Should a Texas state court judge use Florida law to make decisions (and
not use Texas law)?

Should France use USA law (and not French law) to make it's decisions?

Would it be acceptible for any judge to ignore the law of their own
land and own government and use, in its place, a foreign law to make
decisions?

No?

Then, what makes anyone think that God is going to bypass His own law
to judge us by our own standards and view of ourselves?

All criminals think they are good in their own eyes. It doesn't make
it so. The courts of every land on earth determine a law breaker by
whether one broke their law, not whether the lawbreaker thought they
should be justified. Whether the criminal thinks the law is just is
irrelevant to the judge, whose law it is to enforce the law.

If we determine a criminal by the standard of the lawmaker (not the
lawbreaker), why should we expect God, as Judge, to ignore His own law
about us?

Kenny Clifton
-author of the Red Letter Stories
http://www.christianjedi.com/redletterstories.html