when NaturalNumbers = p-adics what alters in the Riemann Hypothesis Re: proof of the Riemann Hypothesis



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Topic: Science > Physics
User: "Archimedes Plutonium"
Date: 23 Jan 2004 01:32:59 AM
Object: when NaturalNumbers = p-adics what alters in the Riemann Hypothesis Re: proof of the Riemann Hypothesis
(snip my old post of 1996) And below is a re-post of Riemann
Hypothesis that was on my website (now moving to a new location and
will be up and running in the next several months).
COMMENTS about RH: If I had stuck with doing and concentrated on math
from 1996 to 2004, one of the main topics on my agenda would have been
to reconcile RH with the idea that the NaturalNumbers were the
p-adics. And that precarious situation would have forced me patch up
or mend the notion that the NaturalNumbers lie on the 1/2 Real line.
I would have had to consider two extreme cases: (1) that the RH is
completely false just as FLT is completely false when NaturalNumbers =
p-adics. If taking that extreme route would have had me find out what
was flawed in my claimed two proofs below.
(2) the second extreme case is to say that something lies on the 1/2
Real line but not the NaturalNumbers of the illdefined notion of
finite-integers but rather instead the p-adics. Only the line is not a
straight line. And my second *alleged proof below* using a spiral sort
of touches or hints of a curved line.
As far as I know from 1993-1996 in conversation with Karl Heuer about
my RH proofs the number 2 as N in the encoding of ((N+N)^1/N) =
((NxN)^1/N) = N remains the same whether we think of 2 as a p-adic or
as a finite integer. So that encoding formula is not corrupted.
Then there are loads of possibilities between those two extreme cases.
My gut feeling is that my 2 alleged proofs of RH below are flawed
because I discovered them before I discovered the idea NaturalNumbers
= p-adics.
Flawed because if I really believe NaturalNumbers = p-adics means FLT
is false and so that demands the *nonexistence of a pattern ascribed
by RH that the NaturalNumbers all lie on a 1/2 Real line.* If
NaturalNumbers are truly the p-adics, then the acute regularity that
Riemann Hypothesis projects cannot be regular. NaturalNumbers as the
same set as p-adics cannot be so regular as to be on a straight line
that is 1/2 Real line.
So, if I had devoted 1996-2004 to more mathematics, this puzzle, this
mess of the RH had to be straightened out by me. Meaning that I would
have had to teach myself a deeper understanding of RH. I would have
perhaps had to learn as much about RH as the genius Riemann himself
knew of RH and then been able to make the patches.
My gut feeling is that RH is as false as FLT is false where p-adics
yield millions of counterexamples. And this gut feeling is supported
by the fact that thousands of mathematicians have battered their
brains out trying to prove RH just as thousands battered their brains
out trying to prove FLT. None will succeed with the framework of
NaturalNumbers = FiniteIntegers because that is the root cause of the
entire problem. So the long history of never a proof for RH or for FLT
(Wiles is a sham) is all due to the fact that you have to fix
NaturalNumbers before you make a FLT-like statement or before you make
a RH-like statement.
So I believe my below 2 alleged proofs of RH are false because I have
not fully incorporated the tenet that NaturalNumbers = p-adics.
So, If I can show p-adic counterexamples to RH, then RH is conquered.
There is a P-adic Riemann Hypothesis but I have never spent the time
to learn it.


I am pleased that someone can repost one of my old posts as if it were
yesterday. And I find it somewhat refreshing to see a 1996 post of
mine as if it were posted yesterday, even a 1993 post of mine because
the idea that the Natural Numbers set is ill-defined and that these
are in fact the p-adics was an idea of mine dating back to 1993.

The website that contained all of the math proofs no longer exists:
http://www.newphys.se/elektromagnum/physics/LudwigPlutonium/

I am in the process of getting a new website to house all of the
science I have done, and please be patient for it will take months to
get this accomplished.

I have not been active in mathematics after 1996 and the reason being
is that I eventually realized that mathematics is the least satisfying
of the sciences. Not anything personal. The history of science
compared to mathematics is my testiment proof of the claim that
mathematics is the least satisfying of all the sciences. What I mean
by that is that Mathematics does not have that "arm of Experimental
proof" that all the other sciences have, especially the hardcore
sciences. And thus, a person who becomes creatively involved with
mathematics easily ends up with frustration rather than joy of
accomplishment. That creative math usually ends in a shouting
argumentative nasty tirade. Example: back in 1988 was news of a
test-tube water fusion called "cold fusion" and circa 1993 was news of
Wiles claiming proof of FLT. It took only 7 years for the physics
community to debunk the cold-fusion claim and that is because so many
Experiments were rapidly conducted. On the other hand, mathematics is
mostly hot air talk and gibberish scribbling on paper lacking the
unbiased, unjudgemental arm of Experiment. It may take 700 years to
debunk Wiles FLT, but in physics it takes a matter of a few years and
in many cases as fast as a few months to debunk false claims.

I have spent the years from 1996 to 2004 more wisely in that I
abandoned mathematics simply because the other sciences are far
superior in making progress. Since 1996 I have discovered the Fusion
Barrier Principle, discovered the Unification of the Forces of
Physics, discovered the true theory of the Solar System-- CellWell1
vice the false NebularDust Cloud theory. And recently in the past few
years discovered the Stonethrowing theory as the basis for the species
Homo sapiens and why we are bipeds and why we have a civilization. And
just last night I posted looking for a bone signature of "balance" for
Orrorin, just as Pickford found a signature for bipedalism in the
groove region of the femur.

In the years of 1993 to 1996 I did alot of mathematics, but I found no
one except for Karl Heuer and a few others serious and willing to
discuss or think of these new ideas. I am not surprised that it would
take 10 years lag in Internet post before more than one or two people
understand and take serious a new idea in mathematics.

Later I am going to repost the Riemann Hypothesis proof of mine in the
early 1990s. Partly because that website mentioned above is down where
most of the material on p-adics used to be housed.

I have come to believe that the Natural Numbers are a fictional set,
just as a mirage in the desert when thirsty is a fiction. Natural
Numbers as finite entities is contradictory to them being an infinite
set. The minute you make Natural Numbers infinite you lose the
characterization that each number is 100% finite. The set is a
contradiction in terms. You make each number 100% finite then the
entire set cannot extend to infinity. You allow each number to be
infinite in decimal places such as 34.00000.......... then it is no
longer finite but a p-adic.

I have said that physics will prove the Natural Numbers are p-adics
faster than all of the mathematics community will, because all it
takes is another glance at the Quantized Hall Effect or other aspects
of Quantum Mechanics in that QM is not NaturalNumbers but that all of
physics is based on p-adics.

But there is something nagging me about the Riemann Hypothesis for if
the NaturalNumbers are a fictional set that is ill-defined, then my
proof of the Riemann Hypothesis appears to be the conventional
foundation of NaturalNumbers. That is to say, I have not sterilized my
RH proof to use only p-adics. And it would reflect on the RH idea that
the NaturalNumbers lie on the 1/2 line. So, you see, I am not settled
in my own mind that I have a proof of RH. You see, FLT is a false
statement because p-adics solve all equations of form. So the Fermat
conjecture was false and no proof exists for p-adics are
counterexamples. But that leaves the question as to what is ill-stated
in the Riemann Hypothesis?. Can we say the p-adics lie on the 1/2
line? No, somewhat absurd. So I have been wrestling in my mind, on and
off, as to how to clean up the Riemann Hypothesis. I know there is a
p-adic Riemann Hypothesis but that one was never with the
foundational-idea that the NaturalNumbers were a bogus set.

Proofs of RH and PC first posted to Internet sci.math 1993 and many
times
thereafter
Below are the hearts of 2 proofs of the Riemann Hypothesis. Both are
copyrighted and I hold priority rights. So, I should not expect to see
anyone use the log spiral or variants and equivalents thereof, or, use
the fact that 2 is the only Real or Complex number N which has the
encoding ((N+N)^1/N) = ((NxN)^1/N) = N or variants and equivalents
thereof, in a proof of Riemann Hypothesis, without my name involved,
for that is theft of intellectual property. The Plutonium Atom
Foundation does not sit still for a minute on cases of theft of its
intellectual properties. And these properties are vast and numerous
and
exquisitely beautiful.
TWO PROOFS OF THE RIEMANN HYPOTHESIS
PROOFS: Two proofs of the Riemann Hypothesis follows as A
and B.
Proof (A) is a geometrical proof. It was proved that the Riemann
Hypothesis is equivalent to the following-- the Moebius function mu of
x, m(x), and adding-up the values of m(x) for all n less than or equal
to N giving M(N). Then M(N) grows no faster than a constant multiple k
of (N^1/2)(N^E) as N goes to infinity (E is arbitrary but greater than
0). Figure1, by setting-up a logarithmic spiral in a rectangle of
whirling squares where the squares are the sequences:
1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34,55,89, . . . 2,2,4,6,10,16,26, . . .
3,3,6,9,15,24,39, . . . then every number appears in at least one of
these sequences because every number will start a sequence. Since all
numbers are represented uniquely by prime factors (the unique prime
factorization theorem or called the fundamental theorem of arithmetic)
and The Prime Number Theorem: the distribution of prime numbers is
governed by a logarithmic function, where (An/n)/(1/Ln of n) tends to
1
as n increases, where An denotes the number of primes below the
positive integer n, and where An/n is called the density of the primes
in the first n positive integers. The density of the primes, An/n, is
approximated by 1/(Ln of n), and as n increases, the approximation
gets
better. The distribution of prime numbers is governed by a
logarithmic function where these two math concepts-- one of prime
numbers, and the other, logarithms seem unconnected at first
appearance, but in reality they are totally connected. Geometrically,
the logarithmic spiral exhausts every positive integer, see figure 1.
The area of the rectangles containing the logarithmic spiral is always
greater, since the spiral is always inside the rectangles. Thus the
Moebius function k (N^1/2)(N^E) is satisfied since the area of the
logarithmic spiral is less than the rectangle whose area represents
the
number N, and whose sides represent its factors. The area of a
logarithmic spiral is represented by A=(r)(e^(Hj)) , and so depending
on where the point of origin for the spiral is taken rsubO determines
k, and depending on the value of H, H determines the E value for N,
when H=0 then the curve is a circle. The logarithmic spiral inside
rectangles of whirling squares implies that for any number N then
N^1/2
is the limit of the factors for N, for example, given the number 28,
then 28^1/2 = 5.2915. . and so looking for the factors of 28, it is
useless to try beyond 5 because the factors repeat, 4x7 then repeats
as
7x4. But if the Moebius function was false then there must exist a
number M such that M^1/2 is not the limit of the factors for M and the
spiral is outside of the square, which is impossible, hence the
Moebius
function is true. Therefore the Riemann Hypothesis is proved. Q.E.D.
My second proof (B) of the Riemann Hypothesis uses a reductio
ad absurdum argument. Euler proved that a formula encoding the
multiplication of primes was equal to the zeta function. Euler's
formula in complex variable form is as follows:
(1/(1-(1/(2^c))))x(1/(1-(1/(3^c))))x(1/(1-(1/(5^c))))x(1/(1-(1/(7^c))))x
(1/(1-(1/(11^c))))x . . . , where c is a complex variable, c=u+iv. The
Riemann zeta function is as follows. Re(c) =
1+(1/(2^c))+(1/(3^c))+(1/(4^c))+. . . , where c is a complex variable,
c=u+iv. Euler's formula involves multiplication of terms and the
Riemann zeta function involves addition of terms of a sequence. Taking
Re(c) > 0, suppose the Riemann Hypothesis is false then there is a 0
such that Re(c)=0 and c not equal 1/2 +iy, which implies there is
another 0 which is not on the 1/2 real line. Which means another real
number other than 1/2 works as an exponent resulting in a zero for the
Riemann zeta function, and a zero in the Euler formula. Thus, Riemann
zeta function subtract Euler formula must equal zero. This implies
for
any other real number exponent, either rational or irrational numbers,
such as for example the rational exponents: 1/3,1/4,1/5, . . . (Note:
any other exponent y/x , where y and x are Real numbers and where the
Real number of A^(y/x) such that y not equal 1, immediately transforms
to a number A^y(1/x), so that exponents with a 1 in the numerator
entail all of the Real exponents). To make clear of the above, for
example, 2^2/3 is 4^1/3. So then back to the proof. Then for exponent
1/3 there has to exist a number M not equal 0 where (M+M+M)^1/M =
(MXMXM)^1/M = M. Then for exponent 1/4 there has to exist a number M
not equal 0 where (M+M+M+M)^1/M = (MXMXMXM)^1/M = M, and so on.
Including the infinite number of cases where the x denominator is
irrational are impossible. Only the real number 1/2 works since 2 does
not equal 0, and (2+2)^1/2 = (2X2)^1/2 = 2, and so (2+2)^1/2
- (2X2)^1/2 = 0. In all of Reals and the Complex numbers, 2 is the
only number N which has the encoding ((N+N)^1/N) = ((NxN)^1/N) = N.
Unlike 0, the number 2, its sum equals its product and where the sum
and product is a new number 4. If RH were false, then another number
other than 2 would satisfy a generalized encoding formula ((N+N)^1/N)
= ((NxN)^1/N) = N. False, hence the proof. QED (Quantum
Electrodynamics)
-------------------------------------------------------------
Concerning the Riemann Hypothesis , I wrote in sci.math newsgroup 1996

....0002 is the one and only one adic Integer (take any
adic) which solves this encoding---- (2+2)^1/2 = (2X2)^1/2 = 2

------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Yes, the Riemann Hypothesis is True
From:
(Archimedes
Plutonium)
Date: 1997/01/05
Message-Id: (5an0kr$t9s@dartvax.dartmouth.edu>
Distribution: world
X-Authenticated: Archimedes.Plutonium on DND host dartmouth.edu
Organization: PLutonium College
Newsgroups: sci.math,sci.physics,sci.logic
In article (5ahtbp$c3n@dartvax.dartmouth.edu>
(Archimedes Plutonium) writes:

In article (5aehs0$qgt@dartvax.dartmouth.edu>

(Archimedes Plutonium) writes:

The proof of Riemann Hypothesis as a true theorem depends on 2.00...
being the unique solution to (N+N) = (NxN) = N^N = M. If there are no
p-adic unique solution means that RH was false all along.


The Euler formula is a multiplication and use of prime integers. IN
the P-adics there are an infinitude of primes , and for 2-adics it is
2, for 3-adics it is 3 and 5-adics it is 5 and so on ad infinitum.

I posed this question to [ ] before start of the holidays,
and I pose it again. Can you adequately define exponential and
logarithm in p-adics?

What solutions exist for (N+N) = (NxN) = N^N = M in p-adics?



I believe the answer is in. The answer is that Riemann Hypothesis is
true after all. I was informed that: Yes, 2 is still a unique solution.
In the n-adics the equation x+x = x*x has the obvious solutions 0 and
2 and also (when n is composite) some hybrids like the 10-adic
...3574218752, which are "partly like 0 and partly like 2". But the
exponentiation constraint eliminates 0 and also the 0-like part of the
hybrids, so 2 is the only solution. For each n >= 2, the equation in
the n-adic ring (or field) has exactly one solution. (Which can be
written ...0010 when n = 2, and ...0002 when n > 2).

And I have also been told that there is a p-adic Riemann Hypothesis.
I have never heard of this and do not know exactly what they are
talking about. I can be sure though that what they are not talking
about is the program that Naturals = P-adics

The above one paragraph is actually a proof of RH. It is explained in
more detail in my website, and there I also give a geometrical proof
of
RH.
But the pattern is this: If FLT were a true statement of math, then
the proof of FLT would be that if false then there exist a number N
such that N+N+N = N*N*N = M to form a building block number for a
P-triple. But of course with Naturals being the p-adics there does
exist these numbers that satisfy kN= N^k.
Now the pattern can be used for RH. Look at RH and ask yourself why
is 1/2 so special? And what sort of pattern is connected with the
specialness of the Real 1/2 and the Euler encoding and the Zeta
function encoding? What is the connection between 1/2 and Euler and
Zeta? And the answer is that those three are connected by the addition
of Naturals equaling the multiplication of Naturals. The linkage, or
the connection is that addition equals multiplication and is equal to
this special number of 1/2. Here is the pattern of linkage.
((N+N)^1/N) = ((NxN)^1/N) = N
reduces to (N+N) = (NxN) = N^N = M
There, in that encoding is the Riemann Hypothesis distilled to its
primal foundation. Just as kN=N^k distills FLT to its primal
foundation.
Sorry to say that FLT is false because in Naturals = P-adics that
primal foundation collapses.
But look at RH. RH in primal foundation is true in both Reals+i+j
since 2 is the unique solution and also in P-adics where ....0002 is
the unique solution.
There, Riemann Hypothesis is proved.
I do not know if the primal foundation above with the P-adic
solution
also answers the Riemann Hypothesis for negative numbers? Anyone
know? I am busy at the moment to give it my full attention.
.

User: "Archimedes Plutonium"

Title: Re: when NaturalNumbers = p-adics what alters in the Riemann Hypothesis Re: proof of the Riemann Hypothesis 24 Jan 2004 01:48:07 AM
(Archimedes Plutonium) wrote in message news:<618e71c0.0401222332.744d145a@posting.google.com>...
(snips)


I would have had to consider two extreme cases: (1) that the RH is
completely false just as FLT is completely false when NaturalNumbers =
p-adics. If taking that extreme route would have had me find out what
was flawed in my claimed two proofs below.

(2) the second extreme case is to say that something lies on the 1/2
Real line but not the NaturalNumbers of the illdefined notion of
finite-integers but rather instead the p-adics. Only the line is not a
straight line. And my second *alleged proof below* using a spiral sort
of touches or hints of a curved line.

(big snip)

TWO PROOFS OF THE RIEMANN HYPOTHESIS

PROOFS: Two proofs of the Riemann Hypothesis follows as A
and B.

Proof (A) is a geometrical proof. It was proved that the Riemann
Hypothesis is equivalent to the following-- the Moebius function mu of
x, m(x), and adding-up the values of m(x) for all n less than or equal
to N giving M(N). Then M(N) grows no faster than a constant multiple k
of (N^1/2)(N^E) as N goes to infinity (E is arbitrary but greater than
0). Figure1, by setting-up a logarithmic spiral in a rectangle of
whirling squares where the squares are the sequences:
1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34,55,89, . . . 2,2,4,6,10,16,26, . . .
3,3,6,9,15,24,39, . . . then every number appears in at least one of
these sequences because every number will start a sequence. Since all
numbers are represented uniquely by prime factors (the unique prime
factorization theorem or called the fundamental theorem of arithmetic)
and The Prime Number Theorem: the distribution of prime numbers is
governed by a logarithmic function, where (An/n)/(1/Ln of n) tends to
1
as n increases, where An denotes the number of primes below the
positive integer n, and where An/n is called the density of the primes
in the first n positive integers. The density of the primes, An/n, is
approximated by 1/(Ln of n), and as n increases, the approximation
gets
better. The distribution of prime numbers is governed by a
logarithmic function where these two math concepts-- one of prime
numbers, and the other, logarithms seem unconnected at first
appearance, but in reality they are totally connected. Geometrically,
the logarithmic spiral exhausts every positive integer, see figure 1.
The area of the rectangles containing the logarithmic spiral is always
greater, since the spiral is always inside the rectangles. Thus the
Moebius function k (N^1/2)(N^E) is satisfied since the area of the
logarithmic spiral is less than the rectangle whose area represents
the
number N, and whose sides represent its factors. The area of a
logarithmic spiral is represented by A=(r)(e^(Hj)) , and so depending
on where the point of origin for the spiral is taken rsubO determines
k, and depending on the value of H, H determines the E value for N,
when H=0 then the curve is a circle. The logarithmic spiral inside
rectangles of whirling squares implies that for any number N then
N^1/2
is the limit of the factors for N, for example, given the number 28,
then 28^1/2 = 5.2915. . and so looking for the factors of 28, it is
useless to try beyond 5 because the factors repeat, 4x7 then repeats
as
7x4. But if the Moebius function was false then there must exist a
number M such that M^1/2 is not the limit of the factors for M and the
spiral is outside of the square, which is impossible, hence the
Moebius
function is true. Therefore the Riemann Hypothesis is proved. Q.E.D.

My second proof (B) of the Riemann Hypothesis uses a reductio
ad absurdum argument. Euler proved that a formula encoding the
multiplication of primes was equal to the zeta function. Euler's
formula in complex variable form is as follows:
(1/(1-(1/(2^c))))x(1/(1-(1/(3^c))))x(1/(1-(1/(5^c))))x(1/(1-(1/(7^c))))x
(1/(1-(1/(11^c))))x . . . , where c is a complex variable, c=u+iv. The
Riemann zeta function is as follows. Re(c) =
1+(1/(2^c))+(1/(3^c))+(1/(4^c))+. . . , where c is a complex variable,
c=u+iv. Euler's formula involves multiplication of terms and the
Riemann zeta function involves addition of terms of a sequence. Taking
Re(c) > 0, suppose the Riemann Hypothesis is false then there is a 0
such that Re(c)=0 and c not equal 1/2 +iy, which implies there is
another 0 which is not on the 1/2 real line. Which means another real
number other than 1/2 works as an exponent resulting in a zero for the
Riemann zeta function, and a zero in the Euler formula. Thus, Riemann
zeta function subtract Euler formula must equal zero. This implies
for
any other real number exponent, either rational or irrational numbers,
such as for example the rational exponents: 1/3,1/4,1/5, . . . (Note:
any other exponent y/x , where y and x are Real numbers and where the
Real number of A^(y/x) such that y not equal 1, immediately transforms
to a number A^y(1/x), so that exponents with a 1 in the numerator
entail all of the Real exponents). To make clear of the above, for
example, 2^2/3 is 4^1/3. So then back to the proof. Then for exponent
1/3 there has to exist a number M not equal 0 where (M+M+M)^1/M =
(MXMXM)^1/M = M. Then for exponent 1/4 there has to exist a number M
not equal 0 where (M+M+M+M)^1/M = (MXMXMXM)^1/M = M, and so on.
Including the infinite number of cases where the x denominator is
irrational are impossible. Only the real number 1/2 works since 2 does
not equal 0, and (2+2)^1/2 = (2X2)^1/2 = 2, and so (2+2)^1/2
- (2X2)^1/2 = 0. In all of Reals and the Complex numbers, 2 is the
only number N which has the encoding ((N+N)^1/N) = ((NxN)^1/N) = N.
Unlike 0, the number 2, its sum equals its product and where the sum
and product is a new number 4. If RH were false, then another number
other than 2 would satisfy a generalized encoding formula ((N+N)^1/N)
= ((NxN)^1/N) = N. False, hence the proof. QED (Quantum
Electrodynamics)

I have always rather felt that in doing science whether physics, or
biology or chemistry, the best way is to jump around and not stay put
on one topic especially when in a jam or difficulty, then jump to
something else and then the mind, like a photographic silver solution
will make the image appear (the answer appear). This behaviour on my
part has served me extremely well for the past 15 years and my posts
to the internet prove my position on this in that I rapidly jump from
one topic to another. I jump not only because it becomes dull sticking
to one topic, but also for this reason that the mind when given
respite and rest
from a difficulty and coming back fresh leads to better success.
I have not thought of RH for the past 7 years, and that truly is a
nice rest.
In the above algebraic proof of RH the linkage is addition to
multiplication and that is linked to the encoding formula using 2. And
since the P-adic of ....00002
is unique solution for that encoding formula, allows the possibility
that this is truly a proof of RH and that RH is indeed a true
statment.
In the above geometric proof of RH we have two geometric objects of
logarithmic spiral versus rectangles (or squares). We have all noticed
how the RH seems to be different for negative Reals as compared to
positive Reals. We all have a sense that P-adics are not the geometry
of straight lines, that is, p-adics are not Euclidean. We know that
the positive Reals form Riemannian geometry and the negative Reals
form Lobacheskian geometry.
We know that if all the NaturalNumbers according to RH, lie on the 1/2
Real line then the NaturalNumbers have Euclidean geometry. But the
P-adics are not Euclidean geometry.
Can we also run this type of argument over FLT? Are not the objects in
FLT those of Euclidean geometry and indeed they are with the
hypotenuse. But FLT is false according to P-adics.
What a difference a day can make. I suspect my two proofs are correct
and that the Riemann Hypothesis is a true statement. A true statement
not of NaturalNumbers = FiniteIntegers but a true statement of
NaturalNumbers = P-adics.
We must be able to tie together a true statement of FLT onto a true
statement of RH.
Yesterday I thought that since FLT was false to p-adics that RH was
also a false statement. But today, I believe that these two
mathematical statements connect to each other given that FLT is false
and RH is true.
If RH were false, then there would have to exist another p-adic other
than ...0002 that can solve that encoding formula. But the p-adic
.....00002 is unique.
The dilemna I thought I was facing was that p-adics can never conform
to a Euclidean Straight line geometry and that the p-adics could never
be so well behaved as to fall all on the 1/2 Real line. But then,
there are no p-adics falling on the negative1/2 Real line is there.
There is no symmetry of RH to the negative Reals. The positive Reals
are Riemannian geometry and a Logarithmic spiral is Riemannian
geometry.
So, my difficulty, my trap as to reconcile how p-adics could ever be
so very *regular* as to all fall on a straight line that is 1/2 Real
is solved by understanding that the Logarithmic Spiral straightens out
the curvature of Riemann geometry of the positive Reals.
So, if a Hypotenuse instead of Logarithmic spiral in my above
geometrical proof of RH could ever serve as a proof then
mathematicians ever since Bernard Riemann had ever offered his Riemann
Hypothesis would have easily proven RH, and no doubt in my mind that
the genius of Bernard Riemann would have proved his own RH because if
hypotenuses in whirling rectangles were constrained and restricted as
the Logarithmic spiral, then NaturalNumbers = FiniteIntegers makes
sense and are a well defined set. But FiniteIntegers are not. They are
a ill-defined set.
You see, the Logarithmic Spiral is the one and only curve that
satisfies the Riemann Hypothesis and because it is a
Riemann-geometry-curve embedded in the positive Reals where 1/2 Real
line that the curve straightens out the Riem geometry leaving the
Euclidean 1/2 Real line and thus the P-adics all fall on this 1/2 Real
line.
So, yesterday I was feeling assured that FLT was false due to p-adics
and that RH was false due also to p-adics. But today, my mind
**maybe** clearer in that RH is true while FLT is false due both to
p-adics. In the above, we get a sense that we can use FLT to help
prove RH and vice versa and that is how mathematics has to work where
truth in one room of mathematics has to agree with other rooms in
mathematics.
Archimedes Plutonium
whole entire Universe is just one big atom where dots
of the electron-dot-cloud are galaxies
.
User: "Earle Jones"

Title: Re: when NaturalNumbers = p-adics what alters in the Riemann Hypothesis Re: proof of the Riemann Hypothesis 24 Jan 2004 10:17:02 PM
In article <618e71c0.0401232348.68985098@posting.google.com>,
(Archimedes Plutonium) wrote:

(Archimedes Plutonium) wrote in message
news:<618e71c0.0401222332.744d145a@posting.google.com>...

(snips)


I would have had to consider two extreme cases: (1) that the RH is
completely false just as FLT is completely false when NaturalNumbers =
p-adics. If taking that extreme route would have had me find out what
was flawed in my claimed two proofs below.

(2) the second extreme case is to say that something lies on the 1/2
Real line but not the NaturalNumbers of the illdefined notion of
finite-integers but rather instead the p-adics. Only the line is not a
straight line. And my second *alleged proof below* using a spiral sort
of touches or hints of a curved line.


(big snip)


TWO PROOFS OF THE RIEMANN HYPOTHESIS

[clip]
*
Mr. Plutonium: Have you ever submitted a paper for publication?
earle
*
.
User: "Archimedes Plutonium"

Title: Re: when NaturalNumbers = p-adics what alters in the Riemann Hypothesis Re: proof of the Riemann Hypothesis 25 Jan 2004 04:12:10 PM
Earle Jones <earle.jones@comcast.net> wrote in message news:<earle.jones-0AA02E.20170224012004@netnews.comcast.net>...

In article <618e71c0.0401232348.68985098@posting.google.com>,
a_plutonium@hotmail.com (Archimedes Plutonium) wrote:

a_plutonium@hotmail.com (Archimedes Plutonium) wrote in message
news:<618e71c0.0401222332.744d145a@posting.google.com>...

(snips)


I would have had to consider two extreme cases: (1) that the RH is
completely false just as FLT is completely false when NaturalNumbers =
p-adics. If taking that extreme route would have had me find out what
was flawed in my claimed two proofs below.

(2) the second extreme case is to say that something lies on the 1/2
Real line but not the NaturalNumbers of the illdefined notion of
finite-integers but rather instead the p-adics. Only the line is not a
straight line. And my second *alleged proof below* using a spiral sort
of touches or hints of a curved line.


(big snip)


TWO PROOFS OF THE RIEMANN HYPOTHESIS


[clip]

*
Mr. Plutonium: Have you ever submitted a paper for publication?

earle
*

For Archimedes Plutonium to submit any of his mathematical proofs to a
Math Journal is akin to a Democrat in the USA Senate to submit a
"Earth Air Conditioner Bill" espousing a research race to find a
chemical that can solve not only Global Warming but can also make this
planet much more comfortable and much greener where humanity actually
begins to climate control planet Earth.
We all know what such a Democrat senator trying to solve Global
Warming would face from a Republican controlled Congress and a Bush
presidency. Bush as of 2004 is encouraging lobbyists to rail against
Global Warming. Bush does not even accept that the American Academy of
Sciences, that all the scientists have proven Global Warming is real
and is the cause of our goofy weather.
Just the other day I read a report that the Gulf Stream warm air
currents will vanish as Global Warming increases which means that the
EAst Coast USA will be more frigid in winters and that Europe
extending to Russia will become freezer countries in the decades
ahead.
The Bush administration is anti-science. They are boneheads about
Global Warming and about science. The mathematics journals editors are
boneheads. They are ignorant of the idea that NaturalNumbers are not
FiniteIntegers but are instead the P-adics. They are ignorant
boneheads as to what NaturalNumbers are and why they are a ill-defined
set, just as Bush is a ignorant bonehead about Global Warming.
Is it any use for a Democrat to start a research program as to what
chemical we can put into the upper atmosphere to create a Global Air
Conditioner. No. We all know what the Republican controlled Congress
and WhiteHouse will do-- reject reject and reject. They even rejected
the Academy of Scientists.
Is it any use for Archimedes Plutonium to send two proof of the
Riemann Hypothesis to any math journal editors in the world? Of course
not. They are math boneheads, whose ignorant minds can only write--
reject, reject, reject.
Archimedes Plutonium
whole entire Universe is just one big atom where dots
of the electron-dot-cloud are galaxies
.
User: "Earle Jones"

Title: Re: when NaturalNumbers = p-adics what alters in the Riemann Hypothesis Re: proof of the Riemann Hypothesis 25 Jan 2004 07:25:02 PM
In article <618e71c0.0401251412.36389695@posting.google.com>,
(Archimedes Plutonium) wrote:

Earle Jones <earle.jones@comcast.net> wrote in message
news:<earle.jones-0AA02E.20170224012004@netnews.comcast.net>...

In article <618e71c0.0401232348.68985098@posting.google.com>,

(Archimedes Plutonium) wrote:

(Archimedes Plutonium) wrote in message
news:<618e71c0.0401222332.744d145a@posting.google.com>...

(snips)


I would have had to consider two extreme cases: (1) that the RH is
completely false just as FLT is completely false when NaturalNumbers =
p-adics. If taking that extreme route would have had me find out what
was flawed in my claimed two proofs below.

(2) the second extreme case is to say that something lies on the 1/2
Real line but not the NaturalNumbers of the illdefined notion of
finite-integers but rather instead the p-adics. Only the line is not a
straight line. And my second *alleged proof below* using a spiral sort
of touches or hints of a curved line.


(big snip)


TWO PROOFS OF THE RIEMANN HYPOTHESIS


[clip]

*
Mr. Plutonium: Have you ever submitted a paper for publication?

earle
*


For Archimedes Plutonium to submit any of his mathematical proofs to a
Math Journal is akin to a Democrat in the USA Senate to submit a
"Earth Air Conditioner Bill" espousing a research race to find a
chemical that can solve not only Global Warming but can also make this
planet much more comfortable and much greener where humanity actually
begins to climate control planet Earth.

We all know what such a Democrat senator trying to solve Global
Warming would face from a Republican controlled Congress and a Bush
presidency. Bush as of 2004 is encouraging lobbyists to rail against
Global Warming. Bush does not even accept that the American Academy of
Sciences, that all the scientists have proven Global Warming is real
and is the cause of our goofy weather.

Just the other day I read a report that the Gulf Stream warm air
currents will vanish as Global Warming increases which means that the
EAst Coast USA will be more frigid in winters and that Europe
extending to Russia will become freezer countries in the decades
ahead.

The Bush administration is anti-science. They are boneheads about
Global Warming and about science. The mathematics journals editors are
boneheads. They are ignorant of the idea that NaturalNumbers are not
FiniteIntegers but are instead the P-adics. They are ignorant
boneheads as to what NaturalNumbers are and why they are a ill-defined
set, just as Bush is a ignorant bonehead about Global Warming.

Is it any use for a Democrat to start a research program as to what
chemical we can put into the upper atmosphere to create a Global Air
Conditioner. No. We all know what the Republican controlled Congress
and WhiteHouse will do-- reject reject and reject. They even rejected
the Academy of Scientists.

Is it any use for Archimedes Plutonium to send two proof of the
Riemann Hypothesis to any math journal editors in the world? Of course
not. They are math boneheads, whose ignorant minds can only write--
reject, reject, reject.

Archimedes Plutonium
whole entire Universe is just one big atom where dots
of the electron-dot-cloud are galaxies

*
I'll take that as a 'No'.
earle
*
.




User: "Archimedes Plutonium"

Title: straightlines curve at infinity; Riemann H. connects with Poincare Conjecture Re: when NaturalNumbers = p-adics what alters in the Riemann Hypothesis 05 Feb 2004 02:46:26 PM
(Archimedes Plutonium) wrote in message news:<618e71c0.0401222332.744d145a@posting.google.com>...

(snip my old post of 1996) And below is a re-post of Riemann
Hypothesis that was on my website (now moving to a new location and
will be up and running in the next several months).

COMMENTS about RH: If I had stuck with doing and concentrated on math
from 1996 to 2004, one of the main topics on my agenda would have been
to reconcile RH with the idea that the NaturalNumbers were the
p-adics. And that precarious situation would have forced me patch up
or mend the notion that the NaturalNumbers lie on the 1/2 Real line.

I would have had to consider two extreme cases: (1) that the RH is
completely false just as FLT is completely false when NaturalNumbers =
p-adics. If taking that extreme route would have had me find out what
was flawed in my claimed two proofs below.

(2) the second extreme case is to say that something lies on the 1/2
Real line but not the NaturalNumbers of the illdefined notion of
finite-integers but rather instead the p-adics. Only the line is not a
straight line. And my second *alleged proof below* using a spiral sort
of touches or hints of a curved line.

As far as I know from 1993-1996 in conversation with Karl Heuer about
my RH proofs the number 2 as N in the encoding of ((N+N)^1/N) =
((NxN)^1/N) = N remains the same whether we think of 2 as a p-adic or
as a finite integer. So that encoding formula is not corrupted.

If the P-adics are truly the NaturalNumbers and the old notion of
Natural Numbers as the Finite-Integers an utterly flawed concept and a
utterly illdefined concept. Well, then, well, the notion of a straight
line out to infinity and remaining straight is also a flawed notion.
Perfectly acceptable to humanity for more than 2,000 years of human
civilization but then unacceptable after the decade of the 1990s. It
is because human minds have so pitiful a grasp of numbers when they
become so fantastically large. We are stymied with 100^100^100 but in
terms of p-adics those are microscopic numbers. There is not one
single human mind that has ever existed that can visualize a smooth
progression from 1,2,3,.... into a number such as ........11111
So, if P-adics are the NaturalNumbers then the Riemann Hypothesis has
all the P-adics on the 1/2 Real Line but that line is no longer a
straightline at infinity but manages to curve.
So, then, that leads to the next important question. Do any Straight
lines at infinity exist? Or is the concept of straightline like that
of FiniteInteger confined to sets which are not infinite. This would
imply that Euclidean Geometry is only a specialized case and that
Euclidean Geometry at infinity is nonexistent.
To answer that question would take us back on a review of Mathematics
history itself. We know full well that the subject of Number theory is
a flawed subject because at its heart is FiniteIntegers and the
backlog of unsolved problems in NumberTheory point to the subject as a
therefore flawed subject that needs to fix its definition of what a
"number is". In other words, when you make NaturalNumbers equal to
P-adics you thence solve all the unsolved problems in NumberTheory.
But if you do that, thence you must now look upon Geometry and ask
whether there are unsolved problems in Geometry where Straightlines at
Infinity are straight *or are they curved*???
Because if NaturalNumbers equals P-adics then the 1/2 Real Line in
Riemann Hypothesis is no longer straight but curved at infinity
because the P-adics form a curvature.
There is one Geometry problem outstanding that directly benefits the
idea that straightlines become curved at infinity. It is the Poincare
Conjecture which I proved in the 1990s decade:
This file uses both old and new math for the Poincare Conjecture,
and, I did point out our ill-defined and ill-conceived definitions of
what
"dimension" is.
The concept of "dimension" must be got out of quantum physics which
does a superb job of proving that any dimension other than 3rd
dimension yields the thoroughly wrong Classical Physics of Newtonian
physics. See attached posts concerning physics and how it clears the
driftwood and deadwood that is the math definition of dimension.
And the trouble that is with math is that math is so much slower in
revising and revamping what is wrong and imprecise within math. And
another sick thing about math is that it yet does not realize that
physics is more important to math and not the other way around.
Because
ultimate truth comes from atomic physics and quantum mechanics since
the
universe in total is one atom of 231PU. So then, even math itself
comes out of
physics. Before the Atom Whole theory of 1990, it was the prevalent
notion
that physics will reduce to math and that math is the floor, the basic
foundation. That was a wrong and conceited idea, and more to the truth
is that
quantum mechanics and the physics of the atom is the ultimate
foundation of all
knowledge and wisdom. For even math itself comes out of and is
derivative of atomic knowledge. To give just a brief example, why is
pi and
e between Whole Reals? And if a Maker of the Universe made everything,
why not make the two most important numbers as Whole Reals such as pi
=
to 3.00... and make e = 2.000... ? Well, the answer is that numbers
themselves are a reflection of our Maker, that our Maker is an atom of
Plutonium and its characteristic is such that it has 22 subshells in 7
shells wherein 19 subshells are occupied by electrons at any given
moment, thus the circumference of 231Pu is 22 subshells in a diameter
of 7
shells or 22/7 and 19/7 are the atomic collapse of the wavefunction
into Rational numbers for pi and e. In the uncollapsed wavefunction
they
are the exact irrational numbers of pi and e. But here I am straying
to
far from the topic of "dimension".
Physics has already proved that any dimension other than 3rd
dimension is wrong, and yet math can go on and on with fake ideas and
fob them off, because math is highly academic and highly institutional
and highly conservative and does not have the tests and desire to
change that a physics experiment insists and urges and demands change.
Math can keep a fakery like Kempe's 4 color mapping or like Appel and
Haken's 4 color mapping or like Wiles and Taylor FLT going for
decades, even
centuries past when they should be chit-canned. Math moves at a snails
pace compared to physics.
The 4th dimension and higher are like an optical illusion, and young
math people are brainwashed into thinking that always another
perpendicular gives a new and higher dimension which can be formed
even though
our minds stop at visualizing with the 3rd dimension. This is a sad
reflection that math rarely listens to physics, and people in math go
on teaching and believing this conservative trash season after season
because noone places pressure on the math house like a physics
experiment places pressure on the fake ideas within the house of
physics. Math people need to pay attention to physics much more
than they presently do.
Subject: 3rd dimension only
Date: 15APR1994, 06:51:50 GMT
Message-ID: (2oldi6$jpu@dartvax.dartmouth.edu>
[lines deleted]
"Quarks,atoms,and the 1/N expansion" by Edward Witten, PHYSICS TODAY
July1980. "Large-N quantum mechanics and classical limits" by Laurence
Yaffe PHYSICS TODAY Aug1983.
I claim the correct definition and understanding of
'dimension'
will come from Quantum Physics. Let me point out a nice thing about
the
history of math and physics. Both communities are highly conservative
and bandwagonish. The physics community picked up on the idea of
"conservation laws" and ran with it. Boy, did they run with it. Now
the
recent history of physics is starting to unravel the conservation
laws.
First there unraveled the conservation of parity, second there
unraveled time-reversal. What is next? I contend all conservation laws
will be unraveled except for conservation laws which come from QM,
provided if and only if there are any conservation laws in QM. Getting
back to my running story.
Math had a very pretty theorem called the Banach-Tarski
Theorem
which disproves the conservation law of energy/mass. However this
beautiful
theorem is not enough to sway, turn the heads of physics professors.
Because they are so conservative of a bandwagon. Now let us look at
another ultra-conservative community--math. Remember, professors of
a subject are not the best persons to understand that subject, the
geniuses of the subject are. Professors are merely teachers and
regurgitators of the subject.
The math definition of dimension is a failure. Poincare called
for a math definition of dimension but could not define dimension. And
later math persons could not. I say that the Poincare Conjecture is a
simple proof, so also the 4-Color Mapping Problem. Simple, when a
reasonable definition of Dimension is seen. Impossible when using a
fake, a ill-conceived definition. I say the correct math definition
for
dimension comes from physics.
I conjecture and speculate that there is no 4th dimension or
higher, and none below the 3rd dimension as amply supported by the
above two QM references. Only the 3rd dimension exists. Those
references are detailed enough and so I will not elaborate. I say that
if a body of physics knowledge implies that a definition or body of
math knowledge is flawed, failed, inconsistent and downright
nonexistent. Then it is quick time to review that math definition or
body of knowledge. Call more math conventions to iron out the
imprecision of crappy math definitions and by all means rely and look
upon physics.
I conjecture that there exists only the 3rd dimension. That is
what
those two referenced articles are about. They lend support and imply
that any dimension higher than 3rd and below 3rd gives Classical
Physics. Classical Physics is a thoroughly wrong physics. Classical
Newtonian physics is an approximation at best to true physics--QM, but
Classical is nonexistent, it is not real, just as the ether is
nonexistent.
This above is a reverse historical case of math via
Banach-Tarski spearheading the falsity of conservation law of
energy/mass (BTW Dirac the genius he was saw the violation of the
conservation law of energy/mass in his DIRECTIONS IN PHYSICS). Now
it is physics turn to spearhead the drive for math to get their act
together, for math to get their house in order.
The correct definition of Dimension will most certainly come
from QM.
Having received much email about those two references I should have
explained them somewhat. Here is a quick account. Those two references
imply that for Quantum Mechanics and the Schroedinger Equation, that
only 3rd Dimension works. Not 4th or higher dimension and nothing
below
3rd dimension works. Only 3rd dimensions works to make Quantum
Mechanics work.
The Schroedinger Equation works for 3rd dimension only. In 4th
dimension or higher then the results come out to be Classical
Newtonian
Physics which is wrong physics. Classical Physics is just an
approximation of Quantum Physics, which to all known experimentation
is
true. What I am doing with this information about QM and dimension is
to derive a better definition of dimension for math. By implementing
these ideas I would keep the old definition of dimension for math. For
physics, I would use the old math definition also -- 3 perpendicular
axes for 3rd dimension-- but throw out any notion of 4th dimension or
higher. The 4th dimension and higher were science fiction and math
fiction.
In physics, because of QM, there exists only 3rd dimension.
Now
for math, since math is more abstract than physics, we can continue to
have the old definition of dimension as perpendicular axes, but there
exists
no 4th dimension or higher (even in abstraction). We can dream about
Santa Claus all we want and imagine him, the same goes for
'dimension'.
In reality there is no Santa Claus and in reality only the 3rd
dimension exists therefore there is never any need to bring up the
idea
of a 4th dimensional whatever. Because there is no 4th dimension. For
math, dimensions 0, 1st, 2nd and 4th and higher are nonexistent.
Proof of the Poincare Conjecture
Note that the Plutonium Atom Foundation holds copyrights of the
below
proof and especially of the use of infinite iteration of roots of any
positive Real number always converges to the number 1.
There are many reasons why PC is so easy to grasp as a conjecture
but
tremendously difficult to prove and why it was outstanding for 100
years. Here to enumerate a few.
(1) Math definition of dimension has never been understood nor
resolved
to this date. In physics only the 3rd dimension makes sense where
experimentation has shown that any dimension other than 3rd leads to
the wrong physics of Newtonian Classical. That alone should have
alerted the math community that there definition of higher dimensions
were pure illusions, Loch Ness monsters.
(2) As if dimension definition was not enough of a bugaboo, but the
concept of "completion with a point at infinity" to make the Eucl
plane
into a sphere. Math people once they hear this idea they sheepishly
accept it as clear as broad daylight. But we should require a proof of
this. Prove that the Eucl plane can be point compactified to it turn
it
into a sphere? Point deletions are always possible, but point
compactification is silly. Where do Plane compactifiers propose to put
that point? I ask you, where do you attach it?
(3) The idea that the Euclidean plane can be infinite in reach is not
a
true idea. One must prove it first if it is true. I believe it is
false
by the following argument on Reals or the Complex plane. The infinite
Euclidean Plane is a contradiction in terms. The Euclidean Plane to
exist must exist as a finite plane. Proof. The Euclidean Plane is
represented by Descartes coordinate system of Real numbers. For an
Infinite Euclidean Plane implies that there exists at least one Real
number which is both infinite string leftwards and rightwards of the
decimal point. No individual Real number exists which is an infinite
string both leftwards and rightwards simultaneously of the decimal
point. Hence, no infinite Euclidean Plane. When the Euclidean
Plane is made to be infinite, it automatically reverts into a
Riemannian sphere because it is my claim that Adics = Riem geometry
and
that Reals are finite leftwards but Adics are infinite leftwards.
POINCARE CONJECTURE (PC) PROVED
Brief description of proof. PC rests on the fact that the
infinite iteration of roots of any positive Real number always
converges to the number 1. And for ADICS the infinite squaring of any
ADIC when converted to base 2 converges to 2 points, both ...00. and
....01. These convergences are the SIMPLY CONNECTED.
NOTE: All topological objects of the sphere are determinable as
Riemannian geom objects OR, as positive Real number objects. In this
way the iteration of roots or the squaring of any Adic in base 2 is
the
simply connected.
The statement which I claim is not a well-formulated
statement
of the Poincare Conjecture1 is this. The 3-sphere, the space obtained
by completing R3 by a point at infinity, is the only closed
3-dimensional space whose fundamental group is trivial. I assert this
Poincare Conjecture is not a well-formulated conjecture, it is a fuzzy
idea, only the notion of a conjecture.
I give a well-formulated Poincare Conjecture as follows:
Riemannian geometry is the only geometry which is simply connected
where positive Reals forms a positive Gaussian curvature or the Adics
are Riemannian geometry.
PROOF OF THE WELL-FORMULATED POINCARE CONJECTURE.
All topological objects of the sphere are determinable as
Riemannian geom objects or, as positive Real number objects. In this
way the iteration of roots or the squaring of any Adic in base 2 is
the
simply connected. It is
easily proved that a function built on the infinite iteration of roots
of any positive Real number always converges to the number 1. For
example, you take any positive Real number, then you take successive
square roots, successive cube roots, successive quadratic roots and so
on, of that number, then the convergence of all of these iterative
roots sequences, all of these iterative roots, is to the number 1.
But
the iterative roots function does not work with any negative numbers,
since imaginary numbers come into action, and negative numbers occur
in
all geometries except Riem. Where Riem. geom is positive gaussian
curvature and so no negative curvature (no negative number) can occur
in Riem. geometry. Thus the iterative roots sequence is the simply
connected concept of every loop shrunk to a point, which means there
are no holes in the geometry. So for Riem. geom, every loop can be
shrunk
to the number 1. But every other geometry except Riem. geom has
negative
numbers and thus there exists loops in them which are impossible to
shrink
to a point. Q.E.D.
Archimedes Plutonium
whole entire Universe is just one big atom where dots
of the electron-dot-cloud are galaxies
.
User: "Archimedes Plutonium"

Title: Re: straightlines curve at infinity; Riemann H. connects with Poincare Conjecture Re: when NaturalNumbers = p-adics what alters in the Riemann Hypothesis 08 Feb 2004 01:00:43 PM
If we accept as true that the NaturalNumbers are the P-adics, then the
1/2 Realline in the RiemannHypothesis must be a curved line and that
no straightlines ever exist but curve as the further we go out.
In 1993 or 1994 I claimed this number of p-adics in the 10-adics of
.....999999 as the largest number that exists. I claimed it was
"infinity itself". I am proud of that claim for it has not diminished
in stature in these intervening years.
And today I can put further use to that number .....99999 for in the
Poincare Conjecture of a point compactification at infinity where you
want to take the infinite Euclidean Plane and sort of take its 4
edge-points and like a sheet of wrapping paper want to join those four
edge points and make a sphere.
Well, I am proud to say that Euclidean geometry at infinity is a
fiction a illusion and purely imaginery just as ghosts and witches are
imaginary. That Euclidean Geometry is curved lines at infinity because
the NaturalNumbers are the P-adics and that no-one needs to point
compact the Euclidean Plane because it is already forming into a
sphere and that this number .....999999 is the point that is the
4-pointedge of the infinite Euclidean plane.
I suppose if you take just the 10-adics then it is a infinite circle.
But if you take collectively all the p-adics of 2-adics, 3-adics etc
etc they form an infinite sphere.
I am guessing that the Collective P-adics is similar (I do not know if
they are equal) to the geometry formed by the positive-Reals which is
Riemannian Geometry.
I do not know the relationship between the geometry formed by the
Collective P-adics and the geometry formed by the positive Reals as
Riemannian geometry. Both have positive curvature. But the positive
Reals seem to have numbers such as pi and e which the Collective
P-adics do not have and vice versa.
Archimedes Plutonium
whole entire Universe is just one big atom where dots
of the electron-dot-cloud are galaxies
.



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