Why luminous intensity



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Topic: Science > Physics
User: "Maleki"
Date: 24 Aug 2004 06:13:00 PM
Object: Why luminous intensity
Why did SI adopt "luminous intensity" as one of the 7 base
physical quantities? What is exactly meant by it anyway?
Also, in SI, mass is defined in a way irreproducible
elsewhere. It just refers to a chunck of "platinum-iridium"
sitting somewhere in Paris, withous saying how many atoms of
each ingredient is involved. I don't understand.

--
zamAne khoshdeli daryAbo daryAb
ke dA'em dar sadaf gowhar nabAshad
ghanimat dAno mey khor dar golestAn
ke gol tA hafteye digar nabAshad
"Hafez"
.

User: "N:dlzc D:aol T:com \dlzc\ N: dlzc1 D:cox"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 24 Aug 2004 06:34:54 PM
Dear Maleki:
"Maleki" <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:6f9d6noyclue$.15fitfbm8l4u9$.dlg@40tude.net...

Why did SI adopt "luminous intensity" as one of the 7 base
physical quantities? What is exactly meant by it anyway?

It corresponds to a number of photons per unit area. No constraint on
wavelength.

Also, in SI, mass is defined in a way irreproducible
elsewhere. It just refers to a chunck of "platinum-iridium"
sitting somewhere in Paris, withous saying how many atoms of
each ingredient is involved. I don't understand.

The only "absolute" measure of mass is the mole of Carbon-12. But this is
not the basis of the definition of mass. The current standard of mass is
as you noted, via transfer standards to the artifact in Paris.
Go figure.
David A. Smith
.
User: "Maleki"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 24 Aug 2004 10:04:01 PM
On Tue, 24 Aug 2004 16:34:54 -0700, N:dlzc D:aol T:com
(dlzc) wrote:

Dear Maleki:

"Maleki" <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:6f9d6noyclue$.15fitfbm8l4u9$.dlg@40tude.net...

Why did SI adopt "luminous intensity" as one of the 7 base
physical quantities? What is exactly meant by it anyway?


It corresponds to a number of photons per unit area. No constraint on
wavelength.

Number of photons or the energy of them? What is it
"exactly".

Also, in SI, mass is defined in a way irreproducible
elsewhere. It just refers to a chunck of "platinum-iridium"
sitting somewhere in Paris, withous saying how many atoms of
each ingredient is involved. I don't understand.


The only "absolute" measure of mass is the mole of Carbon-12. But this is
not the basis of the definition of mass. The current standard of mass is
as you noted, via transfer standards to the artifact in Paris.

Mole itself was defined by SI using that mass in Paris. So
it is not reproducible elsewhere independetly. The SI was
supposed to be an effort to end this kind of dependencies.
Standards should be "accessible", in their own words. Just
how do you make a duplicate of that chunk of mass somewhere
else independently? A mole of C-12 is 12/1000 times that
mass in Paris. But without that mass, say in Delhi, what do
you have?
--
vaghti nist, nist!
.
User: "N:dlzc D:aol T:com \dlzc\ N: dlzc1 D:cox"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 24 Aug 2004 10:39:35 PM
Dear Maleki:
"Maleki" <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:931ypfdp10v5.1q0crew6br0oi.dlg@40tude.net...

On Tue, 24 Aug 2004 16:34:54 -0700, N:dlzc D:aol T:com
(dlzc) wrote:

Dear Maleki:

"Maleki" <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:6f9d6noyclue$.15fitfbm8l4u9$.dlg@40tude.net...

Why did SI adopt "luminous intensity" as one of the 7 base
physical quantities? What is exactly meant by it anyway?


It corresponds to a number of photons per unit area. No constraint on
wavelength.


Number of photons or the energy of them? What is it
"exactly".

Note that I was wrong about the "per unit area". I also believe that I was
wrong about the count of photons.
URL:http://physics.nist.gov/cuu/Units/current.html
<QUOTE>
The candela is the luminous intensity, in a given direction, of a source
that emits monochromatic radiation of frequency 540 x 10^12 hertz and that
has a radiant intensity in that direction of 1/683 watt per steradian.
<END QUOTE>
The units are:
[power/steradian] of photons with a specific energy. This equates to a
number of photons per unit time, per steradian. Yet it is also simply an
amount of power power steradian. This site seems to feel that it should
simply be a power-based measurement:
URL:http://www.electro-optical.com/whitepapers/candela.htm
Historically, it was simply a power-based measurement, from a black-body.

Also, in SI, mass is defined in a way irreproducible
elsewhere. It just refers to a chunck of "platinum-iridium"
sitting somewhere in Paris, withous saying how many atoms of
each ingredient is involved. I don't understand.


The only "absolute" measure of mass is the mole of Carbon-12. But this

is

not the basis of the definition of mass. The current standard of mass

is

as you noted, via transfer standards to the artifact in Paris.


Mole itself was defined by SI using that mass in Paris.

I don't think so, directly. It was *established* that 1 mole of C-12 would
have 12g of mass.

So
it is not reproducible elsewhere independetly. The SI was
supposed to be an effort to end this kind of dependencies.
Standards should be "accessible", in their own words.

It is. For a fee to the standards agency. Just like the standards. (And
I don't much like it either.)

Just
how do you make a duplicate of that chunk of mass somewhere
else independently? A mole of C-12 is 12/1000 times that
mass in Paris. But without that mass, say in Delhi, what do
you have?

Agreed. A real pain to count out a mole of Pt-Ir... ;>)
David A. Smith
.
User: "Maleki"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 25 Aug 2004 10:27:47 AM
On Tue, 24 Aug 2004 20:39:35 -0700, N:dlzc D:aol T:com
(dlzc) wrote:

Dear Maleki:

"Maleki" <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:931ypfdp10v5.1q0crew6br0oi.dlg@40tude.net...

On Tue, 24 Aug 2004 16:34:54 -0700, N:dlzc D:aol T:com
(dlzc) wrote:

Dear Maleki:

"Maleki" <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:6f9d6noyclue$.15fitfbm8l4u9$.dlg@40tude.net...

Why did SI adopt "luminous intensity" as one of the 7 base
physical quantities? What is exactly meant by it anyway?


It corresponds to a number of photons per unit area. No constraint on
wavelength.


Number of photons or the energy of them? What is it
"exactly".


Note that I was wrong about the "per unit area". I also believe that I was
wrong about the count of photons.

URL:http://physics.nist.gov/cuu/Units/current.html
<QUOTE>
The candela is the luminous intensity, in a given direction, of a source
that emits monochromatic radiation of frequency 540 x 10^12 hertz and that
has a radiant intensity in that direction of 1/683 watt per steradian.
<END QUOTE>

The units are:
[power/steradian] of photons with a specific energy. This equates to a
number of photons per unit time, per steradian. Yet it is also simply an
amount of power power steradian. This site seems to feel that it should
simply be a power-based measurement:
URL:http://www.electro-optical.com/whitepapers/candela.htm

Historically, it was simply a power-based measurement, from a black-body.

Also, in SI, mass is defined in a way irreproducible
elsewhere. It just refers to a chunck of "platinum-iridium"
sitting somewhere in Paris, withous saying how many atoms of
each ingredient is involved. I don't understand.


The only "absolute" measure of mass is the mole of Carbon-12. But this

is

not the basis of the definition of mass. The current standard of mass

is

as you noted, via transfer standards to the artifact in Paris.


Mole itself was defined by SI using that mass in Paris.


I don't think so, directly. It was *established* that 1 mole of C-12 would
have 12g of mass.

SI used that to define "mole". Instead of choosing to use
Avogadro's number (which _is_ "accessible" everywhere) they
chose to say, "mole is an amount of a substance that has the
same number of atoms or molecules that there are in 12 grams
of C-12". Now how much of C-12 makes 12 grams, nobody knows
(without redefining the base standard). It is just 12/1000
times the mass of that chunk in Paris. 12/1000 times an
unknown amount of mass that you're only allowed to come to
Paris and touch! And weigh against. Is this the way the
"base standards" are formed?

So
it is not reproducible elsewhere independetly. The SI was
supposed to be an effort to end this kind of dependencies.
Standards should be "accessible", in their own words.


It is. For a fee to the standards agency. Just like the standards. (And
I don't much like it either.)

Just
how do you make a duplicate of that chunk of mass somewhere
else independently? A mole of C-12 is 12/1000 times that
mass in Paris. But without that mass, say in Delhi, what do
you have?


Agreed. A real pain to count out a mole of Pt-Ir... ;>)

David A. Smith

--
bA dusti mesle to, Adam ehtiyAji be doshman
nadAreh.
.




User: "Rene Tschaggelar"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 25 Aug 2004 10:15:07 AM
Even if the atoms were counted, say N of paladium
and M of Iridium, how would you achieve to duplicate
the mass ?
Yes, you could use a mass spectrometer and evaporate
one kilogramm through it while measuring the current
down to 1e-12 or so.
Great.
Go ahead.
We'll be waiting.
Rene
--
Ing.Buero R.Tschaggelar - http://www.ibrtses.com
& commercial newsgroups - http://www.talkto.net
Maleki wrote:

Why did SI adopt "luminous intensity" as one of the 7 base
physical quantities? What is exactly meant by it anyway?

Also, in SI, mass is defined in a way irreproducible
elsewhere. It just refers to a chunck of "platinum-iridium"
sitting somewhere in Paris, withous saying how many atoms of
each ingredient is involved. I don't understand.

.
User: "Maleki"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 25 Aug 2004 03:11:02 PM
On Wed, 25 Aug 2004 17:15:07 +0200, Rene Tschaggelar wrote:

Even if the atoms were counted, say N of paladium
and M of Iridium, how would you achieve to duplicate
the mass ?

One, in principle, can use x-ray methods (diffraction) to
find distances between their atoms, therefore finding out
what volume of each contains how many atoms. Then construct
the corrrect volumes, add them together, thus duplicating
the standard mass elsewhere. Is it so odd or impossible?

--
adu shavad sababe kheyr agar khodA khAhad
.


User: "Jon Bell"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 24 Aug 2004 11:54:51 PM
In article <6f9d6noyclue$.15fitfbm8l4u9$.dlg@40tude.net>,
Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote:

Why did SI adopt "luminous intensity" as one of the 7 base
physical quantities? What is exactly meant by it anyway?

Luminous intensity is the physical quantity that determines the
"brightness" of a light source as perceived by the eye. It depends on the
radiant intensity (watts per steradian emitted by the source) and on the
sensitivity of a "standard eye" as a function of wavelength, as specified
by a standard photometric curve.
Reference:
<http://www.schorsch.com/kbase/glossary/luminous_intensity.html>
and pages linked from it.

Also, in SI, mass is defined in a way irreproducible
elsewhere. It just refers to a chunck of "platinum-iridium"
sitting somewhere in Paris, withous saying how many atoms of
each ingredient is involved. I don't understand.

As I understand it, it is not possible (yet) to count atoms precisely
enough to give better precision than comparing against that lump of
platinum/iridium alloy in Paris, using a balance. A few years ago, I read
an article in _Science_ magazine about research into improving
atom-counting methods, with the ultimate goal of replacing the current
mass standard.
About the same time, I read another article about a fellow who had the
unique job of of keeping the standard kilogram clean. He had just the
right "touch", so as to remove possible contaminants without removing
enough of the metal to make a significant difference. He was about to
retire, and people were worrying about whether his successor would do as
good a job in preserving the constancy of the mass standard!
--
Jon Bell <jtbellm4h@presby.edu> Presbyterian College
Dept. of Physics and Computer Science Clinton, South Carolina USA
.
User: "Maleki"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 25 Aug 2004 09:47:45 AM
On Wed, 25 Aug 2004 04:54:51 +0000 (UTC), Jon Bell wrote:

In article <6f9d6noyclue$.15fitfbm8l4u9$.dlg@40tude.net>,
Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote:

Why did SI adopt "luminous intensity" as one of the 7 base
physical quantities? What is exactly meant by it anyway?


Luminous intensity is the physical quantity that determines the
"brightness" of a light source as perceived by the eye.

Since when this would constitute enough basis for choosing
it as one of the 7 base quantities? That was my question.

It depends on the
radiant intensity (watts per steradian emitted by the source) and on the
sensitivity of a "standard eye" as a function of wavelength, as specified
by a standard photometric curve.

Reference:
<http://www.schorsch.com/kbase/glossary/luminous_intensity.html>
and pages linked from it.

At the above site it begins with:
"The luminous intensity is the luminous flux emitted from a
point per unit solid angle into a particular direction."
In other words it doesn't even know how to speak physics,
let alone understanding it or trying to make others
understand anything. I can already see two mistakes in that
one-sentence statement.

Also, in SI, mass is defined in a way irreproducible
elsewhere. It just refers to a chunck of "platinum-iridium"
sitting somewhere in Paris, withous saying how many atoms of
each ingredient is involved. I don't understand.


As I understand it, it is not possible (yet) to count atoms precisely
enough to give better precision than comparing against that lump of
platinum/iridium alloy in Paris, using a balance. A few years ago, I read
an article in _Science_ magazine about research into improving
atom-counting methods, with the ultimate goal of replacing the current
mass standard.

About the same time, I read another article about a fellow who had the
unique job of of keeping the standard kilogram clean. He had just the
right "touch", so as to remove possible contaminants without removing
enough of the metal to make a significant difference. He was about to
retire, and people were worrying about whether his successor would do as
good a job in preserving the constancy of the mass standard!

Everything in physics that has to do with a measure of the
quantity of the matter involved, is tied by SI at the base
standards to that lump of mass, and nobody knows how many
atoms of what - how much material - _is_ there in that mass!
What kind of "base standard" is this. It is neither
"accessible" nor "invariable". The moment you make it
accessible (using Avogadro's number) you've redefined that
base standard! What fools one has to deal with.
--
nazare pAk tavAnad rokhe jAnAn didan
ke dar Ayineh nazar joz besafA natvAn kard
moshkele eshgh na dar howseleye dAneshe mAst
halle in nokteh bedin fekre khatA natvAn kard
"Hafez"
.
User: "Edward Green"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 25 Aug 2004 06:12:27 PM
Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:<19lxxrij2nef3$.gnd7u4ss8f78$.dlg@40tude.net>...

On Wed, 25 Aug 2004 04:54:51 +0000 (UTC), Jon Bell wrote:

In article <6f9d6noyclue$.15fitfbm8l4u9$.dlg@40tude.net>,
Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote:

Why did SI adopt "luminous intensity" as one of the 7 base
physical quantities? What is exactly meant by it anyway?


Luminous intensity is the physical quantity that determines the
"brightness" of a light source as perceived by the eye.


Since when this would constitute enough basis for choosing
it as one of the 7 base quantities? That was my question.


It depends on the
radiant intensity (watts per steradian emitted by the source) and on the
sensitivity of a "standard eye" as a function of wavelength, as specified
by a standard photometric curve.

Reference:
<http://www.schorsch.com/kbase/glossary/luminous_intensity.html>
and pages linked from it.


At the above site it begins with:

"The luminous intensity is the luminous flux emitted from a
point per unit solid angle into a particular direction."

In other words it doesn't even know how to speak physics,
let alone understanding it or trying to make others
understand anything. I can already see two mistakes in that
one-sentence statement.

Hi, Maleki.
I share your pain. ;-) This material is _maddenly_ difficult for an
outsider to understand, since insiders, as is so often the case, seem
to be incapable of writing a program which would lead an outsider into
the inner circle in a smooth logical progression. I'm not an insider,
but I think I understand the definitions, and they are actually OK.
First we have to agree what _radiant_ (N.B.) flux is in this context.
It is, in fact, simply the total power emitted by a source, invariably
measured in watts.
Then, we have to understand what _luminous_ flux is: simply a
frequency weighted version of radiant flux. That's all there is to
it. The weighting function is _motivated_ by the frequency
sensitivity of the human eye, but we can think of it as simply some
arbitrary given function of frequency, so that the unit of "luminous
flux" (the lumen) is an objectively measureable unit.
Next we have to agree what is meant by "intensity" in this context.
Your sticking point is, I take it, "per unit solid angle in a
particular direction". I will concede the addition of the word "unit"
here is unfortunate. This is however an old confusion -- not in
anyway to derogate you, since old confusions are the best confusions,
and I struggled with this one in this context as if I had never met it
anyplace else, but it is just the same semantic problem encountered in
expressing any ratio or derivative as something "per unit" of
something else. We don't mean we have to consider the change over a
complete unit of the denominator!
E.g.: acceleration is change of velocity "per unit" time, no? We
don't mean that we can only evaluate the average acceleration over a
complete second, do we? We may as well have left out the misleading
"per unit" and simply said "acceleration is velocity change per time".
But if we were going to write the definition of a(t) on the model of
the quoted definition of luminous intensity, we might have said
"acceleration is the velocity change per unit time evalutated at a
particular moment".
Boy. That _does_ suck. :-)
What the definition is trying to say is that luminous intensity is
simply the parent extensive quantity (luminous flux) per solid angle.
This intensity in general is a function of the radial direction on the
sphere ("in a particular direction").
As for why it was necessary to include these peculiar units
specialized to human perception and the practical art of lighting
among the "7 base quantities" of SI, I don't know. Must have been a
political thing: maybe the lighting engineers had a powerful lobby?
:-)
.
User: "Maleki"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 26 Aug 2004 10:59:08 AM
On 25 Aug 2004 16:12:27 -0700, Edward Green wrote:


First we have to agree what _radiant_ (N.B.) flux is in this context.
It is, in fact, simply the total power emitted by a source, invariably
measured in watts.

Then, we have to understand what _luminous_ flux is: simply a
frequency weighted version of radiant flux. That's all there is to
it.

SI doesn't clear this out. There's no mention of limiting
the radiancy to one or a set of frequencies.

The weighting function is _motivated_ by the frequency
sensitivity of the human eye, but we can think of it as simply some
arbitrary given function of frequency, so that the unit of "luminous
flux" (the lumen) is an objectively measureable unit.

Then why that frequency (or the particular frequency
dependence) is not mentioned. Why would they limit our ways
of communicating the measurements of observed radiant energy
to just a limited range of frequencies! Do you see what
you're saying? :-)

Next we have to agree what is meant by "intensity" in this context.
Your sticking point is, I take it, "per unit solid angle in a
particular direction". I will concede the addition of the word "unit"
here is unfortunate. This is however an old confusion -- not in
anyway to derogate you, since old confusions are the best confusions,
and I struggled with this one in this context as if I had never met it
anyplace else, but it is just the same semantic problem encountered in
expressing any ratio or derivative as something "per unit" of
something else. We don't mean we have to consider the change over a
complete unit of the denominator!

I have no confusion there, and it is not a semantic problem
either. When we say "per unit" of something when rates of
change are being expressed, in practice there's no error
invovled because the "per infinitesimal amount" of
something, numerically, is identical to "per unit" of that
thing (per infinitesimal times the amount, and amount is "1"
for the unit amount). This is standard practice and always
works, for any precision. You just use smaller units to get
higher precision.

[...]

What the definition is trying to say is that luminous intensity is
simply the parent extensive quantity (luminous flux) per solid angle.
This intensity in general is a function of the radial direction on the
sphere ("in a particular direction").

As for why it was necessary to include these peculiar units
specialized to human perception and the practical art of lighting
among the "7 base quantities" of SI, I don't know. Must have been a
political thing: maybe the lighting engineers had a powerful lobby?
:-)

Limiting our communication of measurements we make of
radiant energy to a particular range of frequencies means
ignoring physics that exists outside that range of
frequencies. So if my spectrometer shows a peak somewhere
outside such frequencies, just how do I communicate that
quantity using "candela"? Oh boy.
--
ruzeye bi namAz.
.
User: "Edward Green"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 27 Aug 2004 05:26:13 PM
Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:<113vo1ifghimq$.r2gcor2r6w50.dlg@40tude.net>...

On 25 Aug 2004 16:12:27 -0700, Edward Green wrote:



First we have to agree what _radiant_ (N.B.) flux is in this context.
It is, in fact, simply the total power emitted by a source, invariably
measured in watts.

Then, we have to understand what _luminous_ flux is: simply a
frequency weighted version of radiant flux. That's all there is to
it.


SI doesn't clear this out. There's no mention of limiting
the radiancy to one or a set of frequencies.

You're not following me.
"Radiant flux" and "luminous flux" are two different physical
quantities, and one is a frequency weighted version of the other:
radiant flux is the pure physics version, luminous flux is a
specialized version motivated by human perception -- cf. the Roentgen
and the REM (I've been dying to get that one in ;-).
But who said anything about limiting ourselves to one or a set of
frequencies? For radiant flux, the frequency is irrelevant, since we
just have total radiated power. For luminous flux I suppose you might
say we were limited to visual frequencies -- for which the weighting
factor is non-zero -- but you could also say the weighting factor for
x-rays or radio waves just happened to be zero -- until at high enough
intensity we saw a flash of light as our eyes exploded.
That would be a brief excursion above zero. :-)

The weighting function is _motivated_ by the frequency
sensitivity of the human eye, but we can think of it as simply some
arbitrary given function of frequency, so that the unit of "luminous
flux" (the lumen) is an objectively measureable unit.


Then why that frequency (or the particular frequency
dependence) is not mentioned.

I saw it mentioned as some "CIE" table in the definitions cited.
The definitions may be misleading because the equivalent power for the
visual units tend to be quoted at a particular frequency. That's not
because the units are only defined at that frequency; you'd need the
table to find the equivalent power at other frequencies, or in a band.

Why would they limit our ways
of communicating the measurements of observed radiant energy
to just a limited range of frequencies!

The subject is lighting?
<...>

Limiting our communication of measurements we make of
radiant energy to a particular range of frequencies means
ignoring physics that exists outside that range of
frequencies. So if my spectrometer shows a peak somewhere
outside such frequencies, just how do I communicate that
quantity using "candela"? Oh boy.

Once again, the subject is _lighting_. You would only use the candela
or the lumen if you were talking about lighting! If you are not
talking about illumination with visual light for the purposes of
enabling human visual perception, you would use some other units.
What's the problem?
Now that I think of it, I feel sure radar and sonar engineers use at
least some parts of these concepts: they care about illuminating
targets, angular distribution of radiated power; but not, of course,
about the artefacts of human perception.
(I am only enabled to sound so uppity because, at some previous epoch,
I invested the pain in deciphering the tablets in this particular bit
of scientific arcana. But it is now my God given right. ;-)
.
User: "Maleki"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 28 Aug 2004 08:31:32 PM
On 27 Aug 2004 15:26:13 -0700, Edward Green wrote:

Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:<113vo1ifghimq$.r2gcor2r6w50.dlg@40tude.net>...

On 25 Aug 2004 16:12:27 -0700, Edward Green wrote:



First we have to agree what _radiant_ (N.B.) flux is in this context.
It is, in fact, simply the total power emitted by a source, invariably
measured in watts.

Then, we have to understand what _luminous_ flux is: simply a
frequency weighted version of radiant flux. That's all there is to
it.


SI doesn't clear this out. There's no mention of limiting
the radiancy to one or a set of frequencies.


You're not following me.

"Radiant flux" and "luminous flux" are two different physical
quantities, and one is a frequency weighted version of the other:
radiant flux is the pure physics version, luminous flux is a
specialized version motivated by human perception -- cf. the Roentgen
and the REM (I've been dying to get that one in ;-).
But who said anything about limiting ourselves to one or a set of
frequencies? For radiant flux, the frequency is irrelevant, since we
just have total radiated power. For luminous flux I suppose you might
say we were limited to visual frequencies -- for which the weighting
factor is non-zero -- but you could also say the weighting factor for
x-rays or radio waves just happened to be zero -- until at high enough
intensity we saw a flash of light as our eyes exploded.

That would be a brief excursion above zero. :-)

The weighting function is _motivated_ by the frequency
sensitivity of the human eye, but we can think of it as simply some
arbitrary given function of frequency, so that the unit of "luminous
flux" (the lumen) is an objectively measureable unit.


Then why that frequency (or the particular frequency
dependence) is not mentioned.


I saw it mentioned as some "CIE" table in the definitions cited.

The definitions may be misleading because the equivalent power for the
visual units tend to be quoted at a particular frequency. That's not
because the units are only defined at that frequency; you'd need the
table to find the equivalent power at other frequencies, or in a band.

Why would they limit our ways
of communicating the measurements of observed radiant energy
to just a limited range of frequencies!


The subject is lighting?

<...>

Limiting our communication of measurements we make of
radiant energy to a particular range of frequencies means
ignoring physics that exists outside that range of
frequencies. So if my spectrometer shows a peak somewhere
outside such frequencies, just how do I communicate that
quantity using "candela"? Oh boy.


Once again, the subject is _lighting_. You would only use the candela
or the lumen if you were talking about lighting!

Lighting? What the heck is lighting? Do you mean visibility
and degrees there of? What's visibility standards doing
among the 7 base quantities for physics?? Why didn't they
add standards for human pain, penis erection, tying one's
shoe laces to other base standards?

If you are not
talking about illumination with visual light for the purposes of
enabling human visual perception, you would use some other units.

What's the problem?

Now that I think of it, I feel sure radar and sonar engineers use at
least some parts of these concepts: they care about illuminating
targets, angular distribution of radiated power; but not, of course,
about the artefacts of human perception.

(I am only enabled to sound so uppity because, at some previous epoch,
I invested the pain in deciphering the tablets in this particular bit
of scientific arcana. But it is now my God given right. ;-)

--
dir zAyideh zud mikhAd bozorg koneh.
.
User: "Edward Green"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 29 Aug 2004 07:50:25 AM
Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:<1mecgkeqi36o8.1flo2ne292z17.dlg@40tude.net>...

On 27 Aug 2004 15:26:13 -0700, Edward Green wrote:

Once again, the subject is _lighting_. You would only use the candela
or the lumen if you were talking about lighting!


Lighting? What the heck is lighting?

I mean the effect associated with the electric light bulb in the
presence of a human observer.

Do you mean visibility
and degrees there of? What's visibility standards doing
among the 7 base quantities for physics?? Why didn't they
add standards for human pain, penis erection, tying one's
shoe laces to other base standards?

I already told you: the lighting engineers must have had a powerful
lobby. :-)
.
User: "tadchem"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 30 Aug 2004 08:30:07 AM
(Edward Green) wrote in message news:<eca320d0.0408290450.6790367c@posting.google.com>...
<snip>

I already told you: the lighting engineers must have had a powerful
lobby. :-)

http://www.kingfeatures.com/features/comics/orange/about.htm
[select cartoon for Wednesday, July 28, 2004]
Tom Davidson
Richmond, VA
.
User: "Edward Green"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 30 Aug 2004 04:07:18 PM
(tadchem) wrote in message news:<130fe1c3.0408300530.630fd89@posting.google.com>...

spamspamspam3@netzero.com (Edward Green) wrote in message news:<eca320d0.0408290450.6790367c@posting.google.com>...

<snip>

I already told you: the lighting engineers must have had a powerful
lobby. :-)


http://www.kingfeatures.com/features/comics/orange/about.htm
[select cartoon for Wednesday, July 28, 2004]

:-):-):-)
That's very good!
.


User: "Maleki"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 31 Aug 2004 01:22:43 PM
On 29 Aug 2004 05:50:25 -0700, Edward Green wrote:

Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:<1mecgkeqi36o8.1flo2ne292z17.dlg@40tude.net>...

On 27 Aug 2004 15:26:13 -0700, Edward Green wrote:


Once again, the subject is _lighting_. You would only use the candela
or the lumen if you were talking about lighting!


Lighting? What the heck is lighting?


I mean the effect associated with the electric light bulb in the
presence of a human observer.

Do you mean visibility
and degrees there of? What's visibility standards doing
among the 7 base quantities for physics?? Why didn't they
add standards for human pain, penis erection, tying one's
shoe laces to other base standards?


I already told you: the lighting engineers must have had a powerful
lobby. :-)

It is in a way very true. It all boils down to the same
fact, over and over. The simple fact that in physics one
cannot afford to live by the engineering standards.
A lot of "good enough" schemes, even definitions (as we saw
in the case of "flux", etc), in various engineering fields
are too vague and useless in physics. That "science and
technology" dictionary had those ridiculous definitions
correct, but when applied to simplified cases in some
engineering field.
Who's an "engineer" anyway? An engineer is someone who says,
"give me something that works for me in what I do and I'll
shut up". This isn't enough in physics.
--
neshasteh khAyeh gondeh mikoneh.
.
User: "Edward Green"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 05 Sep 2004 02:34:37 PM
Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:<1s3zt2eeigs92$.lcwysolk4nq8$.dlg@40tude.net>... <...>

Who's an "engineer" anyway? An engineer is someone who says,
"give me something that works for me in what I do and I'll
shut up". This isn't enough in physics.

One could also adopt the view that an engineer is somebody who has to
produce something that _works_, period. :-)
.
User: "tadchem"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 06 Sep 2004 03:48:17 AM
"Edward Green" <spamspamspam3@netzero.com> wrote in message
news:eca320d0.0409051134.3a458e96@posting.google.com...

Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message

news:<1s3zt2eeigs92$.lcwysolk4nq8$.dlg@40tude.net>... <...>


Who's an "engineer" anyway? An engineer is someone who says,
"give me something that works for me in what I do and I'll
shut up". This isn't enough in physics.


One could also adopt the view that an engineer is somebody who has to
produce something that _works_, period. :-)

The job of the Scientist is to make sure that something can do the job.
The job of the Builder is to make sure that it will do the job.
The job of the Engineer is to make sure that it will do the job as cheaply
as possible.
The job of the Lawyer is to sue the others when it doesn't do the job.
Tom Davidson
Richmond, VA
.

User: "dar7yl"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 05 Sep 2004 04:49:24 PM

Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote

Who's an "engineer" anyway?

"An engineer is a biological machine that converts coffee into other
machines." -annon
regards,
Dar7yl.
.

User: "Dave Typinski"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 07 Sep 2004 08:12:57 AM
Edward Green wrote:

Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:<1s3zt2eeigs92$.lcwysolk4nq8$.dlg@40tude.net>... <...>

Who's an "engineer" anyway? An engineer is someone who says,
"give me something that works for me in what I do and I'll
shut up". This isn't enough in physics.


One could also adopt the view that an engineer is somebody who has to
produce something that _works_, period. :-)

Well, "_works_" yes; but, not just period. In engineering, as with
everything else, the devil lies in the details.
Perhaps the best description of engineering (of the mechanical sort,
anyway) that I've run across came from a U Wash engineering professor.
It was a sound bite in a _Modern Marvels_ episode. Paraphrased from
memory:
"Engineering is the field of taking materials that we do not fully
understand, molding them into shapes that we cannot fully analyze,
subjecting them to forces that we cannot fully predict, and doing all
this in such a fashion that society at large is never given any
reason at all to suspect the magnitude of our ignorance."
--
Dave Typinski
http://home.alltel.net/trapezium
.


User: "Andy Resnick"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 01 Sep 2004 06:59:57 AM
Maleki wrote:

On 29 Aug 2004 05:50:25 -0700, Edward Green wrote:
<snip>

It is in a way very true. It all boils down to the same
fact, over and over. The simple fact that in physics one
cannot afford to live by the engineering standards.

A lot of "good enough" schemes, even definitions (as we saw
in the case of "flux", etc), in various engineering fields
are too vague and useless in physics. That "science and
technology" dictionary had those ridiculous definitions
correct, but when applied to simplified cases in some
engineering field.

Who's an "engineer" anyway? An engineer is someone who says,
"give me something that works for me in what I do and I'll
shut up". This isn't enough in physics.


I would be careful claiming physics is in some way superior to
engineering. After all, physics is rather guilty of mangling
mathematics in the name of "intuitively obvious"....
--
Andrew Resnick, Ph.D.
Department of Physiology and Biophysics
CWRU School of Medicine
tanspose 'op' for mail
.







User: "Andy Resnick"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 25 Aug 2004 12:18:33 PM
Maleki wrote:

On Wed, 25 Aug 2004 04:54:51 +0000 (UTC), Jon Bell wrote:



In article <6f9d6noyclue$.15fitfbm8l4u9$.dlg@40tude.net>,
Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote:


Why did SI adopt "luminous intensity" as one of the 7 base
physical quantities? What is exactly meant by it anyway?


Luminous intensity is the physical quantity that determines the
"brightness" of a light source as perceived by the eye.



Since when this would constitute enough basis for choosing
it as one of the 7 base quantities? That was my question.


Part of your confusion could be due to the (so-called :)) science of
radiometry/photometry. "Intensity" itself can mean 'per unit area' or
'per unit solid angle', depending to whom you are speaking with.
"Source brightness" is the concept that is desired to be standardized,
but since sources can not only vary in total power and spectral output
but also the direction the power is distributed, one must be rather
pedantic about specifying the physical property of interest. Note that
"brightness" is a photometric quantity in it's own right, but is not
really what the non-specialist refers to.
http://physics.nist.gov/cuu/Units/candela.html
Has some historical background on why the standard is so goofy- there
used to be an honest-to-god standard candle flame. The 1/683 business
has to do with the response of the standard eyebone at green (that's the
540 THz part).
<snip>


Reference:
<http://www.schorsch.com/kbase/glossary/luminous_intensity.html>
and pages linked from it.




At the above site it begins with:

"The luminous intensity is the luminous flux emitted from a
point per unit solid angle into a particular direction."

In other words it doesn't even know how to speak physics,
let alone understanding it or trying to make others
understand anything. I can already see two mistakes in that
one-sentence statement.

I don't understand, the sentence as written makes perfect sense.
Intensity is flux per unit solid angle, not flux per unit area. The
flux per unit solid angle from all sources save an isotropic radiator
varies with direction.

<snip>

Everything in physics that has to do with a measure of the
quantity of the matter involved, is tied by SI at the base
standards to that lump of mass, and nobody knows how many
atoms of what - how much material - _is_ there in that mass!
What kind of "base standard" is this. It is neither
"accessible" nor "invariable". The moment you make it
accessible (using Avogadro's number) you've redefined that
base standard! What fools one has to deal with.


Perhaps, but it is a better system than using the length of someone's
thumb, or the length of a day. To ask "How do we know the standard
kilogram contains XXX atoms" isn't the point. The standard mass is
unique in that a specific physical object is required for the definition
(as opposed to the meter, second, etc..), although there are efforts to
tie mass to electrical current, I believe.
http://www.npl.co.uk/mass/faqs/kilogram.html
is interesting reading.
--
Andrew Resnick, Ph.D.
Department of Physiology and Biophysics
CWRU School of Medicine
.
User: "Maleki"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 25 Aug 2004 01:26:07 PM
On Wed, 25 Aug 2004 13:18:33 -0400, Andy Resnick wrote:

Maleki wrote:

On Wed, 25 Aug 2004 04:54:51 +0000 (UTC), Jon Bell wrote:



In article <6f9d6noyclue$.15fitfbm8l4u9$.dlg@40tude.net>,
Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote:


Why did SI adopt "luminous intensity" as one of the 7 base
physical quantities? What is exactly meant by it anyway?


Luminous intensity is the physical quantity that determines the
"brightness" of a light source as perceived by the eye.



Since when this would constitute enough basis for choosing
it as one of the 7 base quantities? That was my question.


Part of your confusion could be due to the (so-called :)) science of
radiometry/photometry. "Intensity" itself can mean 'per unit area' or
'per unit solid angle', depending to whom you are speaking with.

Perhaps in engineering. In physics you convey the same
thought regardless of whom you're speaking. And tools of
conveying them are unique, and frequenty numerous.

"Source brightness" is the concept that is desired to be standardized,
but since sources can not only vary in total power and spectral output
but also the direction the power is distributed, one must be rather
pedantic about specifying the physical property of interest. Note that
"brightness" is a photometric quantity in it's own right, but is not
really what the non-specialist refers to.

http://physics.nist.gov/cuu/Units/candela.html

Has some historical background on why the standard is so goofy- there
used to be an honest-to-god standard candle flame. The 1/683 business
has to do with the response of the standard eyebone at green (that's the
540 THz part).

<snip>


Reference:
<http://www.schorsch.com/kbase/glossary/luminous_intensity.html>
and pages linked from it.




At the above site it begins with:

"The luminous intensity is the luminous flux emitted from a
point per unit solid angle into a particular direction."

In other words it doesn't even know how to speak physics,
let alone understanding it or trying to make others
understand anything. I can already see two mistakes in that
one-sentence statement.

I don't understand, the sentence as written makes perfect sense.
Intensity is flux per unit solid angle, not flux per unit area.

Well, then you don't know what's meant by "flux" in physics.
In physics we don't have "flux per unit solid angle". The
phrase harbors in itself a conflict of terms. What you're
trying to express and enlighten me of is _directional_ flux
density. And there is no "flux per unit area" in the entire
science, and in the English lexicon for that matter, let
alone in physics.
So let's cut the crap and go back to what I asked. Flux of
what? Is this "luminosity" a measure and standard for a
certain number of photons? Energy they carry? Only those
photons that "meet the eye"? Or are you going to use that
"perfect" sentence and throw the adjective "luminous" to
describe the "luminous" intensity?

The
flux per unit solid angle from all sources save an isotropic radiator
varies with direction.

<snip>

Everything in physics that has to do with a measure of the
quantity of the matter involved, is tied by SI at the base
standards to that lump of mass, and nobody knows how many
atoms of what - how much material - _is_ there in that mass!
What kind of "base standard" is this. It is neither
"accessible" nor "invariable". The moment you make it
accessible (using Avogadro's number) you've redefined that
base standard! What fools one has to deal with.


Perhaps, but it is a better system than using the length of someone's
thumb, or the length of a day. To ask "How do we know the standard
kilogram contains XXX atoms" isn't the point. The standard mass is
unique in that a specific physical object is required for the definition
(as opposed to the meter, second, etc..), although there are efforts to
tie mass to electrical current, I believe.

http://www.npl.co.uk/mass/faqs/kilogram.html

is interesting reading.

--
Andrew Resnick, Ph.D.
Department of Physiology and Biophysics
CWRU School of Medicine

--
ze bimAri batar bimAr-dAri
.
User: "Edward Green"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 25 Aug 2004 06:29:20 PM
Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:<1arbpkk24ihef.1la1zw8iu65tg.dlg@40tude.net>...

On Wed, 25 Aug 2004 13:18:33 -0400, Andy Resnick wrote:

Part of your confusion could be due to the (so-called :)) science of
radiometry/photometry. "Intensity" itself can mean 'per unit area' or
'per unit solid angle', depending to whom you are speaking with.


Perhaps in engineering. In physics you convey the same
thought regardless of whom you're speaking.

Maybe in an ideal world, but in reality, I think not.
Intensity is always "something per something else", but the
denominator as well as the numerator may depend on context.
But that's nothing compored to different uses of "flux". In
electromagnetism magnetic or electric flux is an extensive quantity,
but "neutron flux" is an intensive quantity. It would be nice if it
could be agreed if flux is the part of the integrand of a surface
integral which dots "dS", or the result of the integral.
.
User: "Maleki"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 26 Aug 2004 03:45:10 PM
On 25 Aug 2004 16:29:20 -0700, Edward Green wrote:

Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:<1arbpkk24ihef.1la1zw8iu65tg.dlg@40tude.net>...

On Wed, 25 Aug 2004 13:18:33 -0400, Andy Resnick wrote:


Part of your confusion could be due to the (so-called :)) science of
radiometry/photometry. "Intensity" itself can mean 'per unit area' or
'per unit solid angle', depending to whom you are speaking with.


Perhaps in engineering. In physics you convey the same
thought regardless of whom you're speaking.


Maybe in an ideal world, but in reality, I think not.

Intensity is always "something per something else", but the
denominator as well as the numerator may depend on context.

But that's nothing compored to different uses of "flux". In
electromagnetism magnetic or electric flux is an extensive quantity,
but "neutron flux" is an intensive quantity. It would be nice if it
could be agreed if flux is the part of the integrand of a surface
integral which dots "dS", or the result of the integral.

The terms "extensive" and "intensive" for me means existence
or non-existance of dependency on mass (or amount) of a
quantity in a system. So I don't know how you applied the
terms to magnetic and electric field.
Anyway the term flux has different but unique and clearly
defined meanings in different areas of physics. In transport
physics flux implies "per unit time" and through whatever
surface we may be considering. Infinitesimal or not.
What threw me off about flux earlier (see one of my replies
to Resnick) was an erroneous definition given by a science
dictionary (Wordsworth Dic. of Science and Tech.) that I had
opened up out of laziness. In there, it defined flux as flow
of a quantity per unit time and per unit normal area. This
is not correct. Its definition for flux density was also
wrong.
--
sad tA gonjeshk bA zAghozughesh nim maneh.
.
User: "Edward Green"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 27 Aug 2004 04:58:39 PM
Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:<hpspr1k374qt$.9dro1rdy6dwz$.dlg@40tude.net>...

On 25 Aug 2004 16:29:20 -0700, Edward Green wrote:

Maleki <maleki_m_@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:<1arbpkk24ihef.1la1zw8iu65tg.dlg@40tude.net>...

On Wed, 25 Aug 2004 13:18:33 -0400, Andy Resnick wrote:


Part of your confusion could be due to the (so-called :)) science of
radiometry/photometry. "Intensity" itself can mean 'per unit area' or
'per unit solid angle', depending to whom you are speaking with.


Perhaps in engineering. In physics you convey the same
thought regardless of whom you're speaking.


Maybe in an ideal world, but in reality, I think not.

Intensity is always "something per something else", but the
denominator as well as the numerator may depend on context.

But that's nothing compored to different uses of "flux". In
electromagnetism magnetic or electric flux is an extensive quantity,
but "neutron flux" is an intensive quantity. It would be nice if it
could be agreed if flux is the part of the integrand of a surface
integral which dots "dS", or the result of the integral.


The terms "extensive" and "intensive" for me means existence
or non-existance of dependency on mass (or amount) of a
quantity in a system. So I don't know how you applied the
terms to magnetic and electric field.

Well, I was generalizing the ideas -- an extensive quantity is the
integral of an intensive quantity: mass is the volume integral of
density, flux (in the sense of total flow) is the integral of flux
density over a surface, total arrivals the integral of arrival rate
over a time interval, etc.
For the electric field, the integral over a surface would be the
extensive quantity, whereas the field itself is the intensive
precursor -- the thing integrated, the flux density. Note for the
magnetic field this is precisely the name of the field!

Anyway the term flux has different but unique and clearly
defined meanings in different areas of physics. In transport
physics flux implies "per unit time" and through whatever
surface we may be considering. Infinitesimal or not.

What threw me off about flux earlier (see one of my replies
to Resnick) was an erroneous definition given by a science
dictionary (Wordsworth Dic. of Science and Tech.) that I had
opened up out of laziness. In there, it defined flux as flow
of a quantity per unit time and per unit normal area.
This is not correct.

Just not general, I'd say. This was for some reason what I used to
think the definition of flux is or ought to be, and the usage of
"neutron flux" which I mentioned above backs me up. But not EM, and
(apparently) not transport theory. So it seems likely we are stuck
with this inconsistent terminology as a culturally ingrained oolie,
like mathematicians and physicists disagreeing on the meaning of
"covariant" and "contra-variant".

Its definition for flux density was also
wrong.

I'd be curious what that was, since their definition for "flux" seems
to preempt "flux density"!
Of course there is also the damanable semantic confusion about "per
unit" which I mentioned elsewhere -- when neutron flux is defined as
"...the number of neutrons passing through a unit area in unit
time..."
<http://www.thefreedictionary.com/neutron%20flux>, or
"...the number of neutrons passing through 1 square centimeter of a
given target in 1 second...>
http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/basic-ref/glossary/neutron-flux.html
We could be misled into thinking we were definining an extensive
quantity. We're not.
.
User: "Maleki"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 28 Aug 2004 08:57:12 PM
On 27 Aug 2004 14:58:39 -0700, Edward Green wrote:

What threw me off about flux earlier (see one of my replies
to Resnick) was an erroneous definition given by a science
dictionary (Wordsworth Dic. of Science and Tech.) that I had
opened up out of laziness. In there, it defined flux as flow
of a quantity per unit time and per unit normal area.
This is not correct.


Just not general, I'd say. This was for some reason what I used to
think the definition of flux is or ought to be, and the usage of
"neutron flux" which I mentioned above backs me up. But not EM, and
(apparently) not transport theory. So it seems likely we are stuck
with this inconsistent terminology as a culturally ingrained oolie,
like mathematicians and physicists disagreeing on the meaning of
"covariant" and "contra-variant".

Its definition for flux density was also
wrong.


I'd be curious what that was, since their definition for "flux" seems
to preempt "flux density"!

They were defined within one line of each other, and the
definitions asied being each wrong, also conflicted
themselves. Here they are:[from Wordsworth Dictionary of
Science & Technology, 1995, page 355]
- flux (phys.): the rate of flow of mass, volume, or energy
per unit cross-section normal to the direction of flow.
- flux density (phys.): the number of photons (or particles)
passing through unit area normal to the beam, or the energy
of radiation passing through this area.
The correct way of defining them is: [as far as I
understand]
- flux: flow of a physical quantity through a specified
surface per unit time, from one side of the surface to the
other side.
- flux density: flow of a physical quantity through a unit
area per unit time, from one side of the area to the other
side. In other words: flux per unit area.
Note that flux density is the outcome of integration of
directional flux density over the 2*pi steradians, and that
flux is the outcome of integration of flux density over
total area.
--
sad mush ro yek gorbeh kAfiyeh.
.




User: "Andy Resnick"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 25 Aug 2004 03:25:00 PM
Maleki wrote:

<snip>

So let's cut the crap and go back to what I asked. Flux of
what?

Energy. Cd resolves to W/sr. You're ineducable. Read a book or something.
<snip>
--
Andrew Resnick, Ph.D.
Department of Physiology and Biophysics
CWRU School of Medicine
.
User: "Maleki"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 25 Aug 2004 04:51:04 PM
On Wed, 25 Aug 2004 16:25:00 -0400, Andy Resnick wrote:

Maleki wrote:

<snip>

So let's cut the crap and go back to what I asked. Flux of
what?


Energy. Cd resolves to W/sr. You're ineducable. Read a book or something.

<snip>

If it is the energy of the photons that are meant in that SI
standard, then why don't they express it using the common
physics expression of either "radiancy" (per unit solid
angle) or directional energy flux density? What is this
"luminous intensity" terminology doing within the 7 most
basic standards in physics, that SI has chosen? Doesn't it
sound odd to anyone?
--
hamAn Ashasto hamAn kAseh.
.
User: "Andy Resnick"

Title: Re: Why luminous intensity 26 Aug 2004 09:04:22 AM
[crossposted to sci.optics]
Maleki wrote:

On Wed, 25 Aug 2004 16:25:00 -0400, Andy Resnick wrote:



Maleki wrote:



<snip>

So let's cut the crap and go back to what I asked. Flux of
what?



Energy. Cd resolves to W/sr. You're ineducable. Read a book or something.

<snip>

If it is the energy of the photons that are meant in that SI
standard, then why don't they express it using the common
physics expression of either "radiancy" (per unit solid
angle) or directional energy flux density? What is this
"luminous intensity" terminology doing within the 7 most
basic standards in physics, that SI has chosen? Doesn't it
sound odd to anyone?


It sounds odd to you because you are totally confused. "Radiancy" is
neither a photometric nor radiometric quanitity. "Radiance", as a
general term, has photometric units of cd/m^2 and radiometric units of
W/(m^2*sr). Radiance is more properly used for determining how bright a
source is vhen viewed by a detector. It is not intrinsic to the source
itself- it depends on the orientation between a (for example) planar
source to the detector.
Energy has photometric units of 'talbot' and radiometric units of
Joules, while Fluence has units of lumen*s or Joules. Flux goes as
either lm or Watt. Excitance, Emittance, and Incidance have radiometric
units of W/m^2, while Intensity has units of W/sr. I won't even go into
nits, finsen, skot, lux, nox, or stilb.
Photometry is simply radiometry weighted by the response of the human
eye. The SI standard is a photometric standard, not a radiometric
standard. Color standardization is even worse. Hint: what is the
spectral content of brown? Luminous intensity is not derivable from
length, time, mass, current, temperature, or quantity, specifically
because it is a photometric unit and not a radiometic unit.
I suggest reading "Introduction to Radiometry" by Wolfe.
--
Andrew Resnick, Ph.D.
Department of Physiology and Biophysics
CWRU School of Medicine
.








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