| Topic: |
Science > Physics |
| User: |
"" |
| Date: |
17 Aug 2006 11:22:35 AM |
| Object: |
Why same angular velocity in coupled oscillation? |
Hi
Suppose we have some kind of coupled oscillation where energy goes back
and forth between two things oscillating. Why does the two oscillations
have to have the same angular velocity for this energy transfer to take
place?
Or is it not so?
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| User: "Jim Lanson" |
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| Title: Re: Why same angular velocity in coupled oscillation? |
17 Aug 2006 12:35:39 PM |
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<janzon@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1155831755.689885.140420@h48g2000cwc.googlegroups.com...
Hi
Suppose we have some kind of coupled oscillation where energy goes back
and forth between two things oscillating. Why does the two oscillations
have to have the same angular velocity for this energy transfer to take
place?
Or is it not so?
could be at a harmonic in some cases
.
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| User: "tadchem" |
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| Title: Re: Why same angular velocity in coupled oscillation? |
17 Aug 2006 04:59:00 PM |
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wrote:
Hi
Suppose we have some kind of coupled oscillation where energy goes back
and forth between two things oscillating. Why does the two oscillations
have to have the same angular velocity for this energy transfer to take
place?
Or is it not so?
Usually coupled oscillators share the same *frequency*.
Sharing the same *angular velocity* (in those cases where 'angular
velocity' has meaning) is a simple consequence of the frequency
matching.
Coupled oscillators do not necessarily have 'angular' velocities. If
you suspend two equal masses from a single support using matched
springs (same resonant frequency) they will be coupled through the
support, even if the motions are *linear* as in "up-down," wiht no
angular component at all.
Tom Davidson
Richmond, VA
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