Science > Physics > What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows
| Topic: |
Science > Physics |
| User: |
"Edward Green" |
| Date: |
25 Sep 2006 09:40:07 PM |
| Object: |
What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
I know complaining about the awful injustice of it all only makes me
more of a crank, but...
Essaying to write to sci.physics.research, I was successful in starting
in a thread, but unable to reply because I am asked for a "citation"
for a randomly chosen proper name, and honestly reply it was a randomly
chosen name, and why do you think I need a "citation", with the
injunction "keep it civil"(!). I was unable to offer a possibility not
considered by other respondents with a sketch of the simple calculation
(being merely an integral) because I have "not done a calculation"(!),
although part of my motive in writing was in fact to ask for hints how
to perform simple calculations in GR.
Of course I can't help but wonder if the individual of the same given
name as one of the moderators who sometimes posts in
sci.physics.relativity and sci.physics is in fact the same individual,
in which case telling him he had no bloody idea what he was talking
about in that latter, uncivil, group -- which he didn't -- of course
gives license for whatever petty revenge he is able to extract by
virtue of whatever other positions of dubious authority he may occupy.
Not mentioning names.
Then again maybe I shouldn't have mentioned that my motivation in
learning to do some simple calculations involving the metric was to
accumulate circumstantial evidence for my hunch that nothing, in fact,
ever falls into a black hole -- by preponderance of the semantical
evidence of what we might like to mean by "ever" -- despite the one
piece of circumstantial evidence commonly offered that "does too fall
in", for which I already humbly hold what seems to me an effective
rebuttal.
But they can't stop me from ranting here... bwa ha ha ha ha!!!!
OK.
Maybe somebody happening to read this rant could outline the ansatz of
a calculation to answer the following question -- just outline how to
approach it, and I will struggle with the details:
The setup:
I drop, from a given static position above the event horizon, an unlit
rocket into a canonical Schwarzschild black hole. I hold in my hand a
universal IR rocket remote, with a button labeled "return". I point
the remote towards the falling rocket, press the button, and a light
pulse overtakes the rocket, instructing it to light off its motors,
save itself from oblivion, and return it to my position. A finite time
later I again hold the rocket in my hand.
The question:
How long can I wait before hitting the button so that the light pulse
will reach the rocket before it crosses the horizon in its own proper
time, signaling it to return? [Ignore how much thrust will be
required, and how blueshifted the signal will be when it reaches the
rocket.]
The possibilities:
Either the time available to hit the remote is finite or infinite. If
finite, this would be circumstantial evidence supporting the claim that
"does too fall in before the end of time": what we can no longer
prevent may perhaps as well have happened, even if we can't know just
when. If infinite, on the other hand, this would support the assertion
that the crossing event never happens -- an irreversible event which
can always be prevented from happening presumably never "happens".
Please help crankdom everywhere by any hints on how to perform the
calculation!
I especially appeal to the large and vibrant crank population in the
unmoderated groups, since, performing a correct calculation may give a
viable chance to show the experts wrong, wrong, wrong, bwa ha, ha...
and etc. -- at least the ones who insist that things do fall in before
aeternity. Learn how to do a calculation in GR! Prove experts wrong!
Have fun!
Anybody want to place bets on which way the calculation will go?
(Crow pie already cooling in pantry, just in case).
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| User: "Eric Gisse" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
12 Oct 2006 03:50:29 PM |
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Barry wrote:
[...]
Go away, Barry.
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| User: "Barry" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
12 Oct 2006 05:04:45 PM |
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Eric Gisse wrote:
Barry wrote:
Erc Gisse wrote:
That makes a lot more sense.
Are you joking?
He says that even he doesn't know what he means.
You say it makes sense to you. Well it sure doesn't make any sense to me.
Can you please explain it to me.
Go away, Barry.
I'll take that as a no, you can't explain it and you didn't understand
it.
It certainly seems that you don't agree with what he wrote, understand
it or not.
After all, according to him, I'll be sticking around whether I leave
or not.
Barry
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| User: "Eric Gisse" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
14 Oct 2006 03:16:28 PM |
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Barry wrote:
[...]
Take it however you want - just shut the hell up.
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| User: "Barry" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
14 Oct 2006 06:00:09 PM |
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Eric Gisse wrote:
Barry wrote:
[...]
Take it however you want - just shut the hell up.
Tom Roberts ran away when asked to explain why he contradicted himself.
(Not the first time he's run away, by the way, he has a history).
Now you, having claimed that you understood the contradiction, also
don't want to explain it.
You don't even want it questioned.
You're learning well. The Scholastics would be proud.
Let's hope the question doesn't come up on an exam given by one of those
professors who try to sort the wheat from the chaff.
Barry
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| User: "Tom Roberts" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
14 Oct 2006 08:14:00 PM |
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Barry wrote:
Tom Roberts ran away when asked to explain why he contradicted himself.
(Not the first time he's run away, by the way, he has a history).
Hmmm. Apparently you do not understand my approach to this newsgroup. I
basically ignore people I have identified as clearly idiots. I only
respond to parts of posts that seem relevant to me. I do not
participate in "he said, she said" debates. And after I have replied
several times stating a given concept in several different ways, I
abandon the discussion. This last is probably what you are thinking is
"contradicting myself", when it is most likely you who did not
understand what I said -- certainly there is A LOT of that around here.
I have very limited time for this group, and choose to spend it
idiosyncratically, primarily for my own amusement, but also for the
occasional chance to teach somebody something -- when people show they
are uninterested in learning modern physics I stop trying.
Oh yes -- unlike most participants around here, I admit to mistakes when
I make them. But virtually all people around here who accuse me of
making a mistake are themselves at fault. Being rational, I realize I
cannot change the world, and cannot educate the willfully ignorant. <shrug>
Tom Roberts
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| User: "Barry" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
15 Oct 2006 12:08:57 AM |
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Tom Roberts wrote:
Barry wrote:
Tom Roberts ran away when asked to explain why he contradicted himself.
(Not the first time he's run away, by the way, he has a history).
Hmmm. Apparently you do not understand my approach to this newsgroup. I
basically ignore people I have identified as clearly idiots.
I understand your approach very well.
As I pointed out, several days ago:
_________________
Your assumption was that ' "... It does not make sense to "leave the
universe" '.
Your conclusion was that "they do leave... ... but we don't know what
happens to them".
__________________
Then you ran away.
Those who developed the model you choose to study haven't supplied you
with the answer, so you deem the question "uninteresting".
You "don't know what happens" because nobody's told you yet.
You don't have the intellectual courage to think about it for yourself,
but those who do think about it are stupid, wilfully ignorant, idiots.
I understand your approach very well.
It's called dogmatism.
Have you found your pencil yet?
Barry
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| User: "Tom Roberts" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
15 Oct 2006 12:00:59 PM |
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Barry wrote:
[to me]
Your assumption was that ' "... It does not make sense to "leave the
universe" '.
Not really an "assumption", but rather a definition of those words.
Your conclusion was that "they do leave... ... but we don't know what
happens to them".
Right. The conclusion ought to be obvious: this does not make sense. <shrug>
I cannot help it if you want to know what happens when an object
intersects a singularity -- nobody knows what happens there. And we have
no applicable theory to make sense of it. <shrug>
You "don't know what happens" because nobody's told you yet.
No. You are supposed to read what I write. I said that the theory breaks
down at such a singularity, and we don't know how to construct a theory
that is valid there. <shrug>
Tom Roberts
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| User: "" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
15 Oct 2006 01:47:48 PM |
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Tom Roberts wrote:
Barry wrote:
Your assumption was that ' "... It does not make sense to "leave the
universe" '.
Not really an "assumption", but rather a definition of those words.
You weren''t "defining" anything. You were making a statement that to
"leave the Universe" couldn't be defined "sensibly" - had no sensible
meaning. In the context, you were using the word "Universe" as a name
for a particular manifold.
Your conclusion was that "they do leave... ... but we don't know what
happens to them".
Right. The conclusion ought to be obvious: this does not make sense. <shrug>
It's simple logic.
The conclusion should have been the original *statement* was wrong,
Objects can leave your manifold, which therefor cannot be the whole
Universe.
The conclusion shouldn't be a pathetic <shrug>.
I cannot help it if you want to know what happens when an object
intersects a singularity -- nobody knows what happens there. And we have
no applicable theory to make sense of it. <shrug>
And Flat Earthers can't make sense of lots of stuff either.
No. You are supposed to read what I write. I said that the theory breaks
down at such a singularity, and we don't know how to construct a theory
that is valid there. <shrug>
Nobody's told you yet so it's all very uninteresting, isn't it?
In my opinion, if the current theory isn't valid at something it
predicts, then it isn't really valid.
Even the Flat Earth theory is (locally) valid everywhere on Earth. Your
theory isn't even that good.
You don't have the intellectual courage to think about it for yourself,
You'ld rather refer to those who do think about it as stupid, wilfully
ignorant, idiots.
I understand your approach very well.
It's called dogmatism.
Have you found your pencil yet?
Barry
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| User: "LEJ Brouwer" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
14 Oct 2006 10:46:25 PM |
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Tom Roberts wrote:
Oh yes -- unlike most participants around here, I admit to mistakes when
I make them.
What a load of bollocks. You're so full of yourself you wouldn't admit
to your own mistake if it jumped up and bit you on the bottom.
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| User: "Sorcerer" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
15 Oct 2006 07:36:05 AM |
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"LEJ Brouwer" <intuitionist1@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1160883985.694630.273120@m7g2000cwm.googlegroups.com...
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| Tom Roberts wrote:
| > Oh yes -- unlike most participants around here, I admit to mistakes when
| > I make them.
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| What a load of bollocks. You're so full of yourself you wouldn't admit
| to your own mistake if it jumped up and bit you on the bottom.
===========================================
Roberts:
Standard and well-known derivations of the Lorentz transform are
based on the following assumptions/postulates/techniques:
1. The Principle of Relativity (Einstein's version)
Androcles:
Which one do we use?
Is it
a)
"But the ray moves relatively to the initial point of k, when measured
in the stationary system, with the velocity c-v..."
or
b) "It follows, further, that the velocity of light c cannot be altered
by
composition with a velocity less than that of light.
For this case we obtain V = (c+w)/(1+w/c) = c."
Roberts:
Is it [... irrelevant verbiage]
===========================================
"Yes, tests of strong fields are few and far between, but there are
some:
the binary pulsars, and observations of accretion disks near black
holes
============================================
Humpty Roberts let out a great sigh.
" <sigh>", he said.
"The nuances of English. I was discussing the usage of words and
not the concepts they represent."
============================================
Androcles:
An ELT (Earth Leakage Trip) disconnects the supply if more
than circa 30 milliamp of current is detected in those green wires.
Roberts:
Your lack of knowledge is QUITE DANGEROUS. That is plain and simply not
true.
Androcles:
Your LACK of knowledge is far more dangerous than my KNOWLEDGE.
Roberts:
There are special outlets equipped with Ground Fault Interrupters, and
they trip the circuit if the two power leads become unbalanced by more tha
~5 ma.
Manufacturer:
US applications include ground-fault protection of equipment (GFPE) using
the 10mA and 30mA fault current ratings, especially when high distributed
capacitance or other leakages cause excessive nuisance trips at lower fault
currents.
Applications for the 300mA rating are equipment protection and
fire prevention, limiting the energy of a fault to less than the
minimum ignition energy for many materials.
===========================================
| >> I repeat: that is not really "speed".
| > Let us elaborate this point.
|
| Imagine a train leaving one city at 12:00 and arriving in a city 60
| miles to its west at 12:01. Do you really think that train traveled
| 3,600 miles per hour? Of course not! This example used two _different_
| coordinate systems for "time", the two timezones of those two cities. To
| obtain the speed you _must_ use a single coordinate system; then you'll
| realize it traveled just under 60 miles per hour.
============================================
There is ONE admission:
news:WpbYg.14819$6S3.6439@newssvr25.news.prodigy.net
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| User: "jem" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
10 Oct 2006 08:00:25 AM |
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Edward Green wrote:
jem patiently waded through my screed, and wrote:
Edward Green wrote:
jem wrote:
Edward Green wrote:
On the table before me I have a Jack-in-the-Box. I have a physical
theory of this Box, and it tells me that Jack will spring out when my
clock reads "t = infinity". Hmm... I say. Does Jack ever spring out?
I'd say not... saying he springs out "at infinity" is just a funny way
of saying "never".
"Never", as measured by your clock.
Agreed.
But now Tom comes in the room, and accuses me of being a coordinate
chauvinist. For, he, claims, closer examination of my theory reveals
that local physical law is invariant in form under a transformation
which places me inside the box and maps my "infinity" to a finite time.
Jack pops out in finite time by _his_ watch, so only my prejudice leads
me to claim he "never" pops out. I am a coordinate-centric pig.
Should this argument sway me?
The argument that it'll pop out in a finite time if you'll just keep
time with a different clock? I don't think so.
Good. I don't think too much of it either.
It's partially a question of semantics, but I'd still argue that in my
universe, this transformation doesn't amount to a hill of beans. I and
all my descendants can watch the box until the stars wink out, and it
won't pop. What they will see is that "time" inside the box is running
down, and in fact running asymptotically to a finite duration. Not
only is the box never going to pop, its internal clock is never going
to pass midnight. This existence of the cute transformation symmetry
doesn't change anything operational for me.
That is, unless you're capable of adopting different "time perspectives"
(e.g. by moving differently).
So far I haven't said anything about movement. I'm abstracting this
"different observers" business to a case where the observer who seems
to slow down and stop is right there in front of us, so we don't have
any weasel room about simultaneity and distant regions of spacetime.
I don't see how you're going to avoid considerations of simultaneity.
An observer who's "right in front of us" won't see or exhibit these effects.
Suppose an object is receding from us in flat spacetime, undergoing
constant acceleration -- asymptotically approaching c, of course, in a
fixed Lorentzian frame. Suppose we sent a light pulse after it,
initially lagging it by a distance d (in the same frame). The closure
rate in this fixed frame is given by c - v_m, where v_m -> c. The
closure rate goes to zero, and the net distance closed (I emphasize,
measured in the fixed frame) is given by the integral of the closure
rate from initiation of the pulse to t = oo. The acceleration profile
may be chosen so that net_distance_closed < d : the light never catches
the particle.
Yes.
I suspect that if we integrated the proper time of the particle under
such an acceleration profile we would find that total elapsed proper
time following the passing of any fixed coordinate point is finite: the
particle runs down, and only takes finite proper time to get to
infinity!
No.
Let's see... I worked this out. I think in terms of my eta (==
1/gamma), the total closure of the pursuing light pulse went as eta^2,
and the total elapsed time went as eta. Therefore, it's a stronger
condition that elapsed time remain finite, but still achievable (eta
goes to zero as v -> c).
That is a strange conclusion, I agree -- stranger I think than the twin
paradox, to which it is a relative -- but was confirmed by Ben RG, one
of my authority figures. ;-)
Yep, I made a too quick extrapolation from the fact that no constant
acceleration can effect that result.
Supposing an acceleration profile can be produced with this property,
we seem to have a close analogy of an infalling particle in a black
hole: after some finite delay, light can no longer catch it, and it
takes finite proper time to reach an "event" we would tend to label
with "t = infinity".
No, the coordinate clocks encountered by the accelerating object will
always read a finite time.
I don't think you followed what I said.
I followed. My "No" was based on the same illogic my previous "No" was
based on.
The shudder quotes are meant to
suggest the accelerating observer will never see a clock reading
"t = oo" (what would that mean?), but will nonetheless take less than a
strictly bounded amount of proper time to get any coordinate time you
wish.
Right, and beyond.
You know, this is a real acid test case for the "infalling observer
sees the horizon in finite proper time, and sails right past" trope.
_If_ all possible proper times are somehow created equal, in a free,
just and egalitarian universe, just what happens to our strongly
accelerated observer in flat spacetime when his clock ticks out that
last second of proper time? If his clock is as good as everybody else's
clock, it must just keep on ticking, mustn't it?
But (ideal) clocks "never" tick out their "last second of proper time".
It's just that "never" doesn't have universal significance in
Relativity - one person's eternity is another's New York minute.
After "t_crit" it must
read "t_crit + 1". But where is our friend then, since all times up to
t_crit have already been mapped to coordinate times and positions from
here to infinity? He must have gone _past_ infinity, and right out of
our universe!
Right out of the Universe of every observer who watched his clocks tick
their last tock. Fortunately for him though, he can't be one of those
observers.
"Ooooh...."
Well, the result of this gedanken is not hard to fathom... during the
infinite time in our universe in which his clock is ticking its last
mortal second, something is bound to happen to the fellow. A rogue
comet will annihilate him, or the universe will go and heat death or
something. From our point of view he will be placed in suspended
animation (merely an extreme version of the traveling twin), and
something will happen to him between now and infinity, extricating us
from "but what happens in the _next_ second". Infinity is a very long
time. :-)
Does that mean the particle really "crosses infinity"?
Project for a rainy day: devise such an explicit acceleration profile,
and examine its behavior in the proper time of the particle
extrapolated past the finite proper time corresponding to "t =
infinity". Is there a second anomaly at a later, finite, proper time,
suggestive of a "spacetime singularity"?
You won't find your "singularity" by looking in the direction of
acceleration, however if you look in the opposite direction, you'll see
a region (the so-called Rindler Horizon), which, in some respects,
behaves like a BH horizon. In particular, any object that crosses this
horizon does so at the accelerator's "t = infinity".
Well, it works both ways then. If the accelerating observer sees a
horizon behind him, the stationary observer sees one in front of him...
well, the "horizon" in this analogy is really infinity, but at least
the stationary observer finds that after some elapsed time, he can no
longer even catch the fleeing ship with a radio message, urging it back
from the edge. "Come back, my love, all is forgiven!" Too late.
Forever too late.
That aspect (i.e. lost but not forgotten) works both ways too.
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| User: "jem" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
11 Oct 2006 07:28:12 AM |
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jem wrote:
Edward Green wrote:
jem patiently waded through my screed, and wrote:
Edward Green wrote:
I suspect that if we integrated the proper time of the particle under
such an acceleration profile we would find that total elapsed proper
time following the passing of any fixed coordinate point is finite: the
particle runs down, and only takes finite proper time to get to
infinity!
No.
Let's see... I worked this out. I think in terms of my eta (==
1/gamma), the total closure of the pursuing light pulse went as eta^2,
and the total elapsed time went as eta. Therefore, it's a stronger
condition that elapsed time remain finite, but still achievable (eta
goes to zero as v -> c).
That is a strange conclusion, I agree -- stranger I think than the twin
paradox, to which it is a relative -- but was confirmed by Ben RG, one
of my authority figures. ;-)
Yep, I made a too quick extrapolation from the fact that no constant
acceleration can effect that result.
I'm having 2nd thoughts about whether that extrapolation was wrong.
Yesterday, I derived a specific eta that satisfied your criteria, but it
turns out my derivation was wrong. Do you have a specific eta that works?
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| User: "Edward Green" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
15 Oct 2006 05:33:27 PM |
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some time ago, jem wrote:
Edward Green wrote:
<on the "Jack-in-the-box" argument>
So far I haven't said anything about movement. I'm abstracting this
"different observers" business to a case where the observer who seems
to slow down and stop is right there in front of us, so we don't have
any weasel room about simultaneity and distant regions of spacetime.
I don't see how you're going to avoid considerations of simultaneity.
An observer who's "right in front of us" won't see or exhibit these effects.
Yes... that's rather the point.
I'm not arguing that since an observer who is right in front of us
won't exhibit these effects, therefore we need never consider them.
I'm rather arguing that there are at least _some_ situations where we
might be willing to accept that a different time measure really was
running down and stopping, rather than only appearing to do so, and so,
in situations where simultaneity and spatial separation indeed come
into play we shouldn't _necessarily_ rush to the conclusion to that
"oh, that's just a matter of perspective".
There would seem to be three possibilities:
(1) the distant clock appearing to run down is really doing so
(2) the distant clock appearing to run down is not really doing so
(3) either (1) and (2) together, or neither, or the question is
meaningless, or other
My point is, there is no compelling reason to rush to (2) merely
because issues of simultaneity and separation of clocks intrude.
Now, I also tried to make the point that at least some spacetime
trajectories (albeit not geodesics) exhibit the "running down and
stopping" phenomenon (finite elapsed proper time), where it appears
(1) is the most natural interpretation.
Although a slurred over "yes" may have escaped from some lips, it was
instantly elided into the "but" (take your pick) i) your trajectory is
not a geodesic, ii) your trajectory exhibits unbounded proper
acceleration.
Well, OK... we must allow the little boys to stamp their feet and pinch
their lips together, and refuse to say "yes" first just because I'd
like them to, and address their but:
First, a trajectory tending towards arbitrarily large proper
accelerations with time is still a perfectly fine spacetime trajectory,
and who said anything about geodesics anyway?
But... Ok. If the peevish lads would open their mouths they might at
least admit we have disproved the vagorum (vague theorem) for general
spacetime trajectories. They in effect propose a _different_ vagorum,
in which either the additional restriction "bounded proper
acceleration", or "geodesic" is sufficient to require the vague result,
which I will leave unstated for now. Lets go right to the most
restrictive version, with "geodesics".
It is obvious to the most doltish observer that no geodesic in flat
spacetime shows the quality of reaching infinity in finite proper time,
because the "geodesics" in this case are simply boring linear
trajectories. So, to put some meat into the assertion, we must go to
curved spacetimes, where we in fact have the case in question: a
geodesic which takes a finite amount of proper time to reach an event,
which, from some perspectives, seems to take "forever".
Is it a correct vagorum that under the additional requirement of
geodesy that a trajectory reaching an event in finite proper time
always "really gets there", that the event in some sense "really
happens"?
Maybe. But at this point, paralleling the discussion of (1) and (2)
above, I see no reason to jump to one conclusion or the other by decree
.... that is begging the question.
In fact, in making the transition from flat to curved spacetimes, I
find the following modifications of the original vagorum and
counterexample at least equally plausible (actually, I find my version
more plausible, but I'm fibbing for effect): either...
(A) geodesics inherit the quality of geodesics in flat spacetime that
"every event along the way really happens -- no event represents
'infinity' " or,
(B) the addition of curved spacetime to the mix _enables_ us to
construct trajectories with the property of arriving at 'infinity' in
finite proper time, but now _without_ any proper acceleration at all
-- the spacetime in effect takes care of the accelerations for us,
painlessly.
<...>
But (ideal) clocks "never" tick out their "last second of proper time".
It's just that "never" doesn't have universal significance in
Relativity - one person's eternity is another's New York minute.
An ideal clock following the unbounded acceleration profile which
allowed it finite proper time before infinity would indeed tick out its
last second. What we might make like to make of this depends on which
of (A) or (B) above we find more plausible -- that the conversion into
a geodesic in curved spacetime ensures that the "never happens" quality
of some event is illusory, or the curved spacetime simply allows us to
effectively create such an "acceleration profile" without proper
acceleration.
(I should emphasize that the event of a geodesic crossing the horizon
is certainly an event smoothly embedded in the spacetime, and on the
geodesic -- that's not what I gainsay).
After "t_crit" it must
read "t_crit + 1". But where is our friend then, since all times up to
t_crit have already been mapped to coordinate times and positions from
here to infinity? He must have gone _past_ infinity, and right out of
our universe!
Right out of the Universe of every observer who watched his clocks tick
their last tock. Fortunately for him though, he can't be one of those
observers.
Aha... well, there we have the conundrum.
I can, by the way, suggest a "splice" of two copies of the real number
line, via a map, along which a particle following a certain trajectory
might be smoothly seen to move from one copy of the line to the other
-- past infinity -- in finite proper time. I don't suppose anybody is
interested: that in truth is merely an analogy, but possibly a close
one for particles going through the "event horizon".
<...>
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| User: "Barry" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
15 Oct 2006 06:50:31 PM |
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Edward Green wrote:
Is it a correct vagorum that under the additional requirement of
geodesy that a trajectory reaching an event in finite proper time
always "really gets there", that the event in some sense "really
happens"?
In fact, in making the transition from flat to curved spacetimes, I
find ... ...either...
(A) geodesics inherit the quality of geodesics in flat spacetime that
"every event along the way really happens -- no event represents
'infinity' " or,
(B) the addition of curved spacetime to the mix _enables_ us to
construct trajectories with the property of arriving at 'infinity' in
finite proper time, but now _without_ any proper acceleration at all
-- the spacetime in effect takes care of the accelerations for us,
painlessly.
An ideal clock following the unbounded acceleration profile which
allowed it finite proper time before infinity would indeed tick out its
last second. What we might make like to make of this depends on which
of (A) or (B) above we find more plausible -- that the conversion into
a geodesic in curved spacetime ensures that the "never happens" quality
of some event is illusory, or the curved spacetime simply allows us to
effectively create such an "acceleration profile" without proper
acceleration.
After "t_crit" it must
read "t_crit + 1". But where is our friend then, since all times up to
t_crit have already been mapped to coordinate times and positions from
here to infinity? He must have gone _past_ infinity, and right out of
our universe!
Where's Zeno when you need him?
Dead! Still lying in his grave, the lazy sod!
So we'll have to try our best without him.
It would seem that our friend isn't on the manifold that we've tried
to squeeze the Universe into.
He can't be "outside" the Universe, he must *be* somewhere!
Perhaps our manifold is embedded in some other manifold. We're sure to
find somewhere in there.
Wow! Our BH singularity has become just like the other singularities -
an artifact of the coordinates.
At one time there was thought to be no solution to the equation:
x^2 + 1 = 0
It was considered "impossible" to solve.
But once we consider the real line as being 'embedded" in the complex
plane, a whole "new" Universe opens up.
Or rather we recognize that the "old" Universe was "embedded" in a much
larger one.
"Suddenly" all quadratic equations have two roots, which wasn't "true"
before. We have a beautiful symmetry.
We need a more "symmetrical" Universe.
The question then becomes: What's on the "other side" of the
"singularity"?
Of course, symmetry there should be those *on* the "other side" who are
wondering the same thing.
"How can all this "stuff" have come from Nowhere?", they might ask.
Of course, sometimes we ask ourselves the same question.
Barry
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| User: "Edward Green" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
15 Oct 2006 09:04:04 PM |
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Barry wrote:
Where's Zeno when you need him?
Dead! Still lying in his grave, the lazy sod!
So we'll have to try our best without him.
You're right: this is all about Zeno. In fact, it's about two versions
of his famous paradox: the usual one, and the reverse one.
In the usual version, the runner is headed for some point which we, the
privileged observer, would agree he "really makes it to". But along
comes Zeno, and in effect choses a coordinate which blows up as the
runner approaches the point. Zeno now claims Achilles never makes it to
the finish line, because there is an infinite coordinate interval to go
before he gets there.
In the reversed version, the runner is really headed nowhere, merely
running forever down the number line. But now along comes Zeno's
brother Onez, and proposes that we use a coordinate which compresses
all the remaining number line into a finite increment. Onez now claims
that Achilles really gets to infinity, because there is only a finite
coordinate interval left to go before he gets there!
When an infalling observer approaches the event horizon, we have two
prominent parameterizations of his trajectory (parametrize my curve,
baby): one maps the remaining trajectory to an infinite interval on the
number line, the other, to a finite interval. The question is, will
the real measure of the remaining trajectory stand up: do we have a
forward Zeno's paradox, or a reversed one? Zeno or Onez?
MTW mention Zeno's paradox in discussing just this situation. In my
mind, of course, they get it backwards. At least they seem to be deaf
to the reverse possibility. Given my penchant for enumeration, we can
say either this is:
(1) a forward paradox, and the finite measure is the real deal, or
(2) a reverse paradox, and the infinite measure is the real deal, or
(3) too simplistic, and it's both, or neither, or ... etc.
The last possibility is tempting from a split-the-difference strategy:
certainly mathematically we have a real extension of the geodesic, and
the measure of proper time along the geodesic is (you got it) a real
measure of the proper time, but...
If the manifold is a map of physical events, then the infinite measure
to the crossing is the more meaningful measure to the outside observer,
since the "event" of the crossing is effectively infinitely removed
from him, it can have no causal effect on his own future. You may as
well consider events which lie in a map extending beyond the other
infinity (the normal one): the appearance of the horizon itself as a
locus of events, the extension of the manifold and of geodesics beyond
the horizon, may be viewed as artifacts of the solution.
It would seem that our friend isn't on the manifold that we've tried
to squeeze the Universe into.
He can't be "outside" the Universe, he must *be* somewhere!
Perhaps our manifold is embedded in some other manifold. We're sure to
find somewhere in there.
Wow! Our BH singularity has become just like the other singularities -
an artifact of the coordinates.
At one time there was thought to be no solution to the equation:
x^2 + 1 = 0
It was considered "impossible" to solve.
But once we consider the real line as being 'embedded" in the complex
plane, a whole "new" Universe opens up.
Or rather we recognize that the "old" Universe was "embedded" in a much
larger one.
"Suddenly" all quadratic equations have two roots, which wasn't "true"
before. We have a beautiful symmetry.
We need a more "symmetrical" Universe.
The question then becomes: What's on the "other side" of the
"singularity"?
Of course, symmetry there should be those *on* the "other side" who are
wondering the same thing.
"How can all this "stuff" have come from Nowhere?", they might ask.
Of course, sometimes we ask ourselves the same question.
Ahh... yours is a different heresy. I suggest the natural mathematical
extension of the solution beyond the event horizon may be artifactual
from a physical point of view, you OTOH suggest we extend the solution
"past" the singularity! Very interesting idea.
Well, fortunately there are more than enough heresies to go around, and
even if our heretical programs are slightly contradictory, we can sweep
this under the rug in an ecumenical spirit, like the organized churches
of the Jews and Christians.
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| User: "Tom Roberts" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
16 Oct 2006 07:24:13 PM |
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Edward Green wrote:
If the manifold is a map of physical events, then the infinite measure
to the crossing is the more meaningful measure to the outside observer,
since the "event" of the crossing is effectively infinitely removed
from him, it can have no causal effect on his own future.
Sure -- the distant observer cannot observe the infalling object
actually cross the horizon.
But that is COMPLETELY IRRELEVANT to the question "does the infalling
object cross the horizon?"
For that question, there is a clear and simple answer: yes. <shrug>
As I keep saying, you need to be more precise in thought and word. While
you can certainly formulate a question to which your observation has
relevance, the resulting question will be different from the one above
in important ways. <shrug>
Tom Roberts
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| User: "Edward Green" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
19 Oct 2006 05:24:05 PM |
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Tom Roberts wrote:
<...>
See my reply to jem. Subtract the 20 minutes.
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| User: "" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
19 Oct 2006 11:17:46 PM |
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Edward Green wrote:
The last possibility is tempting from a split-the-difference strategy:
certainly mathematically we have a real extension of the geodesic, and
the measure of proper time along the geodesic is (you got it) a real
measure of the proper time, but...
Mr. Green, you are making this waaaayy more difficult than it is,
mostly because you seem determined to capitulate to some sort of
philosophical analysis which constrains your options to exclude the
correct answer.
So..., let us see what your hangups with coordinate systems
lead to in much more familiar cases. Consider a spherical
surface. Pick ANY coordinate system (chart) you wish. No matter what
you choose, you have at least one singularity because an any atlas
(collection of charts) which covers the sphere requires at least two
charts. Based upon your arguments regarding the horizon of a black
hole,
are you going to also argue that any object located at the singular
point of your chart, falls out of the manifold or do you think the more
prudent explanation is that your coordintates fail to describe the
geometry
correctly at that point? Exercise: Using cartesian coordinates for the
euclidean plane, how many coordinate charts are required to cover the
sphere. Hint: More than two.
If the manifold is a map of physical events,
A manifold is not a map of physical events. A manifold is a
topological
space in which we define events to be points in the manifold. That
says NOTHING about any mapping of those events to a coordinate system.
In fact, it says nothing about how a distance function (metric) should
be defined. The latter two are additional restrictions. What you are
calling a ``map'' is a manifold + a metric + a coordinate chart, and
you
have implicitly assumed that any manifold representing a physical
system
can be covered using a single coordinate chart or else something is
wrong. As in the case with the sphere above, your implicit requirements
are simply not justified, unless you think the surface of a sphere
contains
physical singularities.
then the infinite measure
to the crossing is the more meaningful measure to the outside observer,
since the "event" of the crossing is effectively infinitely removed
from him, it can have no causal effect on his own future.
There is no such event. By definition, an event is a spacetime POINT,
not a world line connecting two points. Events lie either outside,
inside or on the horizon. As to the second par of your argument, there
are
an infinite number of events, even in special relativity, which cannot
affect your future, namely those outside your light cone. So?
You may as
well consider events which lie in a map extending beyond the other
infinity (the normal one):
You do this all the time, without even thinking about it, when
measuring
distances on the Earth. How far North can you walk? Obviously, only
so far, but you don't fall off the Earth when you reach the North pole.
the appearance of the horizon itself as a
locus of events, the extension of the manifold and of geodesics beyond
the horizon, may be viewed as artifacts of the solution.
Since the mere possibility of the existence of black holes comes from
general relativity, so does the physical interpretation of its
properties.
If you want to invent a black hole which has different properties, you
have to invent your own theory which predicts it. Along with that,
comes
whatever other consequences self-consistency requires.
*snip*
Ahh... yours is a different heresy. I suggest the natural mathematical
extension of the solution beyond the event horizon may be artifactual
from a physical point of view, you OTOH suggest we extend the solution
"past" the singularity! Very interesting idea.
That interesting idea has appeared in a great deal of less glamorous
physics without alarming anyone. For some reason, performing the
physical
analysis and interpreting the physical significance of the singular
points doesn't seem to generate objections from the same people who
object to interpreting the coordinate singularities in general
relativity.
Do you really think that physical laws depend upon your choice of
coordinates or do you think it is more reasonable to assume that
different
choices of coordinates for the same physical phenomena must lead to
reconcilable descriptions of the same physical laws? I would find it
difficult to believe that changing coordinates actually changes the
physical laws of the universe.
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| User: "Edward Green" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
21 Oct 2006 09:27:19 AM |
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wrote:
Edward Green wrote:
The last possibility is tempting from a split-the-difference strategy:
certainly mathematically we have a real extension of the geodesic, and
the measure of proper time along the geodesic is (you got it) a real
measure of the proper time, but...
Mr. Green, you are making this waaaayy more difficult than it is,
mostly because you seem determined to capitulate to some sort of
philosophical analysis which constrains your options to exclude the
correct answer.
Determined to captitulate? I must steal that phrase.
So..., let us see what your hangups with coordinate systems
lead to in much more familiar cases.
I disagree that I have "hangups with coordinate systems". That's your
view.
<snip standard argument describing inability to cover sphere with one
smooth mapping of cartesian coordinates>
I think you should should pay attention to what I have not said as well
as what I have said. I don't recall claiming that any time there was a
coordinate singularity something physically strange was happening. I
can see why you might think that, since I am in effect arguing there is
something strange about the event horizon where it is generally
understood, in one choice of coordinates, that there is in fact a
coordinate singularity.
If the manifold is a map of physical events,
A manifold is not a map of physical events. A manifold is a
topological
space in which we define events to be points in the manifold.
Hold on there. Your mathematical description does not contradict my
statement. A particular possible spacetime manifold is imagined to be
in a one-to-one correspondence with a possible space of physical
events. That makes it a "map" of physical events.
That
says NOTHING about any mapping of those events to a coordinate system.
We are allowed to use the powerful concept "map" in more than one
sense. Points in the manifold may be mapped to coordinates, they are
also mapped to physical events.
In fact, it says nothing about how a distance function (metric) should
be defined. The latter two are additional restrictions. What you are
calling a ``map'' is a manifold + a metric + a coordinate chart, and
you
have implicitly assumed that any manifold representing a physical
system
can be covered using a single coordinate chart or else something is
wrong.
Nice try, but no.
As in the case with the sphere above, your implicit requirements
are simply not justified, unless you think the surface of a sphere
contains
physical singularities.
then the infinite measure
to the crossing is the more meaningful measure to the outside observer,
since the "event" of the crossing is effectively infinitely removed
from him, it can have no causal effect on his own future.
There is no such event. By definition, an event is a spacetime POINT,
not a world line connecting two points. Events lie either outside,
inside or on the horizon.
What are you talking about? Points in the manifold and events are
supposed to be in one-to-one correspondence. The horizon is a surface
in the manifold. A trajectory crosses it. The crossing of the surface
defines a point.
Ah.. I see... you think by "crossing" I must mean some piece of a world
line.
As to the second par of your argument, there
are
an infinite number of events, even in special relativity, which cannot
affect your future, namely those outside your light cone. So?
This is why I wasn't quite ready to operationalize my concepts just
yet. Of course, you may feel that this vagueness means I have nothing
to say. I can't help that. Neither you nor anybody else here seems
quite to have made contact with my arguments yet. This could mean a
few things: either I am a delusional lunatic, as is so often met with
in these precincts, or I have some coherent but non-standard way of
appraoching things. Or some convex combination of these posibilities.
In your mind you may be correcting me from error, while in mine,
however well-meaning your effort, you are repeating some standard
arguments which somehow miss the point of what I am saying -- they
don't contradict, they don't even engage. Again, I could be
delusional, or it could be that no matter what I write, you will only
preceive standard errors, to which you can rejoin standard corrections.
It's also much easier to repeat bolier plate arguments, assuming they
must somewho be applicable, that really try to understand the internal
logic of my (presumed) errors.
I don't know... maybe I should continue to discuss this with you, on
the off-hand chance I might change your thinking, as well as you
refining mine. Basically though, I think there is about zero chance of
this first thing happening. You have to at least be willing to
_entertain_ some possibilities to discuss them, and I don't think you
are going to do that. I will be wasting my time.
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| User: "jem" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
17 Oct 2006 07:35:47 AM |
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Edward Green wrote:
some time ago, jem wrote:
Edward Green wrote:
<on the "Jack-in-the-box" argument>
So far I haven't said anything about movement. I'm abstracting this
"different observers" business to a case where the observer who seems
to slow down and stop is right there in front of us, so we don't have
any weasel room about simultaneity and distant regions of spacetime.
I don't see how you're going to avoid considerations of simultaneity.
An observer who's "right in front of us" won't see or exhibit these effects.
Yes... that's rather the point.
I'm not arguing that since an observer who is right in front of us
won't exhibit these effects, therefore we need never consider them.
I'm rather arguing that there are at least _some_ situations where we
might be willing to accept that a different time measure really was
running down and stopping, rather than only appearing to do so, and so,
in situations where simultaneity and spatial separation indeed come
into play we shouldn't _necessarily_ rush to the conclusion to that
"oh, that's just a matter of perspective".
All that can ever be said about *any* phenomenon is how it appears -
everything's a matter of perspective.
There would seem to be three possibilities:
(1) the distant clock appearing to run down is really doing so
(2) the distant clock appearing to run down is not really doing so
(3) either (1) and (2) together, or neither, or the question is
meaningless, or other
It's meaningless until you define what it means to "really do so" as
opposed to "apparently do so".
My point is, there is no compelling reason to rush to (2) merely
because issues of simultaneity and separation of clocks intrude.
Now, I also tried to make the point that at least some spacetime
trajectories (albeit not geodesics) exhibit the "running down and
stopping" phenomenon (finite elapsed proper time), where it appears
(1) is the most natural interpretation.
Although a slurred over "yes" may have escaped from some lips, it was
instantly elided into the "but" (take your pick) i) your trajectory is
not a geodesic, ii) your trajectory exhibits unbounded proper
acceleration.
Well, OK... we must allow the little boys to stamp their feet and pinch
their lips together, and refuse to say "yes" first just because I'd
like them to, and address their but:
First, a trajectory tending towards arbitrarily large proper
accelerations with time is still a perfectly fine spacetime trajectory,
and who said anything about geodesics anyway?
But... Ok. If the peevish lads would open their mouths they might at
least admit we have disproved the vagorum (vague theorem) for general
spacetime trajectories. They in effect propose a _different_ vagorum,
in which either the additional restriction "bounded proper
acceleration", or "geodesic" is sufficient to require the vague result,
which I will leave unstated for now. Lets go right to the most
restrictive version, with "geodesics".
It is obvious to the most doltish observer that no geodesic in flat
spacetime shows the quality of reaching infinity in finite proper time,
because the "geodesics" in this case are simply boring linear
trajectories. So, to put some meat into the assertion, we must go to
curved spacetimes, where we in fact have the case in question: a
geodesic which takes a finite amount of proper time to reach an event,
which, from some perspectives, seems to take "forever".
Is it a correct vagorum that under the additional requirement of
geodesy that a trajectory reaching an event in finite proper time
always "really gets there", that the event in some sense "really
happens"?
Any event that's describable by a physical theory "really happens" in
that theory.
Maybe. But at this point, paralleling the discussion of (1) and (2)
above, I see no reason to jump to one conclusion or the other by decree
... that is begging the question.
In fact, in making the transition from flat to curved spacetimes, I
find the following modifications of the original vagorum and
counterexample at least equally plausible (actually, I find my version
more plausible, but I'm fibbing for effect): either...
(A) geodesics inherit the quality of geodesics in flat spacetime that
"every event along the way really happens -- no event represents
'infinity' " or,
(B) the addition of curved spacetime to the mix _enables_ us to
construct trajectories with the property of arriving at 'infinity' in
finite proper time, but now _without_ any proper acceleration at all
-- the spacetime in effect takes care of the accelerations for us,
painlessly.
Infinity can be reached in the flat spacetime of SR. You reach it
everytime a Rindler horizon passes by you (i.e. you leave the Universe
belonging to the horizon's owner).
<...>
But (ideal) clocks "never" tick out their "last second of proper time".
It's just that "never" doesn't have universal significance in
Relativity - one person's eternity is another's New York minute.
An ideal clock following the unbounded acceleration profile which
allowed it finite proper time before infinity would indeed tick out its
last second.
No. The infinity that would be reached is the time/distance as recorded
by relatively moving clocks/rulers.
What we might make like to make of this depends on which
of (A) or (B) above we find more plausible -- that the conversion into
a geodesic in curved spacetime ensures that the "never happens" quality
of some event is illusory, or the curved spacetime simply allows us to
effectively create such an "acceleration profile" without proper
acceleration.
(I should emphasize that the event of a geodesic crossing the horizon
is certainly an event smoothly embedded in the spacetime, and on the
geodesic -- that's not what I gainsay).
After "t_crit" it must
read "t_crit + 1". But where is our friend then, since all times up to
t_crit have already been mapped to coordinate times and positions from
here to infinity? He must have gone _past_ infinity, and right out of
our universe!
Right out of the Universe of every observer who watched his clocks tick
their last tock. Fortunately for him though, he can't be one of those
observers.
Aha... well, there we have the conundrum.
This discussion is about a theory, and everything the theory says is
well-defined, so there shouldn't be any conundrums. According to
Relativity, there are events which *never* occur from some perspectives,
which nevertheless *do* occur from other perspectives, i.e. "never" is
relative.
I can, by the way, suggest a "splice" of two copies of the real number
line, via a map, along which a particle following a certain trajectory
might be smoothly seen to move from one copy of the line to the other
-- past infinity -- in finite proper time. I don't suppose anybody is
interested: that in truth is merely an analogy, but possibly a close
one for particles going through the "event horizon".
A better analogy is Relativity.
<...>
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| User: "Edward Green" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
19 Oct 2006 05:23:04 PM |
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I wrote:
<something which sounded profound to me>
jem wrote:
<something which sounded profound to him>
I just wasted 20 minutes of my life considering how I might reply to
you. This is my conclusion: One of us is a fool -- it may be me, but I
don't intend to spend more time in this avenue trying to find out. The
method is incapable of making the determination.
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| User: "jem" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
20 Oct 2006 08:03:56 AM |
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Edward Green wrote:
I wrote:
<something which sounded profound to me>
jem wrote:
<something which sounded profound to him>
I just wasted 20 minutes of my life considering how I might reply to
you. This is my conclusion: One of us is a fool -- it may be me, but I
don't intend to spend more time in this avenue trying to find out. The
method is incapable of making the determination.
I thought you were a smart guy, Green, but smart guys don't discuss
things only with people who agree with them. I didn't say (or think I
said) anything profound - what I said, I consider to be facts, and I
don't mind having them questioned - that's how learning takes place, but
perhaps that's not what you're interested in.
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| User: "Phil" |
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| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
08 Oct 2006 04:34:15 AM |
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It really, *really* looks like you have trodden upon forbidden
territory. Send a flare with a timer into a black hole, and there is a
finite time limit for the timer beyond which light will take an infinite
amount of time to return to you. If I understand the official claim,
that is it. I think you do not believe this, and I really like your
attempt to obtain a flat-space example that (1) *should* be equivalent
to what happens when an object falls into a black hole, and (2) has no
finite limit for the timer. Again, people can hand out all the fancy
math they want, but if that math does not have a true and accurate
alignment with the reality of a black hole, then the conclusions are
invalid. Does the time-rate of an object fall to zero at the event
horizon as seen by outside observers? I say yes. Does the maximum
velocity, as seen by local observers, remain c? I say yes. If so, then
the maximum velocity, as seen by outside observers, of an object
approaching the event horizon must drop to zero at the event horizon.
And in that case, there is no finite time limit for the timer. It takes
a finite time (relative to an outside observer) for the flare to reach a
certain point, and it *must* take less time for light to return to the
flare's starting position. Again, didn't physicists used to believe that
objects did *not* cross the event horizon in finite time? And did they
change because this led to a contradiction, where photons gained near
infinite mass, causing changes in the gravitational well, that would be
seen by outside observers in a *finite* period of time? Did physicists
change their minds about the ability to cross the event horizon in
finite time to avoid the "runaway mass increase" problem?
Unless there is something wrong with the premises or the conclusion of
the above proof, it is also a proof that any equation which states that
a finite time limit exists is either flawed or inapplicable/misapplied.
You simply cannot say that an *proof* is wrong because a mere *argument*
disagrees with it. Now, the proof *might* be wrong, if a premise is
false or the conclusion violates a law of logic, but until you can say
what the error is, you cannot simply *assume* that a mere argument which
appears to contradict the proof is correct, simply because lots and lots
of people *believe* the argument must be correct (perhaps to avoid the
runaway mass problem). Has anyone actually found a *proof* that a finite
time limit exists for the timer? The arguments I have seen so far do not
necessarily follow, as far as I can tell (although I haven't found the
flaw if one exists), from iron-clad premises.
This really seems like a simple problem which too many people are making
too difficult, perhaps just difficult enough to allow a "convenient"
answer to appear using errors that cannot be readily seen. Unless an
object can exceed the local velocity of light, objects cannot possibly
cross the event horizon in a finite period of time. And since light
always travels faster than objects with mass (we are assuming a perfect
vaccum surrounding the objects and photons), a light pulse can always
return to the flare's starting position in less local time than it took
for the flare to reach its position near the event horizon. And since
its time-rate never reaches zero, that elapsed local time cannot
possibly be infinite as seen by observers near the flare's original
position. If that leads to contradictions, too bad. We then need to
change the theory or assumptions that lead to the contradiction. That
actually is how science is supposed to proceed, last time I checked.
Phil
Edward Green wrote:
jem wrote:
Edward Green wrote:
How long can I wait before hitting the button so that the light pulse
will reach the rocket before it crosses the horizon in its own proper
time, signaling it to return? [Ignore how much thrust will be
required, and how blueshifted the signal will be when it reaches the
rocket.]
Ignoring the limited lifetime stumbling block, you can wait forever -
you'll always be able to retrieve your rocket (provided it's capable of
unlimited thrust).
It has already been mentioned by authoritative posters (no irony
involved, since I can't reproduce their calculations, but have little
reason to doubt them) that this is incorrect. I have nothing to add.
What you haven't recognized, is that, in Relativity,
your forever doesn't correspond to everyone else's forever.
But I have something to add here (besides more of the fifth of scotch I
just purchased to my glass). Let's start at the beginning...
In SR, given not terribly unfriendly accelerations, all observers are
equivalent in a strong sense: at close of business, tired out from a
long day of playing with clocks and meter sticks, they may all turn
their rockets around and head for the station, where they can swap
stories over a few drinks at the bar.
But in some spacetimes of GR, or in the event of sufficiently
unfriendly accelerations in SR, all observers lose equivalency, in the
sense that for a given observer, there are some others with whom he can
eventually no longer communicate. They may as well be "out of his
universe". We may still like to hold them morally equivalent to us, in
a sense of fair play, but we might also claim with some justice that
what can never be communicated to us is no longer part of our world.
Here's a related scenario:
On the table before me I have a Jack-in-the-Box. I have a physical
theory of this Box, and it tells me that Jack will spring out when my
clock reads "t = infinity". Hmm... I say. Does Jack ever spring out?
I'd say not... saying he springs out "at infinity" is just a funny way
of saying "never".
But now Tom comes in the room, and accuses me of being a coordinate
chauvinist. For, he, claims, closer examination of my theory reveals
that local physical law is invariant in form under a transformation
which places me inside the box and maps my "infinity" to a finite time.
Jack pops out in finite time by _his_ watch, so only my prejudice leads
me to claim he "never" pops out. I am a coordinate-centric pig.
Should this argument sway me?
It's partially a question of semantics, but I'd still argue that in my
universe, this transformation doesn't amount to a hill of beans. I and
all my descendants can watch the box until the stars wink out, and it
won't pop. What they will see is that "time" inside the box is running
down, and in fact running asymptotically to a finite duration. Not
only is the box never going to pop, its internal clock is never going
to pass midnight. This existence of the cute transformation symmetry
doesn't change anything operational for me.
It is, or was, my supposition that black holes (the objects described
by the theory of GR) in some respects act like this box, but with a
twist. There is the added complication that not only will we never see
the box pop, but it is moved a far away from us, so that our mapping of
"simultaneous" inside and outside times becomes ambiguous! Damn
nuisance. This makes it harder to dismiss the aforementioned
transformation as a mathematical existent but operationally
inconsequent oddity. If we _could_ always get a signal to the box
before it popped (contact the infalling probe), ordering it to put on
the latch, then we would have support for the idea that it still never
popped, though we hid it far away. But we can't always get the signal
to it in time.
Now, like a persistent defense lawyer, I see this result as a setback,
but do not admit defeat. There is something funny going on here. Can
the following mapping be made mathematically precise?
Suppose an object is receding from us in flat spacetime, undergoing
constant acceleration -- asymptotically approaching c, of course, in a
fixed Lorentzian frame. Suppose we sent a light pulse after it,
initially lagging it by a distance d (in the same frame). The closure
rate in this fixed frame is given by c - v_m, where v_m -> c. The
closure rate goes to zero, and the net distance closed (I emphasize,
measured in the fixed frame) is given by the integral of the closure
rate from initiation of the pulse to t = oo. The acceleration profile
may be chosen so that net_distance_closed < d : the light never catches
the particle.
I suspect that if we integrated the proper time of the particle under
such an acceleration profile we would find that total elapsed proper
time following the passing of any fixed coordinate point is finite: the
particle runs down, and only takes finite proper time to get to
infinity!
Supposing an acceleration profile can be produced with this property,
we seem to have a close analogy of an infalling particle in a black
hole: after some finite delay, light can no longer catch it, and it
takes finite proper time to reach an "event" we would tend to label
with "t = infinity".
Does that mean the particle really "crosses infinity"?
Project for a rainy day: devise such an explicit acceleration profile,
and examine its behavior in the proper time of the particle
extrapolated past the finite proper time corresponding to "t =
infinity". Is there a second anomaly at a later, finite, proper time,
suggestive of a "spacetime singularity"?
.
|
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| User: "Phil" |
|
| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
09 Oct 2006 10:51:39 AM |
|
|
Phil wrote:
It really, *really* looks like you have trodden upon forbidden
territory. Send a flare with a timer into a black hole, and there is a
finite time limit for the timer beyond which light will take an infinite
amount of time to return to you. If I understand the official claim,
that is it.
Oops! No, there can be a finite limit for the timer on the flare, but
there seem to be many claims that there is a finite period of time in
which we can receive a light signal coming back, or even that the flare
crosses the event horizon in a finite time as seen by outside observers.
In other words, in addition to there being a finite period on the timer
before it crosses the event horizon in local time, the current claim
appears to be that there is a smaller finite limit for the timer,
*prior* to crossing the event horizon, beyond which light will never
escape. The alternative to this belief is that outside observers could
potentially see light returning from the flare at any finite time
whatsoever. If I understand you correctly, the question you are asking
by sending a light pulse in to trigger the rocket's return is equivalent
to asking whether a timer could be set on a flare that would send light
back out at any finite time as seen by the outside observers, and my
point below is that, logically speaking, the answer must be yes, to such
a degree that if the math says otherwise, then we have either (1) an
error in the application of the math or (2) an error in our theories.
Confused Phil
I think you do not believe this, and I really like your
attempt to obtain a flat-space example that (1) *should* be equivalent
to what happens when an object falls into a black hole, and (2) has no
finite limit for the timer. Again, people can hand out all the fancy
math they want, but if that math does not have a true and accurate
alignment with the reality of a black hole, then the conclusions are
invalid. Does the time-rate of an object fall to zero at the event
horizon as seen by outside observers? I say yes. Does the maximum
velocity, as seen by local observers, remain c? I say yes. If so, then
the maximum velocity, as seen by outside observers, of an object
approaching the event horizon must drop to zero at the event horizon.
And in that case, there is no finite time limit for the timer. It takes
a finite time (relative to an outside observer) for the flare to reach a
certain point, and it *must* take less time for light to return to the
flare's starting position. Again, didn't physicists used to believe that
objects did *not* cross the event horizon in finite time? And did they
change because this led to a contradiction, where photons gained near
infinite mass, causing changes in the gravitational well, that would be
seen by outside observers in a *finite* period of time? Did physicists
change their minds about the ability to cross the event horizon in
finite time to avoid the "runaway mass increase" problem?
Unless there is something wrong with the premises or the conclusion of
the above proof, it is also a proof that any equation which states that
a finite time limit exists is either flawed or inapplicable/misapplied.
You simply cannot say that an *proof* is wrong because a mere *argument*
disagrees with it. Now, the proof *might* be wrong, if a premise is
false or the conclusion violates a law of logic, but until you can say
what the error is, you cannot simply *assume* that a mere argument which
appears to contradict the proof is correct, simply because lots and lots
of people *believe* the argument must be correct (perhaps to avoid the
runaway mass problem). Has anyone actually found a *proof* that a finite
time limit exists for the timer? The arguments I have seen so far do not
necessarily follow, as far as I can tell (although I haven't found the
flaw if one exists), from iron-clad premises.
This really seems like a simple problem which too many people are making
too difficult, perhaps just difficult enough to allow a "convenient"
answer to appear using errors that cannot be readily seen. Unless an
object can exceed the local velocity of light, objects cannot possibly
cross the event horizon in a finite period of time. And since light
always travels faster than objects with mass (we are assuming a perfect
vaccum surrounding the objects and photons), a light pulse can always
return to the flare's starting position in less local time than it took
for the flare to reach its position near the event horizon. And since
its time-rate never reaches zero, that elapsed local time cannot
possibly be infinite as seen by observers near the flare's original
position. If that leads to contradictions, too bad. We then need to
change the theory or assumptions that lead to the contradiction. That
actually is how science is supposed to proceed, last time I checked.
Phil
Edward Green wrote:
jem wrote:
Edward Green wrote:
How long can I wait before hitting the button so that the light pulse
will reach the rocket before it crosses the horizon in its own proper
time, signaling it to return? [Ignore how much thrust will be
required, and how blueshifted the signal will be when it reaches the
rocket.]
Ignoring the limited lifetime stumbling block, you can wait forever -
you'll always be able to retrieve your rocket (provided it's capable of
unlimited thrust).
It has already been mentioned by authoritative posters (no irony
involved, since I can't reproduce their calculations, but have little
reason to doubt them) that this is incorrect. I have nothing to add.
What you haven't recognized, is that, in Relativity,
your forever doesn't correspond to everyone else's forever.
But I have something to add here (besides more of the fifth of scotch I
just purchased to my glass). Let's start at the beginning...
In SR, given not terribly unfriendly accelerations, all observers are
equivalent in a strong sense: at close of business, tired out from a
long day of playing with clocks and meter sticks, they may all turn
their rockets around and head for the station, where they can swap
stories over a few drinks at the bar.
But in some spacetimes of GR, or in the event of sufficiently
unfriendly accelerations in SR, all observers lose equivalency, in the
sense that for a given observer, there are some others with whom he can
eventually no longer communicate. They may as well be "out of his
universe". We may still like to hold them morally equivalent to us, in
a sense of fair play, but we might also claim with some justice that
what can never be communicated to us is no longer part of our world.
Here's a related scenario:
On the table before me I have a Jack-in-the-Box. I have a physical
theory of this Box, and it tells me that Jack will spring out when my
clock reads "t = infinity". Hmm... I say. Does Jack ever spring out?
I'd say not... saying he springs out "at infinity" is just a funny way
of saying "never".
But now Tom comes in the room, and accuses me of being a coordinate
chauvinist. For, he, claims, closer examination of my theory reveals
that local physical law is invariant in form under a transformation
which places me inside the box and maps my "infinity" to a finite time.
Jack pops out in finite time by _his_ watch, so only my prejudice leads
me to claim he "never" pops out. I am a coordinate-centric pig.
Should this argument sway me?
It's partially a question of semantics, but I'd still argue that in my
universe, this transformation doesn't amount to a hill of beans. I and
all my descendants can watch the box until the stars wink out, and it
won't pop. What they will see is that "time" inside the box is running
down, and in fact running asymptotically to a finite duration. Not
only is the box never going to pop, its internal clock is never going
to pass midnight. This existence of the cute transformation symmetry
doesn't change anything operational for me.
It is, or was, my supposition that black holes (the objects described
by the theory of GR) in some respects act like this box, but with a
twist. There is the added complication that not only will we never see
the box pop, but it is moved a far away from us, so that our mapping of
"simultaneous" inside and outside times becomes ambiguous! Damn
nuisance. This makes it harder to dismiss the aforementioned
transformation as a mathematical existent but operationally
inconsequent oddity. If we _could_ always get a signal to the box
before it popped (contact the infalling probe), ordering it to put on
the latch, then we would have support for the idea that it still never
popped, though we hid it far away. But we can't always get the signal
to it in time.
Now, like a persistent defense lawyer, I see this result as a setback,
but do not admit defeat. There is something funny going on here. Can
the following mapping be made mathematically precise?
Suppose an object is receding from us in flat spacetime, undergoing
constant acceleration -- asymptotically approaching c, of course, in a
fixed Lorentzian frame. Suppose we sent a light pulse after it,
initially lagging it by a distance d (in the same frame). The closure
rate in this fixed frame is given by c - v_m, where v_m -> c. The
closure rate goes to zero, and the net distance closed (I emphasize,
measured in the fixed frame) is given by the integral of the closure
rate from initiation of the pulse to t = oo. The acceleration profile
may be chosen so that net_distance_closed < d : the light never catches
the particle.
I suspect that if we integrated the proper time of the particle under
such an acceleration profile we would find that total elapsed proper
time following the passing of any fixed coordinate point is finite: the
particle runs down, and only takes finite proper time to get to
infinity!
Supposing an acceleration profile can be produced with this property,
we seem to have a close analogy of an infalling particle in a black
hole: after some finite delay, light can no longer catch it, and it
takes finite proper time to reach an "event" we would tend to label
with "t = infinity".
Does that mean the particle really "crosses infinity"?
Project for a rainy day: devise such an explicit acceleration profile,
and examine its behavior in the proper time of the particle
extrapolated past the finite proper time corresponding to "t =
infinity". Is there a second anomaly at a later, finite, proper time,
suggestive of a "spacetime singularity"?
.
|
|
|
| User: "Tom Roberts" |
|
| Title: Re: What an odd way to hold a discussion... question follows |
10 Oct 2006 02:56:48 PM |
|
|
Phil wrote:
there can be a finite limit for the timer on the flare, but
there seem to be many claims that there is a finite period of time in
which we can receive a light signal coming back, or even that the flare
crosses the event horizon in a finite time as seen by outside observers.
In other words, in addition to there being a finite period on the timer
before it crosses the event horizon in local time, the current claim
appears to be that there is a smaller finite limit for the timer,
*prior* to crossing the event horizon, beyond which light will never
escape.
You bounce around a lot and keep making such imprecise statements that I
cannot follow what you are trying to say. But I can say this:
A) For an observer in Schw. spacetime hovering outside the horizon who
drops a flare set to glow a time T after release, then there is a
finite value Tmax such that if the timer is set to T>Tmax t | | | |