| Topic: |
Science > Physics |
| User: |
"tony fleming" |
| Date: |
30 May 2006 09:40:05 PM |
| Object: |
SFT and Nuclear Physics |
SFT has been accepted for presentation at NN2006. "IX International
Conference on Nucleus-Nucleus Collisions", NN2006, to be held in Rio de
Janeiro, August 28-September 1, 2006.
NN2006 is the ninth meeting of a traditional series (last two hold in
Strasbourg and Moscow) under the auspices of IUPAP.
Copies of the abstracts
"Composite EM, weak and strong nuclear self-field theory" and
"A sono-EM mechanism for fusion engineering"
can be found at
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf and
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming2.pdf
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| User: "Eric Gisse" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
30 May 2006 09:59:21 PM |
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tony fleming wrote:
SFT has been accepted for presentation at NN2006. "IX International
Conference on Nucleus-Nucleus Collisions", NN2006, to be held in Rio de
Janeiro, August 28-September 1, 2006.
NN2006 is the ninth meeting of a traditional series (last two hold in
Strasbourg and Moscow) under the auspices of IUPAP.
Copies of the abstracts
"Composite EM, weak and strong nuclear self-field theory" and
"A sono-EM mechanism for fusion engineering"
can be found at
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf and
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming2.pdf
Fun!
Be sure to record the presentation so those not fortunate enough to
attend in person can see it.
.
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| User: "Minus XVII" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
30 May 2006 11:23:12 PM |
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"nonzeromassphoton" ist verboten;
just ask herr doktor-professor Einstein!
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf and
--It takes at least two to polka!
http://www.lsbu.ac.uk/water/strand.html
http://www.21stcenturysciencetech.com/2006_articles/Keplerian.W05.pdf
http://larouchepub.com/other/2006/3315greenland_ice.html
http://members.tripod.com/~american_almanac
http://wlym.com/pdf/iclc/walterlippman.pdf
http://www.benfranklinbooks.com/
http://tarpley.net/bush12.htm
http://www.wlym.com/pdf/iclc/howthenation.pdf
http://larouchepub.com/other/2003/3048iraq_58_const.html
http://www.rand.org/publications/randreview/issues/rr.12.00/
http://www.rwgrayprojects.com/synergetics/plates/figs/plate01.html
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| User: "tony fleming" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
01 Jun 2006 05:23:12 PM |
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Minus XVII wrote:
"nonzeromassphoton" ist verboten;
just ask herr doktor-professor Einstein!
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf and
--It takes at least two to polka!
http://www.lsbu.ac.uk/water/strand.html
http://www.21stcenturysciencetech.com/2006_articles/Keplerian.W05.pdf
http://larouchepub.com/other/2006/3315greenland_ice.html
http://members.tripod.com/~american_almanac
http://wlym.com/pdf/iclc/walterlippman.pdf
http://www.benfranklinbooks.com/
http://tarpley.net/bush12.htm
http://www.wlym.com/pdf/iclc/howthenation.pdf
http://larouchepub.com/other/2003/3048iraq_58_const.html
http://www.rand.org/publications/randreview/issues/rr.12.00/
http://www.rwgrayprojects.com/synergetics/plates/figs/plate01.html
i've not looked at all these links, Minus, but some of them are
fascinating. especially the layers of hydration!! i'm reminded of the
DNA spine of hydration.
regards Tony
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| User: "" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
30 May 2006 11:05:15 PM |
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Eric Gisse wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
SFT has been accepted for presentation at NN2006. "IX International
Conference on Nucleus-Nucleus Collisions", NN2006, to be held in Rio de
Janeiro, August 28-September 1, 2006.
NN2006 is the ninth meeting of a traditional series (last two hold in
Strasbourg and Moscow) under the auspices of IUPAP.
Copies of the abstracts
"Composite EM, weak and strong nuclear self-field theory" and
"A sono-EM mechanism for fusion engineering"
can be found at
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf and
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming2.pdf
Fun!
Be sure to record the presentation so those not fortunate enough to
attend in person can see it.
Is self-field theory akin to masturbation?
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| User: "Dr Photon" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
31 May 2006 06:46:19 AM |
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tony fleming wrote:
SFT has been accepted for presentation at NN2006. "IX International
Conference on Nucleus-Nucleus Collisions", NN2006, to be held in Rio de
Janeiro, August 28-September 1, 2006.
NN2006 is the ninth meeting of a traditional series (last two hold in
Strasbourg and Moscow) under the auspices of IUPAP.
Copies of the abstracts
"Composite EM, weak and strong nuclear self-field theory" and
"A sono-EM mechanism for fusion engineering"
can be found at
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf and
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming2.pdf
I'm still wondering what you did for plain hydrogen.
For example, you got Maxwell's eqns wrong in
eqns 1a-1d of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
and eqns 1.7 to 1.10 of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
Considering
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
you have
div(E) = 4 pi q / Vol 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0 dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) - eps0 dE/dt = pi q vel / Area 1d
1a is in cgs units, whereas 1c and 1d are in SI units. Rewriting 1a in
SI units would give
div(E) = q / (eps0 Vol)
which is numerically different to your eqn by a factor of
4 pi / eps0 = 1.4 x 10^12
which is a factor of over a trillion.
Even worse, 1d LHS and RHS are dimensionally incompatible, thus making
a mockery of the equals sign.
This mistake is carried through to eqns 10, 11 and 13 which are
obviously dimensionally incorrect, although eqn 14 magically becomes
dimensionally correct again. What a mess!
Even worse (how could it get any worse you might think? and not to
mention the mixed partial and full derivative signs) in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
you write relative permeability and permittivity, which is total
nonsense.
I also see in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf
you quote your presentation at EHE06, which you didn't present. Did any
of your colleagues present this talk, if so how did it go?
br
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| User: "tony fleming" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
31 May 2006 06:12:25 PM |
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Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
SFT has been accepted for presentation at NN2006. "IX International
Conference on Nucleus-Nucleus Collisions", NN2006, to be held in Rio de
Janeiro, August 28-September 1, 2006.
NN2006 is the ninth meeting of a traditional series (last two hold in
Strasbourg and Moscow) under the auspices of IUPAP.
Copies of the abstracts
"Composite EM, weak and strong nuclear self-field theory" and
"A sono-EM mechanism for fusion engineering"
can be found at
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf and
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming2.pdf
I'm still wondering what you did for plain hydrogen.
For example, you got Maxwell's eqns wrong in
eqns 1a-1d of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
and eqns 1.7 to 1.10 of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
Considering
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
you have
div(E) = 4 pi q / Vol 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0 dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) - eps0 dE/dt = pi q vel / Area 1d
1a is in cgs units, whereas 1c and 1d are in SI units. Rewriting 1a in
SI units would give
div(E) = q / (eps0 Vol)
which is numerically different to your eqn by a factor of
4 pi / eps0 = 1.4 x 10^12
which is a factor of over a trillion.
Even worse, 1d LHS and RHS are dimensionally incompatible, thus making
a mockery of the equals sign.
This mistake is carried through to eqns 10, 11 and 13 which are
obviously dimensionally incorrect, although eqn 14 magically becomes
dimensionally correct again. What a mess!
Even worse (how could it get any worse you might think? and not to
mention the mixed partial and full derivative signs) in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
you write relative permeability and permittivity, which is total
nonsense.
I also see in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf
you quote your presentation at EHE06, which you didn't present. Did any
of your colleagues present this talk, if so how did it go?
br
Brian good to see you're actually reading some SFT for a change instead
of just catcalling from the wings, although I'm not sure how deep you
are reading apart from trawling for errors, and for taht I am grateful;
J.D. Jackson gives the equations (p238) as
div(D) = 4 pi rho 1a
div(B) = 0 1b
curl(E) + dB/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) = J + dD/dt 1d
With the constitutive parameters D=eps0*E and B=mu0*H we get
eps0div(E) = 4 pi rho 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) = J + eps0dE/dt 1d
So now its a simple matter of equating charge density and current
density for a moving charge; for rho, we require charge per volume,
while for J we need the current per area. We need to note as per
footnote (iv)
"Where a nebular current density is used in (1d), the factor 4p
comes about from an application of Green's theorem leading to a
surface over the volume enclosed by the charge density. For the case of
discrete charges, the factor p represents the area enclosed by the
moving charge-point."
Jackson goes on to discuss the units and states they are SI, not cgs,
but he does give the equations in cgs units in his appendix
So no cgs here at all.
As to the dimensionality of equations 10, 13 and 14 I think you're
right; this is a typo, there should be a another factor by v, the
velocity, since we are, as in Eqn 5 taking a time derivative of both
LHS and RHS, so velocity on the RHS should be of order 2, not 1. So 10
11 and 13 should be as in the corrected eqn 10 below.
c^2/(2*pi)*q/r_c^4 = 1/(2*s_c)*q*omega^2*r_c^2
I will add an erratum when I can, to correct this error in the Physics
Essays paper. I may be able to correct it before it is published as the
printers are apparently running about a year behind real time. If I can
I will try to insert a note about the error regardless, ok?
Note that this typo does not alter the results or conclusions of the
self-field theory which is that Maxwell's equations can be solved
analytically and provide an extension to Bohr's theory and insights
into numerous areas of physics and biophysics.
Brian go and learn about relative permittivity and permeability, not
everything happens in free space you know, especially what's
happening in the nucleus where energy density rises as a function of
radial distance from the atom inwards; this function is NOT singular
because the quarks reside in a donut region, while the weak electron
moves inside this donut; the whole nucleus has a spherical symmetry and
hence so to does the relative permittivity and permeability.
As to the equations available in the proceedings of EHE06 as shown in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf, these equations,
apart from SFT's equations, have all been taken from the literature,
and are stated as being historical in nature rather than a depiction of
the current view of these equations.
Regards Tony
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| User: "tony fleming" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
31 May 2006 07:02:50 PM |
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tony fleming wrote:
As to the dimensionality of equations 10, 13 and 14 I think you're
right; this is a typo, there should be a another factor by v, the
velocity, since we are, as in Eqn 5 taking a time derivative of both
LHS and RHS, so velocity on the RHS should be of order 2, not 1. So 10
11 and 13 should be as in the corrected eqn 10 below.
c^2/(2*pi)*q/r_c^4 = 1/(2*s_c)*q*omega^2*r_c^2 (10)
Let me correct my rationale here this equations results from BOTH a
spatial and a time derivative of 1d. THIS is why we get the order two
terms on the RHS. In any case, dimensionality is now correct and
results stand.
Tony
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| User: "tony fleming" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
31 May 2006 07:19:52 PM |
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tony fleming wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
As to the dimensionality of equations 10, 13 and 14 I think you're
right; this is a typo, there should be a another factor by v, the
velocity, since we are, as in Eqn 5 taking a time derivative of both
LHS and RHS, so velocity on the RHS should be of order 2, not 1. So 10
11 and 13 should be as in the corrected eqn 10 below.
c^2/(2*pi)*q/r_c^4 = 1/(2*s_c)*q*omega^2*r_c^2 (10)
Let me correct my rationale here this equations results from BOTH a
spatial and a time derivative of 1d. THIS is why we get the order two
terms on the RHS. In any case, dimensionality is now correct and
results stand.
Tony
The corrected (10) after the time and spatial derivative should thus
be,
c^2/(2*pi)*q/r_c^4 = 1/(2*s_c)*q*omega^2 (10)
(11) and (13) should be similarly corrected, as stated results and
conclusions unchanged
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| User: "Dr Photon" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
01 Jun 2006 05:02:07 AM |
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tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
SFT has been accepted for presentation at NN2006. "IX International
Conference on Nucleus-Nucleus Collisions", NN2006, to be held in Rio de
Janeiro, August 28-September 1, 2006.
NN2006 is the ninth meeting of a traditional series (last two hold in
Strasbourg and Moscow) under the auspices of IUPAP.
Copies of the abstracts
"Composite EM, weak and strong nuclear self-field theory" and
"A sono-EM mechanism for fusion engineering"
can be found at
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf and
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming2.pdf
I'm still wondering what you did for plain hydrogen.
For example, you got Maxwell's eqns wrong in
eqns 1a-1d of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
and eqns 1.7 to 1.10 of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
Considering
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
you have
div(E) = 4 pi q / Vol 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0 dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) - eps0 dE/dt = pi q vel / Area 1d
1a is in cgs units, whereas 1c and 1d are in SI units. Rewriting 1a in
SI units would give
div(E) = q / (eps0 Vol)
which is numerically different to your eqn by a factor of
4 pi / eps0 = 1.4 x 10^12
which is a factor of over a trillion.
Even worse, 1d LHS and RHS are dimensionally incompatible, thus making
a mockery of the equals sign.
This mistake is carried through to eqns 10, 11 and 13 which are
obviously dimensionally incorrect, although eqn 14 magically becomes
dimensionally correct again. What a mess!
Even worse (how could it get any worse you might think? and not to
mention the mixed partial and full derivative signs) in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
you write relative permeability and permittivity, which is total
nonsense.
I also see in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf
you quote your presentation at EHE06, which you didn't present. Did any
of your colleagues present this talk, if so how did it go?
br
Brian good to see you're actually reading some SFT for a change instead
of just catcalling from the wings
all complaints I have are based on what you present as "physics"
, although I'm not sure how deep you
are reading apart from trawling for errors, and for taht I am grateful;
J.D. Jackson gives the equations (p238) as
div(D) = 4 pi rho 1a
div(B) = 0 1b
curl(E) + dB/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) = J + dD/dt 1d
With the constitutive parameters D=eps0*E and B=mu0*H we get
eps0div(E) = 4 pi rho 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) = J + eps0dE/dt 1d
so you admit you got 1a wrong?
So now its a simple matter of equating charge density and current
density for a moving charge; for rho, we require charge per volume,
while for J we need the current per area.
which is why your 1d is also wrong
We need to note as per
footnote (iv)
"Where a nebular current density is used in (1d), the factor 4p
comes about from an application of Green's theorem leading to a
surface over the volume enclosed by the charge density. For the case of
discrete charges, the factor p represents the area enclosed by the
moving charge-point."
Jackson goes on to discuss the units and states they are SI, not cgs,
but he does give the equations in cgs units in his appendix
So no cgs here at all.
As to the dimensionality of equations 10, 13 and 14 I think you're
right; this is a typo, there should be a another factor by v
the LHS and RHS are off by a metre not by a metre/second, as is 1d
, the
velocity, since we are, as in Eqn 5 taking a time derivative of both
LHS and RHS, so velocity on the RHS should be of order 2, not 1. So 10
11 and 13 should be as in the corrected eqn 10 below.
c^2/(2*pi)*q/r_c^4 = 1/(2*s_c)*q*omega^2*r_c^2
I will add an erratum when I can, to correct this error in the Physics
Essays paper. I may be able to correct it before it is published as the
printers are apparently running about a year behind real time. If I can
I will try to insert a note about the error regardless, ok?
Note that this typo does not alter the results or conclusions of the
self-field theory which is that Maxwell's equations can be solved
analytically and provide an extension to Bohr's theory and insights
into numerous areas of physics and biophysics.
Brian go and learn about relative permittivity and permeability,
your eqns using relative permittivity and permeability are wrong
[snip]
As to the equations available in the proceedings of EHE06 as shown in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf, these equations,
apart from SFT's equations, have all been taken from the literature,
and are stated as being historical in nature rather than a depiction of
the current view of these equations.
so your "presentation" at EHE06 was a no-show then? And you still hope
to get published in the proceedings? Most conferences take a very dim
view of this.
br
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| User: "tony fleming" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
01 Jun 2006 02:36:25 PM |
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Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
SFT has been accepted for presentation at NN2006. "IX International
Conference on Nucleus-Nucleus Collisions", NN2006, to be held in Rio de
Janeiro, August 28-September 1, 2006.
NN2006 is the ninth meeting of a traditional series (last two hold in
Strasbourg and Moscow) under the auspices of IUPAP.
Copies of the abstracts
"Composite EM, weak and strong nuclear self-field theory" and
"A sono-EM mechanism for fusion engineering"
can be found at
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf and
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming2.pdf
I'm still wondering what you did for plain hydrogen.
For example, you got Maxwell's eqns wrong in
eqns 1a-1d of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
and eqns 1.7 to 1.10 of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
Considering
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
you have
div(E) = 4 pi q / Vol 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0 dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) - eps0 dE/dt = pi q vel / Area 1d
1a is in cgs units, whereas 1c and 1d are in SI units. Rewriting 1a in
SI units would give
div(E) = q / (eps0 Vol)
which is numerically different to your eqn by a factor of
4 pi / eps0 = 1.4 x 10^12
which is a factor of over a trillion.
Even worse, 1d LHS and RHS are dimensionally incompatible, thus making
a mockery of the equals sign.
This mistake is carried through to eqns 10, 11 and 13 which are
obviously dimensionally incorrect, although eqn 14 magically becomes
dimensionally correct again. What a mess!
Even worse (how could it get any worse you might think? and not to
mention the mixed partial and full derivative signs) in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
you write relative permeability and permittivity, which is total
nonsense.
I also see in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf
you quote your presentation at EHE06, which you didn't present. Did any
of your colleagues present this talk, if so how did it go?
br
Brian good to see you're actually reading some SFT for a change instead
of just catcalling from the wings
all complaints I have are based on what you present as "physics"
such as your diatribe on cgs as opposed to SI units?? no you're not
reading carefully just trawling, but as i say i'm grateful that you are
at least being useful inyour criticism. This IS physics brian, it takes
the magnetic field into account which bohr theory didn't do.
It presents the atom as an eigenvalue problem and not as an infintie
series problem as in quantum mechanics, QED, and QCD.
, although I'm not sure how deep you
are reading apart from trawling for errors, and for taht I am grateful;
J.D. Jackson gives the equations (p238) as
div(D) = 4 pi rho 1a
div(B) = 0 1b
curl(E) + dB/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) = J + dD/dt 1d
With the constitutive parameters D=eps0*E and B=mu0*H we get
eps0div(E) = 4 pi rho 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) = J + eps0dE/dt 1d
so you admit you got 1a wrong?
not at all 1a is correct. i'm trying to show you it's based on Jackson,
on the constitutive parameters, and on an electrodynamic view of the
electron which is simple physics and not on a mind bending mathematics
as per present field mathematics which just cocks it up badly, yes it
gets the right answer after a year on a supercomputer, but this is like
using a sledgehammer to crack a walnut. the simple fact is that it is
WRONG to use a single dimension of direction for the point-point
fields, rather it need TWO directions as in the spinors.But YOU call
this heisenberg uncertainty, I call this numerical error. The fact
that QED was searching for an AREA meant that the numerical error was I
believe of trunction order 4 in the radial direction. SO the famous
accuracy depends on the problem being of order radius^2. WHere the
order is radius^1, we see all sorts of numerical problems; not to
mention QCD, which now according to SFT needs THREE coordinates to
correctly measure the point-point fields, but QCD uses ONE coordinate
for a very curly field, so its numerical accuracy is to put it bluntly
bloody awful!!
THat's why we use TWO spinors for the ML equations and can now get
analytic answers fo ALL atomic modes unlike QM and QED qhich need to
use numerical procedures.
So now its a simple matter of equating charge density and current
density for a moving charge; for rho, we require charge per volume,
while for J we need the current per area.
which is why your 1d is also wrong
We need to note as per
footnote (iv)
"Where a nebular current density is used in (1d), the factor 4p
comes about from an application of Green's theorem leading to a
surface over the volume enclosed by the charge density. For the case of
discrete charges, the factor p represents the area enclosed by the
moving charge-point."
Jackson goes on to discuss the units and states they are SI, not cgs,
but he does give the equations in cgs units in his appendix
So no cgs here at all.
As to the dimensionality of equations 10, 13 and 14 I think you're
right; this is a typo, there should be a another factor by v
the LHS and RHS are off by a metre not by a metre/second, as is 1d
Yes you're correct, the velocity should be a unit vector, so this makes
the currect density a current per unit area, many thanks, then 1d IS
dimensionally inconsistent as it stands and needs a unit tilde above
the v, AND this affects some equations below. Nevertheless the final
results and conclusions are unaffected by this error. As I said, I
will add an errata sheet to amend the errors.
, the
velocity, since we are, as in Eqn 5 taking a time derivative of both
LHS and RHS, so velocity on the RHS should be of order 2, not 1. So 10
11 and 13 should be as in the corrected eqn 10 below.
c^2/(2*pi)*q/r_c^4 = 1/(2*s_c)*q*omega^2*r_c^2
I will add an erratum when I can, to correct this error in the Physics
Essays paper. I may be able to correct it before it is published as the
printers are apparently running about a year behind real time. If I can
I will try to insert a note about the error regardless, ok?
Note that this typo does not alter the results or conclusions of the
self-field theory which is that Maxwell's equations can be solved
analytically and provide an extension to Bohr's theory and insights
into numerous areas of physics and biophysics.
Brian go and learn about relative permittivity and permeability,
your eqns using relative permittivity and permeability are wrong
I can only assume you mean eqns 35a-g. Tell me why YOU think these are
wrong brian. Is the concept of relative constitutive parameters in the
nucleus something you don't like? Or is there a valid reason for your
statement?
[snip]
As to the equations available in the proceedings of EHE06 as shown in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf, these equations,
apart from SFT's equations, have all been taken from the literature,
and are stated as being historical in nature rather than a depiction of
the current view of these equations.
so your "presentation" at EHE06 was a no-show then? And you still hope
to get published in the proceedings? Most conferences take a very dim
view of this.
br
well let's see shall we? If you want to come to BEMS next week you can
attend a very similar presentation; Cancun June 12 if you wish, i'll
see you there and we can continue the debate about SFT.
.
|
|
|
| User: "Dr Photon" |
|
| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
02 Jun 2006 08:50:29 AM |
|
|
tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
SFT has been accepted for presentation at NN2006. "IX International
Conference on Nucleus-Nucleus Collisions", NN2006, to be held in Rio de
Janeiro, August 28-September 1, 2006.
NN2006 is the ninth meeting of a traditional series (last two hold in
Strasbourg and Moscow) under the auspices of IUPAP.
Copies of the abstracts
"Composite EM, weak and strong nuclear self-field theory" and
"A sono-EM mechanism for fusion engineering"
can be found at
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf and
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming2.pdf
I'm still wondering what you did for plain hydrogen.
For example, you got Maxwell's eqns wrong in
eqns 1a-1d of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
and eqns 1.7 to 1.10 of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
Considering
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
you have
div(E) = 4 pi q / Vol 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0 dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) - eps0 dE/dt = pi q vel / Area 1d
1a is in cgs units, whereas 1c and 1d are in SI units. Rewriting 1a in
SI units would give
div(E) = q / (eps0 Vol)
which is numerically different to your eqn by a factor of
4 pi / eps0 = 1.4 x 10^12
which is a factor of over a trillion.
Even worse, 1d LHS and RHS are dimensionally incompatible, thus making
a mockery of the equals sign.
This mistake is carried through to eqns 10, 11 and 13 which are
obviously dimensionally incorrect, although eqn 14 magically becomes
dimensionally correct again. What a mess!
Even worse (how could it get any worse you might think? and not to
mention the mixed partial and full derivative signs) in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
you write relative permeability and permittivity, which is total
nonsense.
I also see in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf
you quote your presentation at EHE06, which you didn't present. Did any
of your colleagues present this talk, if so how did it go?
br
Brian good to see you're actually reading some SFT for a change instead
of just catcalling from the wings
all complaints I have are based on what you present as "physics"
such as your diatribe on cgs as opposed to SI units?? no you're not
reading carefully just trawling, but as i say i'm grateful that you are
at least being useful inyour criticism. This IS physics brian, it takes
the magnetic field into account which bohr theory didn't do.
nonsense - it was by taking the magnetic field into account that they
found the solutions radiated.
It presents the atom as an eigenvalue problem and not as an infintie
series problem as in quantum mechanics, QED, and QCD.
, although I'm not sure how deep you
are reading apart from trawling for errors, and for taht I am grateful;
J.D. Jackson gives the equations (p238) as
div(D) = 4 pi rho 1a
div(B) = 0 1b
curl(E) + dB/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) = J + dD/dt 1d
With the constitutive parameters D=eps0*E and B=mu0*H we get
eps0div(E) = 4 pi rho 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) = J + eps0dE/dt 1d
so you admit you got 1a wrong?
not at all 1a is correct. i'm trying to show you it's based on Jackson,
anyone can make a typo, I do it myself, but surely this shows you have
a serious mathematics blindness. Do you not even read what you write
yourself?
[snip]
As to the dimensionality of equations 10, 13 and 14 I think you're
right; this is a typo, there should be a another factor by v
the LHS and RHS are off by a metre not by a metre/second, as is 1d
Yes you're correct, the velocity should be a unit vector, so this makes
the currect density a current per unit area, many thanks, then 1d IS
dimensionally inconsistent as it stands and needs a unit tilde above
the v,
what do you mean by a unit tilde exactly? Do you mean a unit hat or
unit caret?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unit_vector
which in any case won't save you, as v-hat still has units of m/s.
AND this affects some equations below. Nevertheless the final
results and conclusions are unaffected by this error.
even if you managed to write down 1d in a dimensionally correct form,
it still doesn't guarantee that the physics is right - there's no point
commenting on that until there is something worth looking at.
As I said, I
will add an errata sheet to amend the errors.
speaking of errors, what do you think eqn 2 is describing? To me, you
have written down a spherically symmetric trial solution to a ~planar
orbital problem. If this is the case then it is certainly wrong by
construction. What von Hippel was referring to I can't say as I don't
have his book, so you will have to expand a little. Can you find any
on-line reference for this?
Taking the real component of Eqn2 which you say is " the electron's
E-field" to just focus on radial distance, (you say the imaginary
component points in the theta direction(???)) I get
E=(1/(4 pi eps0)) (q/r^2) cos(omega t) r-hat (2)
so the meaning of this is that the E-field due to the electron is
spherically symmetric, and oscillates in time sinusoidally between plus
and minus values. For a plain electron, even a circulating electron,
this is obviously wrong. Do you agree?
To get oscillating fields the proton is needed at the centre, with the
electron orbiting - maybe you mean this instead of "the electron's
E-field", but then there is no accounting of the proton charge, or the
electron-proton distance, or the fact that it shouldn't be spherically
symmetric, so it is still wrong.
Also, if it is due to an electron orbiting a proton, there should be a
retarded term depending on distance - surely you don't expect the
effects of the physical rotation of the electron to propagate
instantaneously???
, the
velocity, since we are, as in Eqn 5 taking a time derivative of both
LHS and RHS, so velocity on the RHS should be of order 2, not 1. So 10
11 and 13 should be as in the corrected eqn 10 below.
c^2/(2*pi)*q/r_c^4 = 1/(2*s_c)*q*omega^2*r_c^2
I will add an erratum when I can, to correct this error in the Physics
Essays paper. I may be able to correct it before it is published as the
printers are apparently running about a year behind real time. If I can
I will try to insert a note about the error regardless, ok?
Note that this typo does not alter the results or conclusions of the
self-field theory which is that Maxwell's equations can be solved
analytically and provide an extension to Bohr's theory and insights
into numerous areas of physics and biophysics.
Brian go and learn about relative permittivity and permeability,
your eqns using relative permittivity and permeability are wrong
I can only assume you mean eqns 35a-g. Tell me why YOU think these are
wrong brian. Is the concept of relative constitutive parameters in the
nucleus something you don't like? Or is there a valid reason for your
statement?
What's with the "I can only assume"??? I gave you the reference
already, which you obviously didn't read, so I'll quote it again:
"Even wose (how could it get any worse you might think? and not to
mention the mixed partial and full derivative signs) in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
you write relative permeability and permittivity, which is total
nonsense."
check it out.
br
.
|
|
|
| User: "tony fleming" |
|
| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
02 Jun 2006 06:33:36 PM |
|
|
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
SFT has been accepted for presentation at NN2006. "IX International
Conference on Nucleus-Nucleus Collisions", NN2006, to be held in Rio de
Janeiro, August 28-September 1, 2006.
NN2006 is the ninth meeting of a traditional series (last two hold in
Strasbourg and Moscow) under the auspices of IUPAP.
Copies of the abstracts
"Composite EM, weak and strong nuclear self-field theory" and
"A sono-EM mechanism for fusion engineering"
can be found at
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf and
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming2.pdf
I'm still wondering what you did for plain hydrogen.
For example, you got Maxwell's eqns wrong in
eqns 1a-1d of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
and eqns 1.7 to 1.10 of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
Considering
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
you have
div(E) = 4 pi q / Vol 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0 dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) - eps0 dE/dt = pi q vel / Area 1d
1a is in cgs units, whereas 1c and 1d are in SI units. Rewriting 1a in
SI units would give
div(E) = q / (eps0 Vol)
which is numerically different to your eqn by a factor of
4 pi / eps0 = 1.4 x 10^12
which is a factor of over a trillion.
Even worse, 1d LHS and RHS are dimensionally incompatible, thus making
a mockery of the equals sign.
This mistake is carried through to eqns 10, 11 and 13 which are
obviously dimensionally incorrect, although eqn 14 magically becomes
dimensionally correct again. What a mess!
Even worse (how could it get any worse you might think? and not to
mention the mixed partial and full derivative signs) in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
you write relative permeability and permittivity, which is total
nonsense.
I also see in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/NN2006_Abstract_Fleming.pdf
you quote your presentation at EHE06, which you didn't present. Did any
of your colleagues present this talk, if so how did it go?
br
Brian good to see you're actually reading some SFT for a change instead
of just catcalling from the wings
all complaints I have are based on what you present as "physics"
such as your diatribe on cgs as opposed to SI units?? no you're not
reading carefully just trawling, but as i say i'm grateful that you are
at least being useful inyour criticism. This IS physics brian, it takes
the magnetic field into account which bohr theory didn't do.
nonsense - it was by taking the magnetic field into account that they
found the solutions radiated.
You're not watching what I'm writing here; I'm saying the EM solution
pathway (as distinct from the QM pathway) post relativity and pre-QM,
did NOT take a magnetic effect into account. ie Bohr theory. QM DID
take the radiation into account, but continued to use the old-type
field which is why it has problems with uncertainty becuase it is too
primitive, you need a higher degree of distance to model the photon's
actual motions, and the electron's actual motions; you just can't do it
with a point-point distance a la coulomb because you will ALWAYS end up
with an error, an uncertainty.
It presents the atom as an eigenvalue problem and not as an infintie
series problem as in quantum mechanics, QED, and QCD.
, although I'm not sure how deep you
are reading apart from trawling for errors, and for taht I am grateful;
J.D. Jackson gives the equations (p238) as
div(D) = 4 pi rho 1a
div(B) = 0 1b
curl(E) + dB/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) = J + dD/dt 1d
With the constitutive parameters D=eps0*E and B=mu0*H we get
eps0div(E) = 4 pi rho 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) = J + eps0dE/dt 1d
so you admit you got 1a wrong?
not at all 1a is correct. i'm trying to show you it's based on Jackson,
anyone can make a typo, I do it myself, but surely this shows you have
a serious mathematics blindness. Do you not even read what you write
yourself?
yeah i'm a real dunderhead!! i've only come up with a totally new
mathematics to solve the tensor structures as generalized forms of
ordinary algebra ,a totally distinct algebra from what goes down now
for tensor algebra with all its problems of finding inverses!!
I admit to being very much a numerical (sofware based) mathematician,
so i'm interested in solving using fortran, maple, mathcad, whatever,
and not just trusting my own fallibility, as you would be aware
yourself. What I have done is to use Maple for this analysis, and
copied the results so they are correct. I thought I had copied
correctly from Jackson, but I obviously didn't. I can't explain the
typo but it does NOT indicate a blindness, only that this analysis is
novel, and I am a human bean, not infallible. AS I say, you yourself
were blind to the correctness of Eq (2) so does this indicate an
evenhandedness on your part or a somewhat bigotted blindness to
anything outside of the ordinary horizon-a short-sightedness??
[snip]
As to the dimensionality of equations 10, 13 and 14 I think you're
right; this is a typo, there should be a another factor by v
the LHS and RHS are off by a metre not by a metre/second, as is 1d
Yes you're correct, the velocity should be a unit vector, so this makes
the currect density a current per unit area, many thanks, then 1d IS
dimensionally inconsistent as it stands and needs a unit tilde above
the v,
what do you mean by a unit tilde exactly? Do you mean a unit hat or
unit caret?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unit_vector
which in any case won't save you, as v-hat still has units of m/s.
Well what I mean is that the velocity is a vector with unit magnitude;
now if you use one or two symbols to indicate both then whatever, I
personally use a tilde underneath to signify a vector, and a unit hat
to indicate a unit magnitude; some however, use a unit hat to indicate
both.
AND this affects some equations below. Nevertheless the final
results and conclusions are unaffected by this error.
even if you managed to write down 1d in a dimensionally correct form,
it still doesn't guarantee that the physics is right - there's no point
commenting on that until there is something worth looking at.
Ok, let me modify the web site copy of this paper and I'll leave it
there for you to comment.
As I said, I
will add an errata sheet to amend the errors.
speaking of errors, what do you think eqn 2 is describing? To me, you
have written down a spherically symmetric trial solution to a ~planar
orbital problem. If this is the case then it is certainly wrong by
construction. What von Hippel was referring to I can't say as I don't
have his book, so you will have to expand a little. Can you find any
on-line reference for this?
I doubt it, but let me try; I'll try a google search for you.
http://www.nd.edu/~condmat/research/pdf/mrs.pdf
The above link reveals that Von Hippel's life spanned THREE
centuries!!! What he was doing in his book was to redo Hertz's work
using his Hertzian potentials to derive the radiation energy from an
electric dipole antenna. Hertz had performed a famous experiment and
found the theory behind radiofrequency radiation. So he ended up with
the H-field and E-field far-field energy densities. We can see from
the expressions that they are similar except for a factor of the
imaginary number "j", or "I". It was here I realised we could
have a loop-dipole antenna structure (as distinct from a rod-dipole
antenna) which looks a bit like a cross loop-dipole which gives zero
radiation. So by using space and time phase differences, we end up with
an analogy of the hydrogen atom.
Taking the real component of Eqn2 which you say is " the electron's
E-field" to just focus on radial distance, (you say the imaginary
component points in the theta direction(???)) I get
E=(1/(4 pi eps0)) (q/r^2) cos(omega t) r-hat (2)
so the meaning of this is that the E-field due to the electron is
spherically symmetric, and oscillates in time sinusoidally between plus
and minus values. For a plain electron, even a circulating electron,
this is obviously wrong. Do you agree?
No, I don't. Read the comment in the appendix on the way imaginary
numbers are used in the SFT formulation; they are not standard.
Basically, we swap in and out of time and space depending on what we
wish to achieve. But we have to do this in a careful, geometrically
consistent manner
Quoting from the Appendix for your convenience
(d) Imaginary numbers in 4-D coordinate systems
Oftentimes in EM formulations, complex numbers are used from the start,
a theoretical procedure is followed, at the end the real and imaginary
parts are collected and the imaginary parts are discarded. In this
report a physical significance is meant for both real and imaginary
parts of the formulation at all times. This said, imaginary numbers are
treated no differently within this report to their common usage except
that the concept is generalized to the 4-D coordinate system involving
the two coupled spinors as illustrated in Fig. 3. They are 'real'
in the sense that they are orthogonal entities to mathematically real
numbers. Wherever the symbol 'j' appears in 3-D coordinate systems
it can be substituted by a real component in an orthogonal direction.
We may thus think of it as an 'orthogonality operator'. Defined in
terms of imaginary numbers, 2-D spinors are rotations moving in planes
that include axes orthogonal to a stated direction, e.g. (A 3-4) where
time is a parameter of rotation. The interpretation is consistent with
the conventional cyclic ordering of coordinate systems, e.g. Cartesian
(x,y,z), spherical (r, theta, phi) and cylindrical (rho, phi,z). Thus
-j*theta_vectorhat = -phi_vectorhat. A positive imaginary number is a
distance in a positive orthogonal direction and similarly for a
negative imaginary number; thus "j" . It should be noted that an
alternative but more complicated notation for imaginary numbers in 3-D
might have been used in this report, whereas the sole symbol is used to
denote orthogonality to any direction as is its common usage in
mathematics. The interpretation to orthogonality also holds for the
parametric time operator and its differentials as shown in Fig. 4.
There is implicit in electromagnetics a cycle of 4 phase shifts of pi/2
involved in the physical directions of differentials whether spatial or
temporal. For the strong nuclear forces where three spinors are
involved the cycle is longer being 6 phase shifts of pi/3 that
complicates the mathematics to some degree.
To get oscillating fields the proton is needed at the centre,
why does it?
with the
electron orbiting - maybe you mean this instead of "the electron's
E-field",
but each charge causes its own E-field.
but then there is no accounting of the proton charge,
not if what your referring to is the simple case where we assume an
'infinite mass' proton, no but yes there is for a 'finite-mass' proton
or the electron-proton distance, or the fact that it shouldn't be spherically
symmetric, so it is still wrong.
Also, if it is due to an electron orbiting a proton, there should be a
retarded term depending on distance
yes of course, but the fact is that in the simple case (the principal
mode), the retardation is constant at all times and equal to a fraction
of a wavelength so as to make the total nett radiation zero. what is
paramount when we are talking about those modes where the distances are
NOT constant (say the elliptical orbits)
- surely you don't expect the
effects of the physical rotation of the electron to propagate
instantaneously???
Obviously not
, the
velocity, since we are, as in Eqn 5 taking a time derivative of both
LHS and RHS, so velocity on the RHS should be of order 2, not 1. So 10
11 and 13 should be as in the corrected eqn 10 below.
c^2/(2*pi)*q/r_c^4 = 1/(2*s_c)*q*omega^2*r_c^2
I will add an erratum when I can, to correct this error in the Physics
Essays paper. I may be able to correct it before it is published as the
printers are apparently running about a year behind real time. If I can
I will try to insert a note about the error regardless, ok?
Note that this typo does not alter the results or conclusions of the
self-field theory which is that Maxwell's equations can be solved
analytically and provide an extension to Bohr's theory and insights
into numerous areas of physics and biophysics.
Brian go and learn about relative permittivity and permeability,
your eqns using relative permittivity and permeability are wrong
I can only assume you mean eqns 35a-g. Tell me why YOU think these are
wrong brian. Is the concept of relative constitutive parameters in the
nucleus something you don't like? Or is there a valid reason for your
statement?
What's with the "I can only assume"??? I gave you the reference
already, which you obviously didn't read, so I'll quote it again:
"Even wose (how could it get any worse you might think? and not to
mention the mixed partial and full derivative signs) in
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/SFT_Mathematics.pdf
you write relative permeability and permittivity, which is total
nonsense."
check it out.
br
shall do
thanks Tony
.
|
|
|
| User: "Dr Photon" |
|
| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
06 Jun 2006 07:03:30 AM |
|
|
tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
[snips for brevity]
This IS physics brian, it takes
the magnetic field into account which bohr theory didn't do.
nonsense - it was by taking the magnetic field into account that they
found the solutions radiated.
You're not watching what I'm writing here; I'm saying the EM solution
pathway (as distinct from the QM pathway) post relativity and pre-QM,
did NOT take a magnetic effect into account. ie Bohr theory. QM DID
take the radiation into account, but continued to use the old-type
field which is why it has problems with uncertainty becuase it is too
primitive, you need a higher degree of distance to model the photon's
actual motions, and the electron's actual motions; you just can't do it
with a point-point distance a la coulomb because you will ALWAYS end up
with an error, an uncertainty.
I still don't get you. I thought you were using Maxwell's eqns, which
was historically investigated as to orbital stability and found
lacking. This analysis certainly included the magnetic field.
Bohr knew this didn't match experiment, so made up a few ad hoc rules
where Maxwell's eqn equations didn't apply, but which matched
experiment
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bohr%27s_Atomic_Theory
even though he didn't know why.
So Bohr's theory is incompatible with Maxwell's eqns per se, and
comparing your model to Bohr's seems totally apples and oranges, never
mind magnetic fields.
Also on the wikipedia site it states
"The Bohr model gives an incorrect value L=hbar for the ground state
orbital angular momentum. The angular momentum in the true ground state
is known to be zero."
Your model also has a ground state orbital angular momentum so
disagreeing with experiment. I'll find some reference to experiment
when I have some more time. In the mean time, check out the
Stern-Gerlach measurement on neutral hydrogen atoms
http://www.chemistry.mcmaster.ca/esam/Chapter_4/section_2.html
How do you explain this?
[snip]
As to the dimensionality of equations 10, 13 and 14 I think you're
right; this is a typo, there should be a another factor by v
the LHS and RHS are off by a metre not by a metre/second, as is 1d
Yes you're correct, the velocity should be a unit vector, so this makes
the currect density a current per unit area, many thanks, then 1d IS
dimensionally inconsistent as it stands and needs a unit tilde above
the v,
what do you mean by a unit tilde exactly? Do you mean a unit hat or
unit caret?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unit_vector
which in any case won't save you, as v-hat still has units of m/s.
Well what I mean is that the velocity is a vector with unit magnitude;
now if you use one or two symbols to indicate both then whatever, I
personally use a tilde underneath to signify a vector, and a unit hat
to indicate a unit magnitude; some however, use a unit hat to indicate
both.
AFAICT, this only adds an extra problem. The dimensions are still
wrong, and now the magnitude of current doesn't depend on the magnitude
of the velocity of the electron. hmmm.
OTOH, maybe I can't comment until I see what you actually write down
this time.
AND this affects some equations below. Nevertheless the final
results and conclusions are unaffected by this error.
even if you managed to write down 1d in a dimensionally correct form,
it still doesn't guarantee that the physics is right - there's no point
commenting on that until there is something worth looking at.
Ok, let me modify the web site copy of this paper and I'll leave it
there for you to comment.
do
As I said, I
will add an errata sheet to amend the errors.
speaking of errors, what do you think eqn 2 is describing? To me, you
have written down a spherically symmetric trial solution to a ~planar
orbital problem. If this is the case then it is certainly wrong by
construction. What von Hippel was referring to I can't say as I don't
have his book, so you will have to expand a little. Can you find any
on-line reference for this?
I doubt it, but let me try; I'll try a google search for you.
http://www.nd.edu/~condmat/research/pdf/mrs.pdf
The above link reveals that Von Hippel's life spanned THREE
centuries!!!
which is the only thing that reference gives. I was looking for an
example of how the exp(phi) term is used in the eqn(2) E-field, to see
exactly what he was getting at, and whether you have misapplied it. I
still don't have a reference for this.
What he was doing in his book was to redo Hertz's work
using his Hertzian potentials to derive the radiation energy from an
electric dipole antenna. Hertz had performed a famous experiment and
found the theory behind radiofrequency radiation. So he ended up with
the H-field and E-field far-field energy densities. We can see from
the expressions that they are similar except for a factor of the
imaginary number "j", or "I". It was here I realised we could
have a loop-dipole antenna structure (as distinct from a rod-dipole
antenna) which looks a bit like a cross loop-dipole which gives zero
radiation. So by using space and time phase differences, we end up with
an analogy of the hydrogen atom.
Taking the real component of Eqn2 which you say is " the electron's
E-field" to just focus on radial distance, (you say the imaginary
component points in the theta direction(???)) I get
E=(1/(4 pi eps0)) (q/r^2) cos(omega t) r-hat (2)
so the meaning of this is that the E-field due to the electron is
spherically symmetric, and oscillates in time sinusoidally between plus
and minus values. For a plain electron, even a circulating electron,
this is obviously wrong. Do you agree?
No, I don't. Read the comment in the appendix on the way imaginary
numbers are used in the SFT formulation; they are not standard.
I had actually done that a little bit, which was where my comment
"(you say the imaginary component points in the theta direction(???))"
came from.
Basically, we swap in and out of time and space depending on what we
wish to achieve. But we have to do this in a careful, geometrically
consistent manner
Quoting from the Appendix for your convenience
(d) Imaginary numbers in 4-D coordinate systems
Oftentimes in EM formulations, complex numbers are used from the start,
a theoretical procedure is followed, at the end the real and imaginary
parts are collected and the imaginary parts are discarded. In this
report a physical significance is meant for both real and imaginary
parts of the formulation at all times. This said, imaginary numbers are
treated no differently within this report to their common usage except
that the concept is generalized to the 4-D coordinate system involving
the two coupled spinors as illustrated in Fig. 3. They are 'real'
in the sense that they are orthogonal entities to mathematically real
numbers. Wherever the symbol 'j' appears in 3-D coordinate systems
it can be substituted by a real component in an orthogonal direction.
We may thus think of it as an 'orthogonality operator'. Defined in
terms of imaginary numbers, 2-D spinors are rotations moving in planes
that include axes orthogonal to a stated direction, e.g. (A 3-4) where
time is a parameter of rotation. The interpretation is consistent with
the conventional cyclic ordering of coordinate systems, e.g. Cartesian
(x,y,z), spherical (r, theta, phi)
so lets stop here for a second. My comments previously still stand
then?
I'll quote again lest you forget:
" Taking the real component of Eqn2 which you say is " the electron's
E-field" to just focus on radial distance, (you say the imaginary
component points in the theta direction(???)) I get
E=(1/(4 pi eps0)) (q/r^2) cos(omega t) r-hat (2)
so the meaning of this is that the E-field due to the electron is
spherically symmetric, and oscillates in time sinusoidally between
plus
and minus values. For a plain electron, even a circulating electron,
this is obviously wrong. Do you agree?"
and cylindrical (rho, phi,z). Thus
-j*theta_vectorhat = -phi_vectorhat.
so j*r_hat = theta_hat?
And to just consider the r_hat component of eqn(2), we ignore the
imaginary part, being left with cos(omegat.t) like I wrote.
This eqn is spherically symmetric, as it has dependence on r and no
dependence on theta and phi. So what do you disagree with?
Also to write
E=(1/(4 pi eps0)) (q/r^2) sin(omega t) theta-hat (2b)
seems totally nuts. Do you say this is a valid equation? If not, please
write explicitly the eqn corresponding to the imaginary component.
[snip]
To get oscillating fields the proton is needed at the centre,
why does it?
we were discussing a centrally symmetric electron-proton arrangement.
With the proton present, when the electron is on the "near"-side of the
proton, our E-field can point towards the COM, whereas when the
electron is on the "far"-side of the proton, the E-field points towards
us from the COM (neglecting retardation for the moment...)
Without the proton what have you got? Even taking a circulating
electron motion, if you are far from the electron orbit the E-field you
experience may have slight changes in strength due to the varying
observer-electron distance, but it won't change sign. I was wondering
what on earth the cos(omega.t) referred to. It seems to imply that the
electron charge is pulsating between + and -1 (ugh!).
with the
electron orbiting - maybe you mean this instead of "the electron's
E-field",
but each charge causes its own E-field.
ok, so you really do mean eqn2 is just the electron
but then there is no accounting of the proton charge,
not if what your referring to is the simple case where we assume an
'infinite mass' proton, no but yes there is for a 'finite-mass' proton
eh? You mean if the proton is stationary (infinite mass), it has no
charge??? Eqn (2) is about E-fields remember, and even if
phi_proton=omega_proton.t=0, then exp(phi_proton)=1.
or the electron-proton distance, or the fact that it shouldn't be spherically
symmetric, so it is still wrong.
Also, if it is due to an electron orbiting a proton, there should be a
retarded term depending on distance
yes of course, but the fact is that in the simple case (the principal
mode), the retardation is constant at all times and equal to a fraction
of a wavelength so as to make the total nett radiation zero. what is
paramount when we are talking about those modes where the distances are
NOT constant (say the elliptical orbits)
if you write an equation using a non-radiating E-field mode, do you
think you have proven radiation doesn't exist?
br
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| User: "tony fleming" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
09 Jun 2006 11:21:31 PM |
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Brian, I have got to leave for Cancun tomorrow so I don't have much
time; probably won't get throught all your comments. I have still to
amend the hydrogen paper at www.unifiedphysics.com to have the correct
form of Maxwell's equations; I have editted my Cancun slides to be
cosher with SI and dimensional analysis. I'll be back next weekend so
I'll come back to you then. I have answered you briefly below.
Tony
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
[snips for brevity]
This IS physics brian, it takes
the magnetic field into account which bohr theory didn't do.
nonsense - it was by taking the magnetic field into account that they
found the solutions radiated.
You're not watching what I'm writing here; I'm saying the EM solution
pathway (as distinct from the QM pathway) post relativity and pre-QM,
did NOT take a magnetic effect into account. ie Bohr theory. QM DID
take the radiation into account, but continued to use the old-type
field which is why it has problems with uncertainty becuase it is too
primitive, you need a higher degree of distance to model the photon's
actual motions, and the electron's actual motions; you just can't do it
with a point-point distance a la coulomb because you will ALWAYS end up
with an error, an uncertainty.
I still don't get you. I thought you were using Maxwell's eqns, which
was historically investigated as to orbital stability and found
lacking. This analysis certainly included the magnetic field.
Bohr knew this didn't match experiment, so made up a few ad hoc rules
where Maxwell's eqn equations didn't apply, but which matched
experiment
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bohr%27s_Atomic_Theory
even though he didn't know why.
At the site wikpedia site above, it says quite correctly that the Bohr
theory had trouble with the Zeeman effect. So this is what I was
saying; the old pre-quantum theories did NOT take the magnetic field
into account. You say that the scientists of this era did a stability
analysis which took the magnetic field into account. I have yet to see
such an early analysis. Otherwise they would have realised there was
an EM pathway to solving the atom. I have found in Whittaker's history
of the pre-quantum theories a reference to the EM field as thin beams
(like my STREAMS) rather than radiation over all solid angles (a la
coulomb), but they went away from this idea.
All I have seen in recent era texts is the line about two electric
charges, eg electron and proton, spiralling in together and causing a
catastrophic reaction as they eventually collide, hence EM is
supposedly unstable. And this is rubbish.
If we take the magnetic effect into account you can find a stable
orbital motion along with a stable cyclotron motion, ie, the
self-fields of the two EM particles provide for an electric, AND a
magnetic motion. And these motions are both what I term 'physical'
spinors and are orthogonal to each other. These actual motions are
gvien by the Maxwell-Lorentz equations if you follow them through to
solving the eigenvalue problem solution. This eigenvalueproblem is
able to be solved analytically for all electrons and for all protons.
So Bohr's theory is incompatible with Maxwell's eqns per se, and
comparing your model to Bohr's seems totally apples and oranges, never
mind magnetic fields.
Also on the wikipedia site it states
"The Bohr model gives an incorrect value L=hbar for the ground state
orbital angular momentum. The angular momentum in the true ground state
is known to be zero."
Your model also has a ground state orbital angular momentum so
disagreeing with experiment. I'll find some reference to experiment
when I have some more time. In the mean time, check out the
Stern-Gerlach measurement on neutral hydrogen atoms
http://www.chemistry.mcmaster.ca/esam/Chapter_4/section_2.html
How do you explain this?
[snip]
As to the dimensionality of equations 10, 13 and 14 I think you're
right; this is a typo, there should be a another factor by v
the LHS and RHS are off by a metre not by a metre/second, as is 1d
Yes you're correct, the velocity should be a unit vector, so this makes
the currect density a current per unit area, many thanks, then 1d IS
dimensionally inconsistent as it stands and needs a unit tilde above
the v,
what do you mean by a unit tilde exactly? Do you mean a unit hat or
unit caret?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unit_vector
which in any case won't save you, as v-hat still has units of m/s.
Well what I mean is that the velocity is a vector with unit magnitude;
now if you use one or two symbols to indicate both then whatever, I
personally use a tilde underneath to signify a vector, and a unit hat
to indicate a unit magnitude; some however, use a unit hat to indicate
both.
AFAICT, this only adds an extra problem. The dimensions are still
wrong, and now the magnitude of current doesn't depend on the magnitude
of the velocity of the electron. hmmm.
OTOH, maybe I can't comment until I see what you actually write down
this time.
AND this affects some equations below. Nevertheless the final
results and conclusions are unaffected by this error.
even if you managed to write down 1d in a dimensionally correct form,
it still doesn't guarantee that the physics is right - there's no point
commenting on that until there is something worth looking at.
Ok, let me modify the web site copy of this paper and I'll leave it
there for you to comment.
do
As I said, I
will add an errata sheet to amend the errors.
speaking of errors, what do you think eqn 2 is describing? To me, you
have written down a spherically symmetric trial solution to a ~planar
orbital problem. If this is the case then it is certainly wrong by
construction. What von Hippel was referring to I can't say as I don't
have his book, so you will have to expand a little. Can you find any
on-line reference for this?
I doubt it, but let me try; I'll try a google search for you.
http://www.nd.edu/~condmat/research/pdf/mrs.pdf
The above link reveals that Von Hippel's life spanned THREE
centuries!!!
which is the only thing that reference gives. I was looking for an
example of how the exp(phi) term is used in the eqn(2) E-field, to see
exactly what he was getting at, and whether you have misapplied it. I
still don't have a reference for this.
What he was doing in his book was to redo Hertz's work
using his Hertzian potentials to derive the radiation energy from an
electric dipole antenna. Hertz had performed a famous experiment and
found the theory behind radiofrequency radiation. So he ended up with
the H-field and E-field far-field energy densities. We can see from
the expressions that they are similar except for a factor of the
imaginary number "j", or "I". It was here I realised we could
have a loop-dipole antenna structure (as distinct from a rod-dipole
antenna) which looks a bit like a cross loop-dipole which gives zero
radiation. So by using space and time phase differences, we end up with
an analogy of the hydrogen atom.
Taking the real component of Eqn2 which you say is " the electron's
E-field" to just focus on radial distance, (you say the imaginary
component points in the theta direction(???)) I get
E=(1/(4 pi eps0)) (q/r^2) cos(omega t) r-hat (2)
so the meaning of this is that the E-field due to the electron is
spherically symmetric, and oscillates in time sinusoidally between plus
and minus values. For a plain electron, even a circulating electron,
this is obviously wrong. Do you agree?
No, I don't. Read the comment in the appendix on the way imaginary
numbers are used in the SFT formulation; they are not standard.
I had actually done that a little bit, which was where my comment
"(you say the imaginary component points in the theta direction(???))"
came from.
Basically, we swap in and out of time and space depending on what we
wish to achieve. But we have to do this in a careful, geometrically
consistent manner
Quoting from the Appendix for your convenience
(d) Imaginary numbers in 4-D coordinate systems
Oftentimes in EM formulations, complex numbers are used from the start,
a theoretical procedure is followed, at the end the real and imaginary
parts are collected and the imaginary parts are discarded. In this
report a physical significance is meant for both real and imaginary
parts of the formulation at all times. This said, imaginary numbers are
treated no differently within this report to their common usage except
that the concept is generalized to the 4-D coordinate system involving
the two coupled spinors as illustrated in Fig. 3. They are 'real'
in the sense that they are orthogonal entities to mathematically real
numbers. Wherever the symbol 'j' appears in 3-D coordinate systems
it can be substituted by a real component in an orthogonal direction.
We may thus think of it as an 'orthogonality operator'. Defined in
terms of imaginary numbers, 2-D spinors are rotations moving in planes
that include axes orthogonal to a stated direction, e.g. (A 3-4) where
time is a parameter of rotation. The interpretation is consistent with
the conventional cyclic ordering of coordinate systems, e.g. Cartesian
(x,y,z), spherical (r, theta, phi)
so lets stop here for a second. My comments previously still stand
then?
I'll quote again lest you forget:
" Taking the real component of Eqn2 which you say is " the electron's
E-field" to just focus on radial distance, (you say the imaginary
component points in the theta direction(???)) I get
E=(1/(4 pi eps0)) (q/r^2) cos(omega t) r-hat (2)
so the meaning of this is that the E-field due to the electron is
spherically symmetric, and oscillates in time sinusoidally between
plus
and minus values. For a plain electron, even a circulating electron,
this is obviously wrong. Do you agree?"
and cylindrical (rho, phi,z). Thus
-j*theta_vectorhat = -phi_vectorhat.
so j*r_hat = theta_hat?
And to just consider the r_hat component of eqn(2), we ignore the
imaginary part, being left with cos(omegat.t) like I wrote.
This eqn is spherically symmetric, as it has dependence on r and no
dependence on theta and phi. So what do you disagree with?
Also to write
E=(1/(4 pi eps0)) (q/r^2) sin(omega t) theta-hat (2b)
seems totally nuts. Do you say this is a valid equation? If not, please
write explicitly the eqn corresponding to the imaginary component.
[snip]
To get oscillating fields the proton is needed at the centre,
why does it?
we were discussing a centrally symmetric electron-proton arrangement.
With the proton present, when the electron is on the "near"-side of the
proton, our E-field can point towards the COM, whereas when the
electron is on the "far"-side of the proton, the E-field points towards
us from the COM (neglecting retardation for the moment...)
Without the proton what have you got? Even taking a circulating
electron motion, if you are far from the electron orbit the E-field you
experience may have slight changes in strength due to the varying
observer-electron distance, but it won't change sign. I was wondering
what on earth the cos(omega.t) referred to. It seems to imply that the
electron charge is pulsating between + and -1 (ugh!).
with the
electron orbiting - maybe you mean this instead of "the electron's
E-field",
but each charge causes its own E-field.
ok, so you really do mean eqn2 is just the electron
but then there is no accounting of the proton charge,
not if what your referring to is the simple case where we assume an
'infinite mass' proton, no but yes there is for a 'finite-mass' proton
eh? You mean if the proton is stationary (infinite mass), it has no
charge??? Eqn (2) is about E-fields remember, and even if
phi_proton=omega_proton.t=0, then exp(phi_proton)=1.
or the electron-proton distance, or the fact that it shouldn't be spherically
symmetric, so it is still wrong.
Also, if it is due to an electron orbiting a proton, there should be a
retarded term depending on distance
yes of course, but the fact is that in the simple case (the principal
mode), the retardation is constant at all times and equal to a fraction
of a wavelength so as to make the total nett radiation zero. what is
paramount when we are talking about those modes where the distances are
NOT constant (say the elliptical orbits)
if you write an equation using a non-radiating E-field mode, do you
think you have proven radiation doesn't exist?
br
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| User: "Dr Photon" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
12 Jun 2006 03:50:05 AM |
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tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
[snips for brevity]
This IS physics brian, it takes
the magnetic field into account which bohr theory didn't do.
nonsense - it was by taking the magnetic field into account that they
found the solutions radiated.
You're not watching what I'm writing here; I'm saying the EM solution
pathway (as distinct from the QM pathway) post relativity and pre-QM,
did NOT take a magnetic effect into account. ie Bohr theory. QM DID
take the radiation into account, but continued to use the old-type
field which is why it has problems with uncertainty becuase it is too
primitive, you need a higher degree of distance to model the photon's
actual motions, and the electron's actual motions; you just can't do it
with a point-point distance a la coulomb because you will ALWAYS end up
with an error, an uncertainty.
I still don't get you. I thought you were using Maxwell's eqns, which
was historically investigated as to orbital stability and found
lacking. This analysis certainly included the magnetic field.
Bohr knew this didn't match experiment, so made up a few ad hoc rules
where Maxwell's eqn equations didn't apply, but which matched
experiment
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bohr%27s_Atomic_Theory
even though he didn't know why.
At the site wikpedia site above, it says quite correctly that the Bohr
theory had trouble with the Zeeman effect. So this is what I was
saying; the old pre-quantum theories did NOT take the magnetic field
into account.
what does your model say about the Zeeman effect?
You say that the scientists of this era did a stability
analysis which took the magnetic field into account. I have yet to see
such an early analysis. Otherwise they would have realised there was
an EM pathway to solving the atom. I have found in Whittaker's history
of the pre-quantum theories a reference to the EM field as thin beams
(like my STREAMS) rather than radiation over all solid angles (a la
coulomb), but they went away from this idea.
All I have seen in recent era texts is the line about two electric
charges, eg electron and proton, spiralling in together and causing a
catastrophic reaction as they eventually collide, hence EM is
supposedly unstable. And this is rubbish.
If we take the magnetic effect into account you can find a stable
orbital motion along with a stable cyclotron motion, ie, the
self-fields of the two EM particles provide for an electric, AND a
magnetic motion.
if true that's a good result, but I am far from convinced at this stage
- I still think your "solution" will radiate.
And these motions are both what I term 'physical'
spinors and are orthogonal to each other. These actual motions are
gvien by the Maxwell-Lorentz equations if you follow them through to
solving the eigenvalue problem solution. This eigenvalueproblem is
able to be solved analytically for all electrons and for all protons.
I look forward to a full reply of my previous post. Please reply to
that one, and ignore this one.
br
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| User: "tony fleming" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
22 Jun 2006 11:51:50 PM |
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Brian I'm back from Cancun
I am currently investigating the Zeeman effect with regard to
electrohypersensitivity (EH). It appears that there are many people who
suffer from EH. We can use the Zeeman effect to protect against EH.
SInce DISTANCE is a crucial parameter in the biochemistry of biological
structures (atoms, ions, molecules, macromolecules, proteins, DNA, the
Zeeman effect can absorb spurious external energy. This is a vital
insight that may lead to many medical therapies. It is crucial to be
able to know the precise motions of the outershell electrons rather
than the probability clouds of quantum mechanics.
I'm still jetlagged so I'll get back to your queries as soon as I'm
physically able. I'm still just getting over AUstralia making it
through to the last 16 in the Mundial!! LOL
cheers Tony
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
[snips for brevity]
This IS physics brian, it takes
the magnetic field into account which bohr theory didn't do.
nonsense - it was by taking the magnetic field into account that they
found the solutions radiated.
You're not watching what I'm writing here; I'm saying the EM solution
pathway (as distinct from the QM pathway) post relativity and pre-QM,
did NOT take a magnetic effect into account. ie Bohr theory. QM DID
take the radiation into account, but continued to use the old-type
field which is why it has problems with uncertainty becuase it is too
primitive, you need a higher degree of distance to model the photon's
actual motions, and the electron's actual motions; you just can't do it
with a point-point distance a la coulomb because you will ALWAYS end up
with an error, an uncertainty.
I still don't get you. I thought you were using Maxwell's eqns, which
was historically investigated as to orbital stability and found
lacking. This analysis certainly included the magnetic field.
Bohr knew this didn't match experiment, so made up a few ad hoc rules
where Maxwell's eqn equations didn't apply, but which matched
experiment
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bohr%27s_Atomic_Theory
even though he didn't know why.
At the site wikpedia site above, it says quite correctly that the Bohr
theory had trouble with the Zeeman effect. So this is what I was
saying; the old pre-quantum theories did NOT take the magnetic field
into account.
what does your model say about the Zeeman effect?
You say that the scientists of this era did a stability
analysis which took the magnetic field into account. I have yet to see
such an early analysis. Otherwise they would have realised there was
an EM pathway to solving the atom. I have found in Whittaker's history
of the pre-quantum theories a reference to the EM field as thin beams
(like my STREAMS) rather than radiation over all solid angles (a la
coulomb), but they went away from this idea.
All I have seen in recent era texts is the line about two electric
charges, eg electron and proton, spiralling in together and causing a
catastrophic reaction as they eventually collide, hence EM is
supposedly unstable. And this is rubbish.
If we take the magnetic effect into account you can find a stable
orbital motion along with a stable cyclotron motion, ie, the
self-fields of the two EM particles provide for an electric, AND a
magnetic motion.
if true that's a good result, but I am far from convinced at this stage
- I still think your "solution" will radiate.
I looked at various conditions for zero-radiation in my PhD and that
included motions due to a magnetic field. Since these motions are
circular, they do zero work where
integral (force).diff_distance = 0 over a periodic cycle.
And these motions are both what I term 'physical'
spinors and are orthogonal to each other. These actual motions are
gvien by the Maxwell-Lorentz equations if you follow them through to
solving the eigenvalue problem solution. This eigenvalueproblem is
able to be solved analytically for all electrons and for all protons.
I look forward to a full reply of my previous post. Please reply to
that one, and ignore this one.
br
.
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| User: "Timo A. Nieminen" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
01 Jun 2006 05:31:22 AM |
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|
On Thu, 1 Jun 2006, Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
For example, you got Maxwell's eqns wrong in
eqns 1a-1d of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
[cut]
div(E) = 4 pi q / Vol 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0 dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) - eps0 dE/dt = pi q vel / Area 1d
1a is in cgs units, whereas 1c and 1d are in SI units. Rewriting 1a in
SI units would give
div(E) = q / (eps0 Vol)
which is numerically different to your eqn by a factor of
4 pi / eps0 = 1.4 x 10^12
which is a factor of over a trillion.
[cut]
, although I'm not sure how deep you
are reading apart from trawling for errors, and for taht I am grateful;
J.D. Jackson gives the equations (p238) as
div(D) = 4 pi rho 1a
div(B) = 0 1b
curl(E) + dB/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) = J + dD/dt 1d
so you admit you got 1a wrong?
It's worse than that. Jackson 3rd ed (which is the only edition that gives
the Maxwell equations on p238, and also the only SI edition) very clearly
states div(D)=rho.
--
T
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| User: "tony fleming" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
01 Jun 2006 02:45:27 PM |
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Timo A. Nieminen wrote:
On Thu, 1 Jun 2006, Dr Photon wrote:
tony fleming wrote:
Dr Photon wrote:
For example, you got Maxwell's eqns wrong in
eqns 1a-1d of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
[cut]
div(E) = 4 pi q / Vol 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0 dH/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) - eps0 dE/dt = pi q vel / Area 1d
1a is in cgs units, whereas 1c and 1d are in SI units. Rewriting 1a in
SI units would give
div(E) = q / (eps0 Vol)
which is numerically different to your eqn by a factor of
4 pi / eps0 = 1.4 x 10^12
which is a factor of over a trillion.
[cut]
, although I'm not sure how deep you
are reading apart from trawling for errors, and for taht I am grateful;
J.D. Jackson gives the equations (p238) as
div(D) = 4 pi rho 1a
div(B) = 0 1b
curl(E) + dB/dt = 0 1c
curl(H) = J + dD/dt 1d
so you admit you got 1a wrong?
It's worse than that. Jackson 3rd ed (which is the only edition that gives
the Maxwell equations on p238, and also the only SI edition) very clearly
states div(D)=rho.
--
T
correct!! so yes this IS cgs, brian is right about this; so the SFT
analysis will need to be redone for SI units!! in this debate over
units; it will be interesting to see where Planck's 'constant' fits in
in all this because as it stands, Planck's constant is a variable in
the SFT as you see it now. You will note that the final equations are
dimensionally correct.
.
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| User: "brian a m stuckless" |
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| Title: Re: SFT and Nuclear Physics |
03 Jun 2006 10:15:47 AM |
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$$ tony fleming wrote: > Timo A. Nieminen wrote: > Dr Photon wrote:
For example, you got Maxwell's eqns wrong in eqns 1a-1d of
http://www.unifiedphysics.com/UP_EM_self_fields_all_in_one_revb_Nov_08_04.pdf
[cut]
div(E) = 4 pi q / Vol 1a
div(H) = 0 1b
curl(E) + mu0 dH/dt = 0 [+ eV = - (m1*v1^2/2).] 1c
curl(H) - eps0 dE/dt = pi q vel / Area 1d
$$ NO "curl" applicable in GR (..no GR *ANGULAR* momentum icon pA).
$$ Total Hamiltonian ENTHALPY energy E = m*c^2 + pL*c + pA*fA
$$ = m*c^2 + h*fL + nA*hbar*fA.
1a is in cgs units, whereas 1c and 1d are in SI units.
Rewriting 1a in SI units would give div(E) = q / (eps0 Vol)
which is numerically different to your eqn by a factor of
4 pi / eps0 = 1.4 x 10^12 which is a factor of over a trillion.
[cut] > > >
, although I'm not sure how deep you are reading apart from
trawling for errors, and for taht I am grate | | | | | | |