calculations.
Another way to deal with the problem that doesn't
involve expanding the system is to carefully choose
your origin(s) for the calculations so that the forces
observed are always central. In your racetrack
example choose an origin at the center of curvature of
one of the semi-circular ends. If you then calculate
m*r^2w for the projectile coming in on a straightaway,
going through the turn and back out along the other
straightaway, you'll find that the angular momentum
thus calculated is constant.
Change origins to the mirror image point at the other
end of the racetrack to duplicate the result for that
other end.
.
User: "Peter"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 09:18:34 AM
On Apr 13, 10:10 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote in message

news:1176504661.287112.30600@b75g2000hsg.googlegroups.com...

My incorrect conclusion is that since it is irrelevant whether there
is or not a central force for angular momentum to be conserved, then
the angular momentum of the puck in the device I described should be
conserved. What do you think should be the correct conclusion?


The problem with non-central forces is that it implies
that there are torques in the system under investigation.
In other words, the system is not isolated, so angular
momentum can come and go and conservation appears to go
out the window.

To deal with this you must expand the system under
consideration to include whatever it is that's
supplying the unbalanced forces or torques. For your
racetrack example you'd need to include the racetrack
and Earth as a platform. Then the forces will be
balanced thanks to Newton's ThirdLaw, the projectile
and the Earth will exchange momenta (linear and
angular), conservation will rule and you will be free
to choose any point of reference you want in an
inertial frame of reference to do your calculations.

Another way to deal with the problem that doesn't
involve expanding the system is to carefully choose
your origin(s) for the calculations so that the forces
observed are always central. In your racetrack
example choose an origin at the center of curvature of
one of the semi-circular ends. If you then calculate
m*r^2w for the projectile coming in on a straightaway,
going through the turn and back out along the other
straightaway, you'll find that the angular momentum
thus calculated is constant.

Change origins to the mirror image point at the other
end of the racetrack to duplicate the result for that
other end.

The force acting on the puck in the circular part of the track is
perpendicular to its motion; so, there is no torque.
Peter
.
User: "Greg Neill"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 11:50:35 AM
"Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> wrote in message
news:1176560314.932952.57460@y5g2000hsa.googlegroups.com...

On Apr 13, 10:10 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote in message

news:1176504661.287112.30600@b75g2000hsg.googlegroups.com...

My incorrect conclusion is that since it is irrelevant whether there
is or not a central force for angular momentum to be conserved, then
the angular momentum of the puck in the device I described should be
conserved. What do you think should be the correct conclusion?


The problem with non-central forces is that it implies
that there are torques in the system under investigation.
In other words, the system is not isolated, so angular
momentum can come and go and conservation appears to go
out the window.

To deal with this you must expand the system under
consideration to include whatever it is that's
supplying the unbalanced forces or torques. For your
racetrack example you'd need to include the racetrack
and Earth as a platform. Then the forces will be
balanced thanks to Newton's ThirdLaw, the projectile
and the Earth will exchange momenta (linear and
angular), conservation will rule and you will be free
to choose any point of reference you want in an
inertial frame of reference to do your calculations.

Another way to deal with the problem that doesn't
involve expanding the system is to carefully choose
your origin(s) for the calculations so that the forces
observed are always central. In your racetrack
example choose an origin at the center of curvature of
one of the semi-circular ends. If you then calculate
m*r^2w for the projectile coming in on a straightaway,
going through the turn and back out along the other
straightaway, you'll find that the angular momentum
thus calculated is constant.

Change origins to the mirror image point at the other
end of the racetrack to duplicate the result for that
other end.


The force acting on the puck in the circular part of the track is
perpendicular to its motion; so, there is no torque.

There is a torque when it's viewed from anywhere but
the center of rotation; the torque is calculated
considering the chosen origin as the center of rotation.
.
User: "Peter"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 12:11:20 PM
On Apr 14, 12:50 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote in message

news:1176560314.932952.57460@y5g2000hsa.googlegroups.com...





On Apr 13, 10:10 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote in message


news:1176504661.287112.30600@b75g2000hsg.googlegroups.com...


My incorrect conclusion is that since it is irrelevant whether there
is or not a central force for angular momentum to be conserved, then
the angular momentum of the puck in the device I described should be
conserved. What do you think should be the correct conclusion?


The problem with non-central forces is that it implies
that there are torques in the system under investigation.
In other words, the system is not isolated, so angular
momentum can come and go and conservation appears to go
out the window.


To deal with this you must expand the system under
consideration to include whatever it is that's
supplying the unbalanced forces or torques. For your
racetrack example you'd need to include the racetrack
and Earth as a platform. Then the forces will be
balanced thanks to Newton's ThirdLaw, the projectile
and the Earth will exchange momenta (linear and
angular), conservation will rule and you will be free
to choose any point of reference you want in an
inertial frame of reference to do your calculations.


Another way to deal with the problem that doesn't
involve expanding the system is to carefully choose
your origin(s) for the calculations so that the forces
observed are always central. In your racetrack
example choose an origin at the center of curvature of
one of the semi-circular ends. If you then calculate
m*r^2w for the projectile coming in on a straightaway,
going through the turn and back out along the other
straightaway, you'll find that the angular momentum
thus calculated is constant.


Change origins to the mirror image point at the other
end of the racetrack to duplicate the result for that
other end.


The force acting on the puck in the circular part of the track is
perpendicular to its motion; so, there is no torque.


There is a torque when it's viewed from anywhere but
the center of rotation; the torque is calculated
considering the chosen origin as the center of rotation.- Hide quoted text -

- Show quoted text -

The torque may be calculated anyhow, but the fact is that mrw is
conserved.
Peter
.
User: "Greg Neill"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 12:29:11 PM
"Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> wrote in message
news:1176570680.130725.18410@o5g2000hsb.googlegroups.com...

On Apr 14, 12:50 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

There is a torque when it's viewed from anywhere but
the center of rotation; the torque is calculated
considering the chosen origin as the center of rotation.


The torque may be calculated anyhow, but the fact is that mrw is
conserved.

That's the linear momentum. It's magnitude is conserved
because the speed is constant. Kinetic energy is also
constant in your example. That is, (1/2)*m*v^2 .
Note that momentum is considered to be a vector. Since
the velocity changes direction around the track, mrw
treated as a vector expression ( m*(r x w) ) will not be
a constant over the whole track.
.
User: ""

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 05:19:29 PM
In article <1176586599.745388.92500@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>, "Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> writes:

On Apr 14, 1:29 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote in message

news:1176570680.130725.18410@o5g2000hsb.googlegroups.com...

On Apr 14, 12:50 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

There is a torque when it's viewed from anywhere but
the center of rotation; the torque is calculated
considering the chosen origin as the center of rotation.


The torque may be calculated anyhow, but the fact is that mrw is
conserved.


That's the linear momentum. It's magnitude is conserved
because the speed is constant. Kinetic energy is also
constant in your example. That is, (1/2)*m*v^2 .

Note that momentum is considered to be a vector. Since
the velocity changes direction around the track, mrw
treated as a vector expression ( m*(r x w) ) will not be
a constant over the whole track.


Yes, momentum is a vector. mrw is a vector, because r is a vector; w
is not a vector, it is an angular displacement, which is not a vector,
over time.

Quite the opposite, in fact, and this explains part of your confusion
(assuming it is but confusion).
In the expression above, r is *not* a vector. It is the absolute
value of the location vector, properly written as |r|. w, on the
other hand, *is* a vector. It is not, as you blightly assume,
velocity divided by r (properly, by |r|). It is a vector with a
magnitude equal to the value of the velocity component *transverse* to
r, divided by |r|, and a direction orthogonal to both r and v. In
proper notation you've
w = (r x v)/|r|^2
where the "x" stands for vector product (and if you don't know what it
is, you'll better find out). All this *has* already been explained in
this thread. Should be noted that w depends not just on the velocity
of the particle but on the reference center from which r is measured.
Thus, for a particle moving at constant speed along a circular arc,
m|r|w is constant when the center of the circle is used as reference,
bot not for any other reference.
There is an ongoing confusion (perhaps) here between vector and scalar
quantities. Perhaps it is brought in from the special case of
circular orbits where these issues can be ignored (up to a point).
Then again, perhaps not.
Mati Meron | "When you argue with a fool,
meron@cars.uchicago.edu | chances are he is doing just the same"
.

User: "Peter"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 04:36:39 PM
On Apr 14, 1:29 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote in message

news:1176570680.130725.18410@o5g2000hsb.googlegroups.com...

On Apr 14, 12:50 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

There is a torque when it's viewed from anywhere but
the center of rotation; the torque is calculated
considering the chosen origin as the center of rotation.


The torque may be calculated anyhow, but the fact is that mrw is
conserved.


That's the linear momentum. It's magnitude is conserved
because the speed is constant. Kinetic energy is also
constant in your example. That is, (1/2)*m*v^2 .

Note that momentum is considered to be a vector. Since
the velocity changes direction around the track, mrw
treated as a vector expression ( m*(r x w) ) will not be
a constant over the whole track.

Yes, momentum is a vector. mrw is a vector, because r is a vector; w
is not a vector, it is an angular displacement, which is not a vector,
over time.
Peter
.
User: "Greg Neill"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 04:55:08 PM
"Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> wrote in message
news:1176586599.745388.92500@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com...

On Apr 14, 1:29 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote in message

news:1176570680.130725.18410@o5g2000hsb.googlegroups.com...

On Apr 14, 12:50 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

There is a torque when it's viewed from anywhere but
the center of rotation; the torque is calculated
considering the chosen origin as the center of rotation.


The torque may be calculated anyhow, but the fact is that mrw is
conserved.


That's the linear momentum. It's magnitude is conserved
because the speed is constant. Kinetic energy is also
constant in your example. That is, (1/2)*m*v^2 .

Note that momentum is considered to be a vector. Since
the velocity changes direction around the track, mrw
treated as a vector expression ( m*(r x w) ) will not be
a constant over the whole track.


Yes, momentum is a vector. mrw is a vector, because r is a vector; w
is not a vector, it is an angular displacement, which is not a vector,
over time.

Angular velocity is a vector (pseudovector). But
regardless of that, r is a vector and clearly
varies over the orbit of the puck. So the linear
momentum is not constant, even if its magnitude is.
.
User: "Peter"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 05:43:15 PM
On Apr 14, 5:55 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote in message

news:1176586599.745388.92500@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com...





On Apr 14, 1:29 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote in message


news:1176570680.130725.18410@o5g2000hsb.googlegroups.com...


On Apr 14, 12:50 pm, "Greg Neill" <gneill...@VEsympatico.ca> wrote:

There is a torque when it's viewed from anywhere but
the center of rotation; the torque is calculated
considering the chosen origin as the center of rotation.


The torque may be calculated anyhow, but the fact is that mrw is
conserved.


That's the linear momentum. It's magnitude is conserved
because the speed is constant. Kinetic energy is also
constant in your example. That is, (1/2)*m*v^2 .


Note that momentum is considered to be a vector. Since
the velocity changes direction around the track, mrw
treated as a vector expression ( m*(r x w) ) will not be
a constant over the whole track.


Yes, momentum is a vector. mrw is a vector, because r is a vector; w
is not a vector, it is an angular displacement, which is not a vector,
over time.


Angular velocity is a vector (pseudovector). But
regardless of that, r is a vector and clearly
varies over the orbit of the puck. So the linear
momentum is not constant, even if its magnitude is.- Hide quoted text -

- Show quoted text -

Of course the linear momentum is not constant, except in linear
motion.
Peter
.


User: "Phineas T Puddleduck"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 04:42:56 PM
In article <1176586599.745388.92500@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,
"Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> wrote:

Note that momentum is considered to be a vector. Since
the velocity changes direction around the track, mrw
treated as a vector expression ( m*(r x w) ) will not be
a constant over the whole track.


Yes, momentum is a vector. mrw is a vector, because r is a vector; w
is not a vector, it is an angular displacement, which is not a vector,
over time.

Peter

Nope
Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product
--
Got mail? I did ;-) Three and counting.
Got proof? Not yet, still waiting.
.
User: "Phineas T Puddleduck"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 04:46:10 PM
In article <phineaspuddleduck-8DE2E9.22425614042007@news.octanews.com>,
Phineas T Puddleduck <phineaspuddleduck@gmail.com> wrote:

In article <1176586599.745388.92500@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,
"Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> wrote:

Note that momentum is considered to be a vector. Since
the velocity changes direction around the track, mrw
treated as a vector expression ( m*(r x w) ) will not be
a constant over the whole track.


Yes, momentum is a vector. mrw is a vector, because r is a vector; w
is not a vector, it is an angular displacement, which is not a vector,
over time.

Peter



Nope

Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product

(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it still uses the
cross product)
--
Got mail? I did ;-) Three and counting.
Got proof? Not yet, still waiting.
.
User: "John \C"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 04:57:01 PM
"Phineas T Puddleduck" <phineaspuddleduck@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:phineaspuddleduck-1AD316.22461014042007@news.octanews.com...

In article <phineaspuddleduck-8DE2E9.22425614042007@news.octanews.com>,
Phineas T Puddleduck <phineaspuddleduck@gmail.com> wrote:

In article <1176586599.745388.92500@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,
"Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> wrote:

Note that momentum is considered to be a vector. Since
the velocity changes direction around the track, mrw
treated as a vector expression ( m*(r x w) ) will not be
a constant over the whole track.


Yes, momentum is a vector. mrw is a vector, because r is a vector; w
is not a vector, it is an angular displacement, which is not a vector,
over time.

Peter



Nope

Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product



(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it still uses the
cross product)

Pseudovector from a pseudoscientist (High School Drop-out) Daffy Duck!
HJ
.

User: "Peter"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 05:36:49 PM
On Apr 14, 5:46 pm, Phineas T Puddleduck <phineaspuddled...@gmail.com>
wrote:

In article <phineaspuddleduck-8DE2E9.22425614042...@news.octanews.com>,
Phineas T Puddleduck <phineaspuddled...@gmail.com> wrote:





In article <1176586599.745388.92...@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,
"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


Note that momentum is considered to be a vector. Since
the velocity changes direction around the track, mrw
treated as a vector expression ( m*(r x w) ) will not be
a constant over the whole track.


Yes, momentum is a vector. mrw is a vector, because r is a vector; w
is not a vector, it is an angular displacement, which is not a vector,
over time.


Peter


Nope


Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product


(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it still uses the
cross product)

- Show quoted text -

The cross product is also a pseudovector.
Peter
.
User: "Greg Neill"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 06:49:33 PM
"Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> wrote in message
news:1176590209.784235.154410@n59g2000hsh.googlegroups.com...

The cross product is also a pseudovector.

Momentum is a vector. I don't think you're
clear on the concept of a psuedovector and
how they work in vector expressions.
.

User: "Phineas T Puddleduck"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 05:54:27 PM
In article <1176590209.784235.154410@n59g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,
"Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> wrote:

Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product


(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it still uses the
cross product)

- Show quoted text -


The cross product is also a pseudovector.

Peter

Are you trolling, or deliberately obtuse?
--
Got mail? I did ;-) Three and counting.
Got proof? Not yet, still waiting.
.
User: "Peter"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 06:42:08 PM
On Apr 14, 6:54 pm, Phineas T Puddleduck <phineaspuddled...@gmail.com>
wrote:

In article <1176590209.784235.154...@n59g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,

"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:

Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product


(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it still uses the
cross product)


- Show quoted text -


The cross product is also a pseudovector.


Peter


Are you trolling, or deliberately obtuse?

You tell that to Douglas C. Giancoli (Physics for Scientists and
Engineers, 2nd ed., page 220).
Peter
.
User: "Phineas T Puddleduck"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 06:48:07 PM
In article <1176594128.515063.87860@n76g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,
"Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> wrote:

You tell that to Douglas C. Giancoli (Physics for Scientists and
Engineers, 2nd ed., page 220).

Peter

I'm talking about your inability to grasp simple concepts, or keep to
one concept at once. Nice attempt at a side-step.
--
Got mail? I did ;-) Three and counting.
Got proof? Not yet, still waiting.
.
User: "John \C"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 07:07:33 PM
"Phineas T Puddleduck" <phineaspuddleduck@gmail.com> wrote in message

I'm talking about your inability to grasp simple concepts, or keep to
one concept at once. Nice attempt at a side-step.

Go "get em" Daffy, use more 50-cent words out of that Algebra II book you
got at the garage sale last week.
HJ
.


User: "PD"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 14 Apr 2007 07:48:06 PM
On Apr 14, 6:42 pm, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:

On Apr 14, 6:54 pm, Phineas T Puddleduck <phineaspuddled...@gmail.com>
wrote:

In article <1176590209.784235.154...@n59g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,


"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:

Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product


(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it still uses the
cross product)


- Show quoted text -


The cross product is also a pseudovector.


Peter


Are you trolling, or deliberately obtuse?


You tell that to Douglas C. Giancoli (Physics for Scientists and
Engineers, 2nd ed., page 220).

Peter

Ah, well, at least you've moved up to an (old) college text. You'll
note that the terms "pseudoscalar" and "pseudovector" are not listed
in that freshman text. What does that tell you?
PD
.
User: "Peter"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 16 Apr 2007 08:06:41 AM
On Apr 14, 8:48 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:

On Apr 14, 6:42 pm, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:





On Apr 14, 6:54 pm, Phineas T Puddleduck <phineaspuddled...@gmail.com>
wrote:


In article <1176590209.784235.154...@n59g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,


"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:

Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product


(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it still uses the
cross product)


- Show quoted text -


The cross product is also a pseudovector.


Peter


Are you trolling, or deliberately obtuse?


You tell that to Douglas C. Giancoli (Physics for Scientists and
Engineers, 2nd ed., page 220).


Peter


Ah, well, at least you've moved up to an (old) college text. You'll
note that the terms "pseudoscalar" and "pseudovector" are not listed
in that freshman text. What does that tell you?

PD- Hide quoted text -

- Show quoted text -

Giancoli does talk about pseudovectors.
Peter
.
User: "PD"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 16 Apr 2007 02:41:39 PM
On Apr 16, 8:06 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:

On Apr 14, 8:48 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:





On Apr 14, 6:42 pm, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 6:54 pm, Phineas T Puddleduck <phineaspuddled...@gmail.com>
wrote:


In article <1176590209.784235.154...@n59g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,


"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:

Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product


(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it still uses the
cross product)


- Show quoted text -


The cross product is also a pseudovector.


Peter


Are you trolling, or deliberately obtuse?


You tell that to Douglas C. Giancoli (Physics for Scientists and
Engineers, 2nd ed., page 220).


Peter


Ah, well, at least you've moved up to an (old) college text. You'll
note that the terms "pseudoscalar" and "pseudovector" are not listed
in that freshman text. What does that tell you?


PD- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


Giancoli does talk about pseudovectors.

Peter

My error. I was looking at a different edition. Now, you will note
that Giancoli also tells you how a "pseudovector" is defined by its
properties under transformation. You'll note that it is not
distinguished as being a "false" or "not real" vector.
PD
.
User: ""

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 16 Apr 2007 05:49:23 PM
In article <1176754884.114148.59510@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>, "Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> writes:

On Apr 16, 3:41 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:

On Apr 16, 8:06 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:





On Apr 14, 8:48 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 6:42 pm, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 6:54 pm, Phineas T Puddleduck <phineaspuddled...@gmail.com>
wrote:


In article <1176590209.784235.154...@n59g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,


"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:

Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product


(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it still uses the
cross product)


- Show quoted text -


The cross product is also a pseudovector.


Peter


Are you trolling, or deliberately obtuse?


You tell that to Douglas C. Giancoli (Physics for Scientists and
Engineers, 2nd ed., page 220).


Peter


Ah, well, at least you've moved up to an (old) college text. You'll
note that the terms "pseudoscalar" and "pseudovector" are not listed
in that freshman text. What does that tell you?


PD- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


Giancoli does talk about pseudovectors.


Peter


My error. I was looking at a different edition. Now, you will note
that Giancoli also tells you how a "pseudovector" is defined by its
properties under transformation. You'll note that it is not
distinguished as being a "false" or "not real" vector.

PD- Hide quoted text -

- Show quoted text -


I am not sure I understand what you mean. But I know that if something
is not a true vector, it is just not a vector. You know why angular
displacements are not vectors: they fail the commutative law for
addition.

Sigh. A clear waste of time.
Mati Meron | "When you argue with a fool,
meron@cars.uchicago.edu | chances are he is doing just the same"
.
User: "Androcles"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 16 Apr 2007 05:57:38 PM
<mmeron@cars3.uchicago.edu> wrote in message =
news:T3TUh.103$25.58@news.uchicago.edu...

In article <1176754884.114148.59510@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>, =

"Peter" <Poakfield@msn.com> writes:

On Apr 16, 3:41 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:

On Apr 16, 8:06 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:





On Apr 14, 8:48 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 6:42 pm, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 6:54 pm, Phineas T Puddleduck =

<phineaspuddled...@gmail.com>

wrote:


In article =

<1176590209.784235.154...@n59g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,


"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:

Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross =

product


(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it =

still uses the

cross product)


- Show quoted text -


The cross product is also a pseudovector.


Peter


Are you trolling, or deliberately obtuse?


You tell that to Douglas C. Giancoli (Physics for Scientists =

and

Engineers, 2nd ed., page 220).


Peter


Ah, well, at least you've moved up to an (old) college text. =

You'll

note that the terms "pseudoscalar" and "pseudovector" are not =

listed

in that freshman text. What does that tell you?


PD- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


Giancoli does talk about pseudovectors.


Peter


My error. I was looking at a different edition. Now, you will note
that Giancoli also tells you how a "pseudovector" is defined by its
properties under transformation. You'll note that it is not
distinguished as being a "false" or "not real" vector.

PD- Hide quoted text -

- Show quoted text -


I am not sure I understand what you mean. But I know that if something
is not a true vector, it is just not a vector. You know why angular
displacements are not vectors: they fail the commutative law for
addition.

Sigh. A clear waste of time.
=20
Mati Meron | "When you argue with a fool,
meron@cars.uchicago.edu | chances are he is doing just the =

same"
You sure are.
"When you agree with a fool, the guarantee is he is doing just the =
same".
.

User: ""

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 16 Apr 2007 09:09:00 PM
In article <1176769985.828987.58270@w1g2000hsg.googlegroups.com>, "PD" <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> writes:

On Apr 16, 5:49 pm,

wrote:

In article <1176754884.114148.59...@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> writes:

On Apr 16, 3:41 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:

On Apr 16, 8:06 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 8:48 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 6:42 pm, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 6:54 pm, Phineas T Puddleduck <phineaspuddled...@gmail.com>
wrote:


In article <1176590209.784235.154...@n59g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,


"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:

Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product


(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it still uses the
cross product)


- Show quoted text -


The cross product is also a pseudovector.


Peter


Are you trolling, or deliberately obtuse?


You tell that to Douglas C. Giancoli (Physics for Scientists and
Engineers, 2nd ed., page 220).


Peter


Ah, well, at least you've moved up to an (old) college text. You'll
note that the terms "pseudoscalar" and "pseudovector" are not listed
in that freshman text. What does that tell you?


PD- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


Giancoli does talk about pseudovectors.


Peter


My error. I was looking at a different edition. Now, you will note
that Giancoli also tells you how a "pseudovector" is defined by its
properties under transformation. You'll note that it is not
distinguished as being a "false" or "not real" vector.


PD- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


I am not sure I understand what you mean. But I know that if something
is not a true vector, it is just not a vector. You know why angular
displacements are not vectors: they fail the commutative law for
addition.


Sigh. A clear waste of time.


Well, to be fair, this is the risk of introductory to sub-introductory
level material of the sort that Peter is trying to wrestle with.
Material like that has to skirt (at least) two hazards:
- it gives the reader the impression that he understands more than he
really does;
- it uses some jargon flippantly and without fully explaining the
meaning of those terms, leaving the reader to (usually wrongly) fill
in the gaps.
Writers of material like that are playing with fire for a reason. They
have to engage the interest of the novice, and they can't subject the
casual reader to the full-blown exposition that would produce a better
understanding.

Yes, very true.

The problem is that, while most novices know they're getting only part
of the picture, folks like Peter want to be able to work with the
introductory material as sufficient for full understanding, and it's
tremendously frustrating to learn that this just isn't possible.

Well, that's extending lots of "benefit of the doubt" to Peter. Yes,
it is no utterly impossible that he's just confused and trying to
reach some understanding. Not impossible, but highly unlikely. Too
many of the telltale signs of a troll are there.
Mati Meron | "When you argue with a fool,
meron@cars.uchicago.edu | chances are he is doing just the same"
.
User: ""

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 16 Apr 2007 11:21:34 PM
In article <1176779703.715199.274320@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>, PD <TheDraperFamily@gmail.com> writes:

On Apr 16, 9:09 pm,

wrote:

In article <1176769985.828987.58...@w1g2000hsg.googlegroups.com>, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> writes:



On Apr 16, 5:49 pm,

wrote:

In article <1176754884.114148.59...@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> writes:

On Apr 16, 3:41 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:

On Apr 16, 8:06 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 8:48 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 6:42 pm, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 6:54 pm, Phineas T Puddleduck <phineaspuddled...@gmail.com>
wrote:


In article <1176590209.784235.154...@n59g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,


"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:

Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product


(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it still uses the
cross product)


- Show quoted text -


The cross product is also a pseudovector.


Peter


Are you trolling, or deliberately obtuse?


You tell that to Douglas C. Giancoli (Physics for Scientists and
Engineers, 2nd ed., page 220).


Peter


Ah, well, at least you've moved up to an (old) college text. You'll
note that the terms "pseudoscalar" and "pseudovector" are not listed
in that freshman text. What does that tell you?


PD- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


Giancoli does talk about pseudovectors.


Peter


My error. I was looking at a different edition. Now, you will note
that Giancoli also tells you how a "pseudovector" is defined by its
properties under transformation. You'll note that it is not
distinguished as being a "false" or "not real" vector.


PD- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


I am not sure I understand what you mean. But I know that if something
is not a true vector, it is just not a vector. You know why angular
displacements are not vectors: they fail the commutative law for
addition.


Sigh. A clear waste of time.


Well, to be fair, this is the risk of introductory to sub-introductory
level material of the sort that Peter is trying to wrestle with.
Material like that has to skirt (at least) two hazards:
- it gives the reader the impression that he understands more than he
really does;
- it uses some jargon flippantly and without fully explaining the
meaning of those terms, leaving the reader to (usually wrongly) fill
in the gaps.
Writers of material like that are playing with fire for a reason. They
have to engage the interest of the novice, and they can't subject the
casual reader to the full-blown exposition that would produce a better
understanding.


Yes, very true.

The problem is that, while most novices know they're getting only part
of the picture, folks like Peter want to be able to work with the
introductory material as sufficient for full understanding, and it's
tremendously frustrating to learn that this just isn't possible.


Well, that's extending lots of "benefit of the doubt" to Peter. Yes,
it is no utterly impossible that he's just confused and trying to
reach some understanding. Not impossible, but highly unlikely. Too
many of the telltale signs of a troll are there.


Maybe you're right. I've also seen people on this group who say, "But
it says RIGHT HERE in my Archie and Jughead Discuss Physics book that
[something inane and misleading]. Why would the authors of the Archie
and Jughead Discuss Physics say something deliberating inane and
misleading?"

Some of these people REALLY DO rest their hopes of understanding
physics on material they read on the web or in coffee-table books or
in Newsweek magazine. Porat or Seto, for example, maintains rigidly
that the information he finds on the web is better and more reliable
than the material in journals or textbooks. Sometimes it's because
they've taken a stab at studying a real book but their skills are too
rusty or undeveloped for it to be a useful to them. And so they go
back to what they THINK they understand, and extrapolate to the point
of utter confusion.

Yes, a common (unfortunately) sight. Most of our cranks are in these
category. Note, though, that cranks tend to stake a position and hold
to it, ignoring all argument and evidence to the contrary. Trolls, on
the other hand, tend to be slippery. With each post they introduce a
new tangent till few posts down the line you find yourself arguing
about something hardly related to the original topic.
Mati Meron | "When you argue with a fool,
meron@cars.uchicago.edu | chances are he is doing just the same"
.

User: "PD"

Title: Re: Question about Kepler's second law 16 Apr 2007 10:15:03 PM
On Apr 16, 9:09 pm,
wrote:

In article <1176769985.828987.58...@w1g2000hsg.googlegroups.com>, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> writes:



On Apr 16, 5:49 pm,

wrote:

In article <1176754884.114148.59...@q75g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> writes:

On Apr 16, 3:41 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:

On Apr 16, 8:06 am, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 8:48 pm, "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 6:42 pm, "Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:


On Apr 14, 6:54 pm, Phineas T Puddleduck <phineaspuddled...@gmail.com>
wrote:


In article <1176590209.784235.154...@n59g2000hsh.googlegroups.com>,


"Peter" <Poakfi...@msn.com> wrote:

Angular velocity is a vector too, hence the cross product


(Point of contention - -actually a pseudovector, but it still uses the
cross product)


- Show quoted text -


The cross product is also a pseudovector.


Peter


Are you trolling, or deliberately obtuse?


You tell that to Douglas C. Giancoli (Physics for Scientists and
Engineers, 2nd ed., page 220).


Peter


Ah, well, at least you've moved up to an (old) college text. You'll
note that the terms "pseudoscalar" and "pseudovector" are not listed
in that freshman text. What does that tell you?


PD- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


Giancoli does talk about pseudovectors.


Peter


My error. I was looking at a different edition. Now, you will note
that Giancoli also tells you how a "pseudovector" is defined by its
properties under transformation. You'll note that it is not
distinguished as being a "false" or "not real" vector.


PD- Hide quoted text -


- Show quoted text -


I am not sure I understand what you mean. But I know that if something
is not a true vector, it is just not a vector. You know why angular
displacements are not vectors: they fail the commutative law for
addition.


Sigh. A clear waste of time.


Well, to be fair, this is the risk of introductory to sub-introductory
level material of the sort that Peter is trying to wrestle with.
Material like that has to skirt (at least) two hazards:
- it gives the reader the impression that he understands more than he
really does;
- it uses some jargon flippantly and without full